Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MOPs II > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How do sensory receptors respond to stimuli?

A

Different types of stimuli activate the opening and closing of ion channels
the type of stimuli that activates ion channels for a receptor is dependent on the physical structure of the receptor, the depth, and the surrounding structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of tactile cutaneous receptors (4)

A

Meissner corpuscles
Pacinian Corpuscles
Ruffini Corpuscles
Merkel Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Merkel Cells

A

tactile cutaneous receptor
responds to light touch
gives information entire time stimuli is present
A-beta axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Meissner corpuscle

A

tactile cutaneous receptor
responds to light touch (more precise stimulation)
gives information when stimuli is present and when it leaves
A-beta axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pacinian Corpuscle

A

tactile cutaneous receptor
responds to pressure and vibration
A-beta axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ruffini Corpuscle

A

tactile cutaneous receptor
responds to stretch
A-beta axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Muscle Spindle

A

Wound around mm fiber
stretch receptor
A-alpha axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Golgi Tendon Organ

A

between mm cells
respond to force generated by mm contraction
A-alpha axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does stimulus intensity depend on?

A

Action potential firing rate

higher rate for deep pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Receptors that do proprioception

A

mm spindles
golgi tendon organs
joint receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the somatosensory system system do

A

Body sensation
guidance of movement
influence behavioral state
protection from immediate and possible danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Label line for somatosensory stimuli

A

encoded in label line based on modality, location, intensity, and duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Two-point discrimination

A

ability to discriminate one point from two-points of indentation
varies across body
smaller 2-point discrimination means better tactile acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Joint receptors

A

know less about these

may help with detecting pain or fatigue or injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

somatosensory pathway divergence

A

diverges to cortex and brainstem (brainstem divergence is how somatosensory can influence behavioral state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nociceptors

A

C or A-omega axons
pain
mechanically, chemically, thermally gated ion channels
can be polymodal
free nn endings
innervate skin, muscoloskeletal, meningial, and visceral structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pruriceptors

A

C or A-omega axons
itch
mechanically, chemically, thermally gated ion channels
can be polymodal
free nn endings
innervate skin, muscoloskeletal, meningial, and visceral structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Axon classification

A

axons have different diameters and descriptions

smaller diameter the less myelination and slower conduction rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Axon classification biggest to smallest

A 
A-alpha
A-beta
A-gamma
A-omega
C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sensory pathway impairment

A

Loss of sensory awareness and discrimination

sensory ataxia is incoordination of movement results from impaired conscious perception of body position/movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sensory cortical impairment

A

difficulties perceiving somatosensory input

loss of perception of objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Brodmann’s area 1 and 3b

A

Rapid/slow adaptation to cutaneous reception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Brodmann’s area 2

A

Deep receptors and joint receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Brodmanns’ area 3a

A

muscle receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Does CNS sensitize to pain or inhibit pain?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Reduction of pain

A

Can be physical: gated theory

Can be pharmocological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pain

A

unpleasant sensory and emotional experience
results from nociceptor activity and perception
ex// under anesthesia, pain receptors still fire but there is not perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Divergence of pain pathway

A

reticular formation: activates neuromodal system
Periaqueductal grey: activation of analgesic response
Hypothalamus: activates autonomic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Allodynia

A

stimulus should not be perceived painful but it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Central analgesic system

A

pain input to the cortex and PAG initiates descending inhibition of pain fibers via serotonin, endorphins, or norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Serotonin and pain

A

Inhibits neurons in dorsal horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Endorphins and pain

A

targets metabotropic receptor for inhibition effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gate theory

A

separate pathway activated by physical stimulation that activates A-beta fiber that synapses onto interneuron which releases enkephalin that inhibits second order neuron in spinothalamic pathway (ex// rubbing hurt thumb after getting hit with hammer)
-pain stimulation message gets turned off at the source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is the spine strong or flexible and why?

A

strong and flexible to bear weight and move without collapsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Filium terminale

A

anchors to coccyx, extension of pia mater

anchors caudal SC so it stays straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dorsal roots

A

central axons of sensory neurons in dorsal root ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ventral roots

A

motor fibers exiting motor/sympathetic cells in ventral/lateral horns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the proportion of white to gray matter in the spinal cord mean?

A

Helps identify segment of spinal cord
some areas have more gray matter than others
Ex// cervial and lumbar enlargements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Spinal cord meninges

A

3 meningeal layers
dura only has meningeal later and not periostial layer
pia thickens to give off dentate ligament (filium terminae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dermatome

A

area of skin innervated by single spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe the spinal cord’s blood supply

A

anterior spinal artery and two posterolateral spinal arteries connected by corona artery all along length
form circle around SC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which level does the spinal CORD end at?

A

around L2-L3
still nerves but no longer in cord
cauda equina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are separate areas of cord marked by a pair of spinal nerves called?

A

Spinal segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How many pairs of SC nerves are there?

A

31 (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Organize roots, rootlets, and nerves

A

Dorsal rootlets -> dorsal root
Ventral rootlets-> ventral root

Ventral root + dorsal root-> spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Myotome

A

mm innervated by a nerve root

some mm innervated by multiple segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a key mm?

A

can test these mm to assess specific spinal segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Motor unit

A

LMN and all the fibers it innervates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

y-motor neuron

A

LMN innervating mm spindles to regulate sensitivity for sensing mm contractions during voluntary movement
keeps it tight so mm spindles are sensitive to stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Corticospinal tract divisions

A

90%=decussating fibers (lateral CST) cross midline in medulla
10%=uncrossed (Medial CST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Spinal interneurons

A

located in gray matter
can be glutamatergic (excitatory) or GABA/Glycinergic (inhibitory)
usually stay in segment, axons don’t travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are LMN alpha neurons?

A

LMN ARE alpha motor neurons
innervate skeletal mm
organized nuclei in anterior horn of SC
release ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Stretch reflex (Circuit, stimulus, response)

A

Circuit= 2 neurons
Stim= stretch
Result= contraction
Function=maintain upright posture in load conditions

Extra: negative feedback (respons eliminates stim); single segment; strongest in antigravity mm (extensors) and weakly extend to synergist mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Reciprocal Inhibition (circuit, stimulus, response)

A 
Circuit= disynaptic, 3 neurons
Stim= stretch
Response= relaxation in antagonist mm

Extra: reciprocal to stretch reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Withdrawal reflex (circuit, stimulus, response)

A 
Circuit= 4 neurons, interneurons
Stim= pain in periphery
Response= pull limb away from stim

Extra: extent of involvement is proportionate to intensity of stimulus; extends to multiple SC levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Crossed extension

A

produces contralateral contraction of antigravity mm
inhibits contralateral flexors
maintain upright posture during contralateral flexion reaction
Paired with withdrawal reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Is homeostasis a set number or a range?

A

Range; to keep range brain needs a lot of info
gets info from sensory receptors which gets funneled to hypothalamus (olfactory, visual, limbic, visceral, neuromodulatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

hypothalamus

A

anterior and ventral to thalamus

homeostasis and complex behaviors (reproduction, circadian rhythms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Efferents from HT

A

neuroendocrine system (pituitary) and autonomic nervous system

60
Q

What is the hypothalamus made of?

A

collection of 11 principal nuclei and each nuclei receives different information and directs responses

61
Q

Posterior pituitary

A

Extension of brain

direct release of neuropeptides into blood

62
Q

Anterior pituitary

A

part of endocrine system

influenced by hypothalamus to release hormones into blood

63
Q

What are the three branches of the autonomic nervous system?

A

sympathetic
parasympathetic
enteric

64
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Fight or flight
moment-to-moment blood supply, body temp, viscera regulation, metabolism
12 thoracic segments and upper 2 lumbar segments

65
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

rest and digest
energy conservation, lower heart activity, digestion, increase secretion
gray matter of brainstem (CN II, VII, IX, X) and middle 3 segments of sacral cord

66
Q

Adrenergic portions of ANS

A

Sympathetic nervous system: 2” order neurons release adrenaline onto target organs

67
Q

Cholinergic portions of ANS

A

Sympathetic nervous system: 1” neuron releases ACh on 2’ neurons
Parasympathetic nervous system: 1” neuron releases ACh on 2”; 2” release ACh on target organs

68
Q

Target organs of the sympathetic nervous system

A 
Adrenal gland
pupil/eyelid
secretory glands
bronchial mm
heart and blood vessels
smooth mm
sweat glands
69
Q

Target organs of the parasympathetic nervous system

A 
From brainstem: 
pupil
lacrimal glands
salivary glands
heart
respiratory structures
GI
From SC: 
bladder
bowel
sex organs
70
Q

visceral afferent pathways

A

median forebrain bundle

projections from nucleus of solitary tract

71
Q

Enteric nervous system

A 
automatic and self-regulating
influenced by CNS
located along walls of gut
3 neuron structure: sensory->interneuron->motor
use neuromodulatory neurotransmitters
72
Q

Neuroendocrine system

A

hormones

chemical messenger secreted into blood

73
Q

What do neuroendocrine hormones do?

A

long term ongoing functions of the body
growth, development, metabolism
regulation of internal env
at cell level: influence rate of enzymatic reactions, active transport of molecules across membranes, gene expression, and protein synthesis

74
Q

Anterior pituitary hormone release process

A

hormones synthesized in anterior pituitary influenced by trophic factors produced in HT
trophic factor is released into hyopthalamic-hypopseal tract

75
Q

Posterior pituitary hormone release process

A

hormones synthesized by neurons in hypothalamus and released directly into blood from post pit
regulate water balance, labor/delivery, lactation, sexual arousal

76
Q

Bladder function

A

sensory input from s2-s4 spinothalamic and DCML pathways
motor control: cortical/subcortical perception (direct to urinate or hold)
somatic s2-s4 (urethral sphincter, pelvic floor)
Parasymp NS S2-s4 (bladder contraction and urethral relaxation)
SNS: t11-L1 (bladder relaxation and urethral contraction)

77
Q

Bowel function

A

sensory input s2-s4 spinothalamic and DCML pathways
motor control:
cortical perception
somatic s2-s4 (pelvic floor and external anal sphincter)
Parasym NS s2-s4 (internal anal sphincter, colon, rectum)
CN X (gut distal to splenic fixture)

78
Q

Sexual function

A

sensory input: primary sensation modalities, cognitive/affective influences, s2-s4 spinothalamic/DCML
Motor output
cortical/subcortical
somatic s2-s4 (ejaculation)
Parasymp s2-s4 (lubrication and erection)
SNS T11-L1 (vaginal wall, erectile/anti-erectile, ejaculation)

79
Q

Spinal shock

A

temporary loss of motor and sensation reflexes below level of injury
acute phase
flaccid paralysis, arreflexia, loss of bladder function

80
Q

How do you know when spinal shock is over?

A

when reflexes at lowest SC level start to come back

81
Q

What is the presentation of a spinal cord injury?

think UMN and LMN pathologies

A

At the level of damage we would see LMN pathologies but traveling downward would see UMN pathologies

82
Q

Acute tx of SCI

A

CT/x-ray to assess
immobilization
steroid meds to decrease swelling and block formation of free radicals
modest systemic hypothermia

83
Q

What are the 4 key principles of SC repair?

A
  1. protecting surviving nn cells from more damage
  2. replace damaged nn cells
  3. sitmulate regrowth of axons and target connections
  4. retraining neural circuits to restore body functions
84
Q

What are therapy goals for SCI in acute care?

A 
ROM
OOB
Positioning
Education
Respiration
Skin
85
Q

What are therapy goals for SCI during inpatient rehab?

A 
ROM
OOB
Positioning
Education
Respiration
Skin
Mobility
ADL
strength
home modifications
family and patient education
wheelchair
bracing
86
Q

Cauda equina syndrome

A

injury to lumbosacral nn roots
arreflexic bowel and or bladder
variable mm involvement in LE but LMN paralysis/arreflexia and variable sensation loss in LE

87
Q

Dorsal root lesion

A

complete sensory loss in corresponding dermatome

88
Q

Ventral root lesion

A

LMN paralysis

89
Q

Segmental lesion

A

LMN paralysis and complete sensory loss

90
Q

Vertical tract lesion

A

LMN paralysis at lesion level
complete sensory loss in corresponding dermatome
UMN paresis of ipsilateral MM below lesion
contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation 1-2 levels below lesion
ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch and proprioception at and below lesion

91
Q

Syringomyelia

A

dilated, glial-lined cavity in SC=central cord syndromes

92
Q

central cord syndrome

A

cervical cord is the most common site
loss of pain/temperature related to crossing fibers
weak in arm mm with atrophy and hyporeflexia
may occur as a late sequelea to trauma

93
Q

Anterior cord syndrome

A 
hyperflexion
ex// MS, "SC stroke"
loss of pain and temperature sensation
UMN paralysis below lesion
LMN paralysis at involved levels
94
Q

Posterior cord syndrome

A

trauma, tumor, MS, “SC stroke”
loss of conscious proprioception and discriminative touch
rare

95
Q

Conus medullaris syndrome

A

sacral cord injury
arreflexia in bladder and bowel
LE motor varies-reflects LMN below and at lesion
LE sensory loss

96
Q

If there is a lesion at or above C4 what would you need to breathe?

A

artificial support

97
Q

If there is a lesion at or above T6 what would you need to breathe?

A

fine breathing in normal conditions but may need assistance

98
Q

If there is a lesion at or above T12 would breathing be affected?

A

no

99
Q

At what level do complete lesions result in ANS dysfunction and what does it cause?

A

T5/6
autonomic dysreflexia
poor thermoregulation
postural low BP

100
Q

Is there any part of the brain outside of the skull?

A

Yes, the eyes

101
Q

Anterior chamber of the eye

A

filled with aqueous humor (secreted by ciliary body) that is produced and drained at the same rate

102
Q

What happens if too much aqueous humor is produced and not drained quickly enough?

A

Can increase intraocular pressure and lead to glaucoma

103
Q

Poterior chamber of the eye

A

filled with vitreous humor
fills space behind lens
maintains shape
suspended with collagenous fibers

104
Q

Do you produce more vitreous humor?

A

No, amount born with is the amount you have forever

105
Q

Lens movements

A

can be flattened by ciliary mm relaxation- for seeing distance
when ciliary mm contracts the ciliary fibers relax and the lens rounds- good for close vision

106
Q

Iris

A

dilates in low light (sympathetic)

constricts in bright light (parasympathetic)

107
Q

Focus/teaming

A

convergence=eyes point to target
accomodation= lens change
constriction= pupil sharpens focus

108
Q

Cataracts

A

affect lens
protein build-up causes clouding
tx= surgery, anti-glare eyewear, env adjustments

109
Q

Central vision

A 
cones (color)
high acuity
low convergence
needs light
"what" pathway
110
Q

peripheral vision

A 
rods
lower acuity
more convergence
dim light
"where" pathway
111
Q

Where does visual information processing begin?

A

The retina

112
Q

Macular degeneration dry type

A 
90%
no new vessels
loss of pigment epithelium
atrophy of retina
gradual loss
113
Q

Macular degeneration wet type

A

growth factor stim
neovascularization
leaks and bleeds
sudden onset

114
Q

Macular degeneration tx

A

dietary supplements
low vision approaches
implement mini telescopes
anti-VEGF meds for wet type

115
Q

Lateral geniculate nucleus

A

layered by eye and pathway type
magnocellular LGN= dorsal stream
parvocellular LGN= ventral stream

116
Q

Visual perception

A

transforms light patterns on retina into interpretation of 3D whole
initial grouping into figure and ground
attentive processing: comparing features to stored data base and arriving at conclusions

117
Q

Binding

A

deciding what goes with what

preattentive processing: parallel encoding of elemental properties

118
Q

Optokinetic reflex

A

when stimulus moves, eyes automatically track it

need cerebellar functioning

119
Q

Saccades

A

brief movements to bring target image onto fovea

120
Q

vestibulocular reflex

A

focus on stimulus when head moves

need cerebellar functioning

121
Q

smooth pursuit

A

steady movement used to track moving visual target on the fovea

122
Q

what does the vestibular system do?

A

monitor head position in space
in ear
provides reference for somatosensory and visual system
influence balance, posture, eye position, movement, alertness

123
Q

How does the vestibular division monitor head position?

A

activation of haircells (stereocillia) that project into endolymph layer
motion of head moves endolymph which opens iion channels and allow K+ to enter which depolarizes hair cells

124
Q

Where are haircells located?

A

semicircular canals (ampullary cupula at base) and otolithic system

125
Q

Otolithic system

A

utricle (horizontal acceleration) and saccule (vertical acceleration)

126
Q

Structure of vestibular system

A

bone->perilymph (similar to CSF)->membranous labyrinth->endolymph (High K+)

127
Q

Name the separate vestibular nuclei and the directions of their projections

A

Superior (rostral)
Lateral (cerebellum and SC as vestibulospinal tract)
Medial (cerebellum and SC as vestibulospinal tract)
Spinal (cerebellum and SC as vestibulospinal tract)

128
Q

Tip Link

A

stereocilia connected through tip links

when larger stereocilia moves, the tip link opens and allows depolarizing

129
Q

Which structure does rotational acceleration?

A

Semicircular canals

130
Q

Which structure does linear acceleration and static head position/gravity?

A

Otolithic system

131
Q

What does the anterior canal detect?

A

forward and lateral movememt

132
Q

What does the horizontal canal detect?

A

circular motion

133
Q

What does the posterior canal detect?

A

Backward and lateral movement

134
Q

Superior vestibular nucleus

A

to thalamus then to cortex for conscious perception
to reticular formation for alertness/autonomic function
to CN nuclei (III, IV, VI) for vestibuloocular reflex

135
Q

Vestibuloocular reflex

A

eye movement equal and opposite to head movement

136
Q

Medial vestibulospinal tract

A

descends to LMN that innervates neck flexors and extensors
bilateral; stabalize head in space
vestibulocervical reflex

137
Q

Vestibulocervical reflex

A

keeps head vertical with respect to gravity

138
Q

Lateral vestibulospinal tract

A

descends, ipsilateral
synapses to LMN in cervical and lumbar SC and extensor mm
stabilizes center of gravity

139
Q

Vestibulospinal reflexes

A

maintain upright posture

140
Q

ankle strategy

A

going on tip of toes or heels to keep from stepping forward

141
Q

Vestibular disorder symptoms

A

vertigo, dizziness, nystagmus, unsteadiness

142
Q

Treatment of vestibular disorders

A

address cause
compensate with other senses
habituation

143
Q

Peripheral vestibular disorders

A

damage to vestibular organs and nn

sudden onset vertigo, nausea, worsened with head movement, evoked nystagmus, may involve cochlear nn

144
Q

Examples of peripheral vestibular disorders

A

neuritis, labyrinthitis, Menier’s disease, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

145
Q

Central vestibular disorders

A

damage to vestibular nuclei, cerebellum, midbrain, cortex
affect integration and processing
slower onset, may have vertigo/dizziness, not position affected, maybe nystagmus

146
Q

Examples of central vestibular disorders

A 
MS
Stroke
Tumor
Cerebellar degeneration
lower Blood sugar
ischemia

MOPs II (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions