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Histology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Dura mater

A

outer layer; thick; collagen & elastin; blood vessels; nerves; lymph vessels; fibroblasts

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2
Q

Arachnoid

A

middle layer; collagen & fibroblasts

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3
Q

Pia mater

A

inner layer; collagen & fibroblasts

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4
Q

Leptomeninges

A

arachnoid & pia mater

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5
Q

Subarachnoid space

A

b/w arachnoid & pia mater; CSF circulates here

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6
Q

Function of CSF

A

protection; maintains chemical stability of CNS (removes waste, provides macronutrients, & maintains electrical properties)

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7
Q

Function of spinal nerve

A

carries motor, sensory, & autonomic signals b/w spinal cord & body

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8
Q

Characteristics of gray matter

A

found in middle of spinal cord; neurons & neuroglia; lighter staining

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9
Q

Characteristics of white matter

A

found surrounding grey matter in spinal cord; neuroglia; darker staining

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10
Q

Parts of a neuron

A

cell body w/ nucleus; dendrite (input); axon (to target)

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11
Q

Cytoplasm of neurons

A

nissl substance: RER & ribosomes

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12
Q

Function of multipolar neurons

A

sensory/ motor (most common neurons)

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13
Q

Function of bipolar neurons

A

sensory (eye & ear)

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14
Q

Function of unipolar neurons

A

sensory (more common than bipolar)

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15
Q

When do neurons stop dividing

A

3-4 months after birth

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16
Q

Ependymal cell location

A

central canal & ventricles

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17
Q

Ependymal cell morphology

A

cuboidal to columnar

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18
Q

Ependymal cell function

A

assist w/ CSF circulation; have cilia on apical surface

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19
Q

Components of choroid plexus

A

choroid epithelium (modified ependymal cells w/ microvilli form tight junctions b/w blood & CSF), connective tissue, & fenestrated capillaries

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20
Q

Function of choroid plexus

A

CSF production

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21
Q

Fenestrated capillaries of choroid plexus allow what to pass through

A

electolytes & sm molecules

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22
Q

Astrocytes morphology

A

numerous cell processes

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23
Q

Function of astrocytes

A

form scar tissue in response to injury; maintain optimal CNS environment (induct & maintain capillary endothelium as the blood brain barrier; help transport glucose to neurons; store glycogen; promote neuronal survival; prevent glutamate neurotoxicity)

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24
Q

Function of blood brain barrier

A

regulates the exchange of solutes b/w blood & CNS tissue via a capillary endothelium

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25
Q

How do astrocytes impact the blood brain barrier

A

release glial cell line derived neurotrophic factor (GDNF) to promote formation & maintenance of capillary tight junctions

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26
Q

What can diffuse across the blood brain barrier

A

water, gasses, & lipophilic substances (alcohol, heroine, nicotine, & cyanide)

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27
Q

What is actively transported across the blood brain barrier

A

glucose

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28
Q

What moves across the blood brain barrier via carrier-mediated transport

A

AAs not synthesized in brain move in (Leu, Tyr, Val, Trp); AAs synthesized in brain move out (glycine & GABA)

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29
Q

How does glutamate neurotoxicity occur

A

glutamate is a neurotransmitter that is released at the terminal end of axons & is toxic at high conc; astrocytes convert glutamate -> glutamine via glutamine synthase

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30
Q

Function of microglia

A

respond to tissue damage & remove debris by phagocytosis

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31
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes

A

increase conduction velocity by myelinating axons; do not support small non-myelinated axons

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32
Q

Function of schwann cells

A

increase conduction velocity by myelinating axons; support small axons but does not myelinate them

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33
Q

Describe the organization of peripheral nerves

A

axon + schwann cell = nerve fiber = endoneurium
nerve fibers = fascicle = perineurium
fascicles = nerve = epineurium

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34
Q

Describe structure & location of PNS sensory nerve

A

unipolar; cell body found in dorsal root ganglion

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35
Q

Function of sensory receptors

A

detect changes in thermal, mechanical, or chemical stimuli applied to the surface or interior of the body & generate nerve impulses to be transmitted to the CNS for processing

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36
Q

Types of terminal ends for primary sensory neurons

A

free nerve ending, innervates special cells, or encapsulated by cells/ CT

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37
Q

Function & terminal end of free nerve endings

A

pain, temp, or touch

free nerve ending

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38
Q

Function & terminal end of hair follicle terminal

A

touch

free nerve ending

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39
Q

Function & terminal end of merkel’s corpuscle

A

touch or pressure

innervates Merkel cells

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40
Q

Function & terminal end of meissner’s corpuscle

A

touch or vibration
encapsulated by cells
only in thick skin

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41
Q

Function & terminal end of pacinian corpuscle

A

vibration or pressure

encapsulated by many layers of cells

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42
Q

Function & terminal end of golgi-tendon organ

A

muscle tension or proprioception

encapsulated by collagen fibers, sensory fibers, & CT capsule

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43
Q

Function & terminal end of muscle spindle

A

proprioception

encapsulated by intrufusal muscle fibers, sensory fibers, & CT capsule

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44
Q

Somatic sensory receptors in the epidermis

A

free nerve endings

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45
Q

Somatic sensory receptors b/w dermis & epidermis

A

meissner’s & merkel’s corpuscle

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46
Q

Somatic sensory receptors in dermis

A

pacinian & hair follicles

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47
Q

Examples of somatic sensory receptors

A

skin, muscles, tendons, bones, retina, organ of corti, carotid body, & carotid sinus

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48
Q

Examples of visceral sensory receptors

A

viscera, taste buds, & olfactory cells

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49
Q

How is neuronal resting membrane potential generated

A

due to uneven distirbution of ions across the plasma membrane by the electrochemical gradient

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50
Q

What affects the electrochemical gradient in relation to cell membranes

A

Na+/K+ pump (2 K+ in/ 3 Na+ out); intracellular negative ions to large to exit cell; selective membrane permeability to ions (K+ & Cl- non-gated/ leak channels; few Na+ non-gated/ leak channels)

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51
Q

Describe signal transduction of sensory receptors

A

conversion of sensory stimuli to electrical signals; open stimlus specific Na+ channels; generate receptor potential

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52
Q

Receptor potential is proportional to what

A

stimulus intensity; more stimulus corresponds to more Na+ released

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53
Q

What is action potential

A

brief reversal in electrical potential across a membrane

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54
Q

When is an action potential generated

A

when receptor potential > threshold potential (-55 mV)

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55
Q

Action potential requires voltage-gated channels of axons that are activated by

A

membrane depolarization

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56
Q

Describe resting state of voltage-gated Na+ channel

A

channel closed (activation gate shut)

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57
Q

Describe activated state of voltage-gated Na+ channel

A

channel open (both gates open)

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58
Q

Describe inactivated state of voltage-gated Na+ channel

A

channel closed (inactivation gate shut)

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59
Q

When does Na+ cross the voltage-gated Na+ channel

A

when channel is at an activated state

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60
Q

What has to happen before depolarization can occur again

A

voltage-gated Na+ channel must be de-inactivated

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61
Q

What are the state of the Na+ & K+ voltage gated channels at RMP

A 
Na+ = resting state; channels closed
K+ = channels closed
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62
Q

What are the state of the Na+ & K+ voltage gated channels at receptor potential > RMP

A 
Na+ = some activated; some channels open
K+ = some channels slowly open
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63
Q

What are the state of the Na+ & K+ voltage gated channels at receptor potential > threshold

A 
Na+ = activated w/ all channels open; at peak, inactivated w/ all channels shut
K+ = all channels slowly open & close
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64
Q

Ionic mechanisms of Na+

A

higher conc on outside of cell; both neg charge interior & conc gradient result in Na+ rushing in

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65
Q

Ionic mechanisms of K+

A

higher conc on inside of cell; when Na+ depolarizes membrane, then K+ rushes out to re-polarize membrane

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66
Q

Describe absolute refractory period

A

Na+ voltage- gated channels are in inactivated state & an action potential cannot be generated

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67
Q

Describe relative refractory period

A

stronger than normal stimulus needed to elicit an action potential

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68
Q

Describe hyperkalemia

A

too much extracellular K+ leading to depolarization & a greater likelihood of an action potential being generated

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69
Q

Describe hypokalemia

A

too little extracellular K+ leading to hyperpolarization & a lesser likelihood of an action potential being generated

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70
Q

Explain the properties of voltage-gated Na+ & K+ pumps as it relates to action potential (think toilet example)

A

majority of channels open only when membrane potential > threshold potential so AP = all or none
channels undergo 3 states that determine AP amplitude, duration of each cycle, & propagation speed
channels have refractory periods so AP = no overlaps

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71
Q

Where are voltage gated channels located on non-myelinated axons

A

all along the axon

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72
Q

Where are voltage gated channels located on myelinated axons

A

nodes of ranvier

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73
Q

Describe spread of AP on non-myelinated axons

A

AP triggers local depolarizing electrical current that spreads along an axon, activating adjacent voltage-gated Na+ & K+ channels that generate new APs that end up at the terminal end of axons

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74
Q

What type of axon is more efficient & faster

A

myelinated

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75
Q

What effect does myelin have on an axon

A

insulates axons, which increases its signal transduction efficiency & enables local current to reach a longer distance

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76
Q

What is signal transduction efficiency

A

Rm (membrane resistance) / Rin (longitudinal resistance)

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77
Q

Current travels faster w/ what values for Rm & Rin

A

high Rm & low Rin

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78
Q

Describe spread of AP on myelinated axons

A

AP generates local currents that are strong enough to generate a new AP that is re-generated at each node of Ranvier

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79
Q

What is saltatory conduciton

A

describes how APs jump from node to node in myelinated axons

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80
Q

Why are APs called non-decremental

A

once an AP is conducted, the signal is constantly regenerated as it moves down the axon

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81
Q

What factors influence conduction speed

A

larger axon diameter results in less Rin (longitudinal resistance) & a faster conduction speed
myelination results in more Rm (membrane resistance) & a faster conduction speed

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82
Q

What is the result of demyelination

A

decrease in signal membrane efficiency; APs unable to reach node of Ranvier; sometimes voltage-gated Na+ & K+ channels will reappear alog the demyelinated areas of axons, but this occurs less w/ repeated demyelination events

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83
Q

Describe Multiple Sclerosis

A

demyelination disease; degenerative myelopathy-> progressive muscle weakness & incoordination; complete paraylsis & muscle atrophy

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84
Q

Locations for synapses

A

axosomatic; axodendritic; axoaxonic

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85
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters & receptors

A

Acetylcholine w/ AChR (CNS & PNS)

Glutamate w/ GluR (CNS)

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86
Q

Function of excitatory neuron & synapses

A

makes excitatory synapses; release excitatory neurotransmitters that depolarize the postsynaptic membrane

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87
Q

Steps of excitatory synapses

A

1) excitatory NTs are released & bind to receptors
2) receptors open ligand-gated ion channels for Na+
3) Na+ influx occurs (depolarization)
4) generation of graded potential EPSP
5) amplitude of EPSP is proportional to the amount of NTs released, the frequency of APs, & stimulus intensity

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88
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters & receptors

A

Glycine w/ GlyR (CNS)

GABA w/ GABA receptor (CNS)

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89
Q

Function of inhibitory neuron & synapses

A

makes inhibitory synapses; releases inhibitory NTs that hyperpolarize postsynaptic membrane

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90
Q

Steps of inhibitory synapses

A

1) inhibitory NTs are released & bind to receptors
2) receptors open ligand-gated ion channels for Cl-
3) Cl- influx occurs (hyperpolarization)
4) generatation of graded potential IPSP
5) amplitude of IPSP is proportional to the NTs released, the frequency of APs, & the stimulus intensity

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91
Q

Properties of graded potentials

A

voltage change that depends on multiple factors (amount of NT, AP frequency, & stimulus intensity)

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92
Q

Graded potentials are summated where

A

axon hillock

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93
Q

How do graded potentials generate an AP

A

sum of graded potentials > threshold potential

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94
Q

Temporal summation involves

A

addition of multiple signals arriving at a single synaptic site (AA, BBB, CCC)

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95
Q

Spatial summation involves

A

addition of multiple separate signals arriving at different sites simultaneously (A+B, A+B+C, A+B+C+D)

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96
Q

Describe the axon hillock

A

located where the nucleus body meets the axon; contains voltage-gated Na+ & K+ channels (in contrast to the body that does not have voltage-gated channels & cannot generate an AP)

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97
Q

What is strychnine

A

pre-synaptic deficit of inhibitory synapses by toxins; muscle spasms 10-20 min after exposure; no GABA/ glycine so muscle contracts; death by asphyxiation

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98
Q

What is tetanus

A

pre-synaptic deficit of inhibitory synapses by toxins; toxin bound to inhibitory neurons for 3 weeks; prevents release of GABA/ glycine; results in over activity of skeletal muscle

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99
Q

Soma of multipolar motor neuron is found where

A

in ventral horn of spinal cord

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100
Q

Axon of motor neuron passes through where on the way to the muscle spindle

A

ventral root

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101
Q

Neuromuscular junction forms where

A

motor end plate (numerous nerve endings) & junctional fold of sarcolemma

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102
Q

Neurotransmitters & post-synaptic receptor at neuromuscular junction

A

Acetylcholine & AChR

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103
Q

Steps of neuromuscular junction

A

1) membrane depolarization by AP opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
2) synaptic vesicles release ACh by exocytosis
3) ACh & AChR open ligand-gated ion channels for Na+
4) Na+ influx & depolarization
5) voltage-gated Na+ & K+ channels open when membrane voltage > threshold voltage
6) APs of sarcolemma -> muscle contraction

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104
Q

Describe tic paralysis

A

pre-synaptic defect; neurotoxin secreted by feeding female wood tick that interferes w/ release of Ach; clinical sings = generalized muscle weakness/ paralysis days after attachment of ticks; recovery = 1-3 days after tick removal

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105
Q

Describe myasthenia gravis

A

post-synaptic defect; autoimmune disease; antibody blocks, alters, & destroys AChR which results in progressive loss of AChR & muscle strength; exercise-induced motor weakness that improves after rest

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106
Q

Define congenital defect

A

birth defect caused by genetics or environement (drugs, plants, infection, pesticide, radiation, etc)

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107
Q

Describe critical periods

A

point in time where an organ or organ system is developing

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108
Q

Why is susceptibility to birth defects increased during the middle section of the critical periods

A

lots of cell division which increases susceptibility to adverse environmental effects

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109
Q

When do critical periods occur

A

in utero & some after birth

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110
Q

How would you compare different species critical periods

A

same order, spread over different times

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111
Q

Order of critical periods

A

fertilization -> gene activation -> placentation -> brain & spinal cord -> vertebrae & tail -> head & face -> heart -> sense organs -> limbs -> palate -> reproductive organs -> cerebellum & cerebrum -> vision

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112
Q

What does cell restriction mean

A

as further cell division occurs, the cells become more restricted as to what cells they can become

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113
Q

What impacts cell restriction

A

factors released by other cells in the surrounding environment that signal for certain genes to be turned off

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114
Q

How can all cells in the body have the same DNA but different functions

A

some genes turned on & off

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115
Q

Cell restriciton progression

A

totipotent non-self renewing -> pluripotent self-renewing -> broad potential self-renewing -> limited potential & limited self-renewal -> limited division non-functional -> non-mitotic functional

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116
Q

Function of zona pellucida

A

causes dividing cells to increase in number but decrease in size; allows a large zygote to become a normal sized cell

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117
Q

First 8 cells during cell celavage are undifferentiated & have identical potential until they differentiate into

A

inner & outer cells

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118
Q

Outer blastomeres in morula phase become what

A

trophoblasts in blastula phase

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119
Q

Trophoblasts become what

A

placenta

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120
Q

Inner blastomeres in morula phase become what

A

inner cell mass in blastula phase

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121
Q

Inner cell mass becomes what

A

embryo & 2 fetal membranes

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122
Q

In blastula phase, what happens to the inner cell mass

A

localizes to one pole inside a cavity (blastcoele) that is formed by the surrounding trophoblast cells

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123
Q

When does the embryo first start growing in size

A

during morula divisions

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124
Q

Cavity that forms in blastula phase is important for

A

diffusion of nutrients/ waste

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125
Q

Separation of early blastomere (up to 8 cell stage) leads to what

A

each blastomere develops into an independent embryo & placental membrane

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126
Q

Separation of inner blastomeres w/in a single morula leads to what

A

each separate blastomere develops into an independent embryo but the placenta is shared

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127
Q

Separation at later stages of development (near gastrulation) leads to what

A

shared amniotic cavity; umbilical cord may twist around neck or conjoined twins result when there are two primitive streaks but the inner cells masses do not separate enough

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128
Q

Gastrulation marks what

A

beginning of organ & body development

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129
Q

End result of gastrulation is

A

formation of 3 germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm, & ectoderm)

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130
Q

Beginning of gastrulation has a bilaminar disk with what parts

A

yolk sac (RBC production) & amniotic cavity

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131
Q

Cells surrounding biconcave disk (gastrulation)

A

tall cells = epiblast; short cells under other cells = hypoblast

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132
Q

Differential growth of epiblast cells generate what

A

primitive node & primitive streak

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133
Q

W/ a primitive streak, what is established

A

polarity (head vs tail; left vs right)

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134
Q

Describe what the epiblast cells become that flow through (or stay at) the primitive groove

A

1) some flow deep w/in the embryo -> endoderm
2) flow above deep layer & below epiblast cells that do not migrate -> mesoderm
3) epiblast cells that stay -> ectoderm

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135
Q

Epiblast cells that move cranially through the primitive groove form

A

notochord

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136
Q

Endoderm

A

lining of digestive & respiratory tracts; organs of digestion

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137
Q

Mesoderm

A

muscle, skeletal tissue, urogenital, & cardiovascular

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138
Q

Ectoderm

A

epidermis, neural tissue, & some skeletal/ CT of head

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139
Q

Divisions of mesoderm & what they become

A

somatic -> body wall; splanchnic -> organs

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140
Q

Location of other germ layers in relation to division of mesoderm

A

ectoderm adj to somatic mesoderm & endoderm adj to splanchnic mesoderm (both good arrangements)

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141
Q

How is the coelom of the embryo closed during body wall closure

A

both sides of somatic mesoderm grow ventrally & medially until they meet

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142
Q

How is the primitive gut tube closed during body wall closure

A

both sides of splanchnic mesoderm grow ventrally (just not as much as somatic mesoderm) & medially until they meet up

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143
Q

End result of body wall closure

A

folded embryo w/ body wall & primitive gut in center

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144
Q

What is amorphus globosus

A

free, asymmetrical twins; outside = hairy ball & integument; inside = bundles of muscle, cartilage, bones, & teeth; unknown cause

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145
Q

CNS critical periods

A

1st organ system to start differentiation & last organ (besides eyes) to finish differentiation

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146
Q

Neural tube is derived from

A

ectoderm

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147
Q

When does neural tube formation occur

A

shortly after gastrulation

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148
Q

Notochord releases factors that induce the surface epithelium to become

A

neural plate

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149
Q

Underlying ectoderm & mesoderm that become raised on each side of a midline depression are called what and form what

A

neural fold & neural groove

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150
Q

Neural folds separate from the surface ectoderm & contact each other, forming what

A

cavity

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151
Q

What allows the cavity in the neural tube to communicate w/ the amniotic cavity

A

neuropores

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152
Q

If neuropores do not close properly, what happens

A

developmental issues occur

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153
Q

Where does neural tube closure start in

A

cervical area

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154
Q

Is neural tube closure a dynamic process

A

yes

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155
Q

What direction does the neural tube close

A

rostro-cranial & caudal

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156
Q

What cells separate from the ectoderm during neural tube closure

A

neural crest cells

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157
Q

Neural crest cells become

A

sensory ganglia of cranial nerves V, VII, IX, & X, schwann cells, enteric ganglia, parasympathetic ganglia, dorsal root ganglia, sympathetic ganglia, adrenal medulla

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158
Q

What completely surrounds the neural tube & is b/w the surface ectoderm & neural crest cells

A

mesoderm

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159
Q

What are the layers of the neural tube

A

mantel & marginal layer

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160
Q

What does the mantel layer contain

A

developing neurons

161
Q

What does the marginal layer contain

A

axons projecting from the mantel layer

162
Q

Divisions of mantel layer

A

alar & basal plate

163
Q

Alar plate cells become

A

dorsal horn -> sensory

164
Q

Basal plate cells become

A

ventral horn -> motor & autonomic

165
Q

In spinal cord formation, what happens to the alar & basal plates compared to the roof & floor

A

alar & basal plates expand while roof & floor do not

166
Q

What results from the minimal development of the roof & floor plates

A

median fissure & dorsal sulcus

167
Q

How does the ventral root form

A

neuronal cell body in ventral horn projects axon into periphery (target is skeletal muscle)

168
Q

How does the dorsal root ganglion form

A

neural crest cells migrate in dorsal root; project one axonal projection to the spinal cord & one axonal projection to a target (sensory receptor)

169
Q

What is a ganglion

A

collection of neuronal cell bodies outside the CNS

170
Q

What is a nucleus

A

collection of neuronal cell bodies inside the CNS

171
Q

What leaves the vertebral column when the spinal cord completely fills it

A

spinal nerves that innervate muscle bundles (somite)

172
Q

As differential growth occurs in the spinal cord, what happens

A

embryo & vertebral column grow faster than the spinal cord -> results in a positional shift

173
Q

As the spinal nerve moves in a cranial direction, what happens

A

roots of spinal nerves become elongated

174
Q

As the spinal cord moves, what is a critically important aspect of the spinal nerves

A

must maintain contact w/ muscle bundles (somites)

175
Q

Further elongation of spinal nerve roots as spinal cord continues to move cranially gives rise to what

A

cauda equina

176
Q

What is spina bifida

A

malfunction in formation of neural tube that results in the malformation of a vertebral arch

177
Q

Describe spina occulta

A

most benign spina bifida; 1-2 vertebrae lack vertebral arch

178
Q

Describe myeloschisis

A

form of spina bifida; neural tube does not form; no meninges on top to protect spinal cord

179
Q

Describe meningomyelocele

A

form of spina bidfida; small abnormal segments; meninges & spinal cord herniated through where the vertebral arch should be

180
Q

Neural tube gives rise to

A

spinal cord & brain

181
Q

Wall of brain has what

A

mantle & marginal layers

182
Q

Primary vesicles of brain are what

A

forebrain, midbrain, & hindbrain

183
Q

The primary vesicles of brain become what

A

five secondary vesicles

184
Q

Neural tube cavity forms what

A

2 lateral ventricles, third ventricle, fourth ventricle, & aquaduct

185
Q

Forebrain becomes

A

cerebral hemispheres

186
Q

Midbrain becomes

A

midbrain

187
Q

Hindbrain becomes

A

cerebellum

188
Q

In midbrain/ hindbrain development, what do the alar & basal plate become before they pick up sensory vs motor functions

A

Alar - visceral/ somatic afferant

Basal - visceral/ somatic efferant

189
Q

In cerebellar development, alar plate cells stream dorsal to what until they make contact w/ each toher

A

4th ventricle

190
Q

What early structure provides the bulk of the cerebellum

A

external germinal layer

191
Q

As axons project from the external germinal layer & move past dendritic processes of Purkinje cells, what happens

A

functional synaptic connections are made

192
Q

Viral causes of cerebellar hypoplasia target the external germinal layer, leading to

A

Purkinje cells dying; small cerebellum

193
Q

In cerebrum development, what cells receive a signal & what signal do they receive

A

mantel layer cells keep dividing & receive a signal to migrate through the marginal layer

194
Q

Mantel layer cells continue continue dividing and receive a second signal to do what

A

migrate through the marginal layer & past the previously migrated layer

195
Q

As mantel layer cells keep migrating, what happens

A

functional connections are made

196
Q

Movement of mantel layer cells explains what

A

why grey matter is on the outside (instead of inside like in the spinal cord)

197
Q

Migration of mantel layer cells allows the brain to have what feature

A

convulated surface (sulcus = depression & gyrus = elevation)

198
Q

Describe ancephaly

A

either lack of or diminished brain

199
Q

Describe lissencephaly

A

smooth cortex

200
Q

Describe cranium bifidum

A

brain outside of head; result of a disruption in neural tube formation

201
Q

Describe hydrocephalus

A

choroid plexus makes CSF but it does not get absorbed

202
Q

Which pituitary gland has a direct neuron connection

A

posterior

203
Q

Which pituitary gland has a indirect neuron connection via the cardiovascular system

A

anterior

204
Q

Posterior pituitary comes from what

A

direct downgrowth from the floor of the forebrain

205
Q

Anterior pituitary comes from what

A

ectoderm from embryos mouth

206
Q

Describe formatioon of neuron connection of posterior pituitary

A

neuronal cell bodies in brain project axons to posterior pituitary where it synapses on the target cell

207
Q

Describe formation of neuron connection of anterior pituitary

A

neuronal cell bodies in brain synapse on a portal vein that then carries the released product to the anterior pituitary target cell

208
Q

Adult heart blood flow

A

cranial & caudal vena cava -> RA -> RV -> pulmonary trunk -> pulmonary arteries -> lungs -> pulmonary veins -> LA -> LV -> aorta -> body

209
Q

Function of RA

A

systemic return

210
Q

Function of RV

A

pulmonary outflow

211
Q

Function of LA

A

pulmonary return

212
Q

Function of LV

A

systemic outflow

213
Q

Organization of adult heart

A

atria dorsal to ventricles
atria adj to each other
ventricle adj to each other
pulmonary trunk & aorta (outflow) spiral around each other

214
Q

CVS critical periods

A

1st organ to functionally differentiate

215
Q

When does the heart 1st beat

A

around neural tube closure

216
Q

Where does the cardiogenic plate start

A

in an extra-embryonic location

217
Q

During body folding, where does the cardiogenic plate go

A

moves 180 degrees into embryo where the adult mandible is

218
Q

W/in the endocardial plate, what spontaneously contracts

A

two endocardial tubes

219
Q

Endocardial tubes become folded into each other until they fuse and what happens

A

1st heart beat

220
Q

The embyologic heart first beats how

A

peristaltic from caudal to cranial

221
Q

What are the primitive heart regions from inflow (caudal) to outflow (cranial)

A

sinus venosus -> atrium -> ventricle -> bulbus cordus -> truncus arteriosus

222
Q

Sinus venosus becomes

A

left -> coronary sinus

right -> part of atrium wall

223
Q

Atrium becomes

A

right & left atria

224
Q

Ventricle becomes

A

right & left ventricle

225
Q

Bulbus cordis becomes

A

part of right (conus arteriosus) & part of left ventricle

226
Q

Truncus & bulbus cordis become

A

ascending aorta & pulmonary trunk

227
Q

Differential growth of cardiac loop results in

A

rotation of the developing heart to the right side

228
Q

By the end of the cardiac loop formation, what happens

A

atrium is dorsal to the ventricle & bulubs cortis & ventricle are both next to each other

229
Q

Inside the cardiac loop, there is a constriction b/w the atrium & ventricle called the

A

atrioventricular canal

230
Q

Endocardial cushions on each side of the atrioventricular canal starts growing towards each other until they

A

make contact, thus dividing the atrioventricular canal

231
Q

Goal of atria patitioning

A

blood to flow from RA -> LA & for there to be a way to block it later

232
Q

As septum 1 starts growing down towards endocardial cushions what forms

A

foramen 1

233
Q

Septum 1 eventually reaches the endocardial cushions and does what

A

closes out foramen 1

234
Q

Apoptosis in septum 1 leads to what

A

foramen 2

235
Q

Septum 2 forms & moves across atria; space w/in incomplete septum is

A

foramen ovale

236
Q

Blood flow after atrial partitioning

A

RA -> oval foramen -> in b/w septum 1 & 2 -> foramen 2 -> LA

237
Q

Outflow separation occurs w/ the partitioning of

A

truncus arteriosus & bulbus cordis

238
Q

What invades the lumen of truncus arteriosus and grow together until they meet

A

cushions

239
Q

What eventually results in the formation of a spiral septum dividing the outflow

A

cushions close at dif orientations/ levels

240
Q

What is the name of the elevation that first forms b/w the ventricles

A

interventricular septum

241
Q

What forms w/in the IV septum

A

IV foramen

242
Q

Is a right to left shunt necessary in the ventricles

A

no so IV foramen closes

243
Q

What has to happen to close the IV foramen

A

1) IV septum grows upwards
2) projection from endocardial cushions move downwards
* 3) formation of spiral septum; one part of developing septum fuses w/ IV septum & the other part fuses w/ the partitioning of atriventricular canal

244
Q

Describe ectopic cordis

A

heart in abnormal location; occurs when thoracic cavity or sternebrae fuse before heart moves to the proper location

245
Q

Describe dextocardia

A

basic folding of heart is swapped & cardiac loop goes to the right instead of the left

246
Q

Describe valvular defects

A

stenosis (narrow valve); insufficiency (leaky valves); dysplasia (abnormal development)

247
Q

Describe partitioning errors

A

at any step

248
Q

Describe tetralogy of fallot that results from an uneven division of the spiral septum

A

1) IV septal defect
2) pulmonary stenosis (narrow)
3) dextroposition (overriding) of aorta
4) right ventricular hypertrophy (occurs b/c RV pumps blood into a smaller pulmonary trunk & is exposed to higher pressure of LV)

249
Q

Explain fetal circulation

A

blood from placenta -> umbilical vein -> liver -> caudal vena cava (shunt through ductus venosus can skip over liver) -> caudal vena cava -> RA -> oval foramen -> in b/w septum 1 & 2 -> foramen 2 -> LA -> LV -> aorta -> head or umbilical arteries
also from caudal vena cava plus cranial vena cava -> RA -> RV -> pulmonary trunk -> ductus arteriosus -> aorta -> head & umbilical arteries

250
Q

What is unique about fetal circulation compared to adult circulation

A

RV & LV both cotnribute to systmic output b/c blood flow must support the fetus & placenta

251
Q

What happens to umbilical arteries in the trainsition to post natal life

A

crushed by mother; springs back & muscular wall closes

252
Q

What signals the umbilical vein & ductus venosus to close

A

decreased bp & PGE2

253
Q

What signals the oval foramen to close

A

bp RA decreases- removal of placenta
bp LA increases- addition of lungs
septum 1 & 2 fuse

254
Q

What signals the ductus arteriosus to close (this one takes the longest)

A

decreased bp & PGE2

increased O2

255
Q

Embryo starts w/ 2 dorsal aortae that fuse; what is the arrangement of these

A

cranial to heart is 2 dorsal aortae & ventral to heart is a common dorsal aorta

256
Q

What connects the dorsal aortae to the ventral aorta

A

aortic arches

257
Q

Where is the developing GI system located

A

in b/w aortic arches

258
Q

What are the numbers for aortic arches

A

1, 2, 3, 4, & 6

5 only develops in lower vertebraes

259
Q

What aortic arches degenerate first

A

1 & 2

260
Q

Degeneration at dorsal aorta b/w 3rd & 4th aortic arches allows for what

A

3rd - responsible for head

4th - responsible for body

261
Q

Symmetry is lost with aortic arches when what happens

A

6th right aortic arch degenerates

right dorsal aorta separates from the common aorta

262
Q

3rd right & left aortic arches become

A

internal carotid artery (supply head)

263
Q

4th left aortic arch becomes

A

aortic arch

264
Q

4th right aortic arch becomes

A

subclavian artery

265
Q

6th left aortic arch becomes

A

ductus arteriosus

266
Q

Why does the 6th right aortic arch degenerate

A

cuts right side free so that there is no ring around the developing GI system

267
Q

Describe patent ductus arteriosus

A

ductus arteriosus fails to close

268
Q

Describe aortic coarctation

A

constriction that occurs if differential growth is abnormal

269
Q

Describe what a vascular ring anomaly consists of (in general)

A

right side fails to become free

270
Q

Result of right 4th aortic arch becoming adult arch & right 6th aortic arch becoming the ductus arteriosus

A

sitrus inversus

right -> right connection

271
Q

Result of right 4th aortic arch becoming the adult arch & left 6th aortic arch becoming the ductus arteriosus

A

vascular ring
pulmonary artery, arch of aorta, & ligamentum arteriosum surround esophagus
prevents solid food from traveling further through the esophagus
right -> left connection

272
Q

Describe pronephros kidney

A

7-8 tubules
non-functional
degenerates

273
Q

What parts of pronephros kidney remain

A

pronephric duct persists as the mesonephric duct

274
Q

Describe mesonephros kidney

A

70-80 tubules
functional
degenerates

275
Q

What parts of mesonephros kidney remain

A

caudal tubules & mesonephric duct remain to form testicular channels, epididymis, ductus deferens, & contribute to gonad development

276
Q

Describe metonephros kidney

A

last attempt at making a kidney

functional kidney

277
Q

Mesonephric duct forms a bud called what

A

metanephric diverticulum

278
Q

As the metanephric duct invades the surrounding mesoderm, what forms

A

metanephrogenic mass

279
Q

As the kidneys develop, where do they move to

A

from pelvic cavity to abdomen

280
Q

Metanephric diverticulum gives rise to

A

all urinary conducting tubes up to the bladder

ureter, renal pelvis, calyxes, & collecting ducts

281
Q

Metanephrogenic mass gives rise to

A

nephron

282
Q

When does nephron formation end

A

around the time of birth

283
Q

Can new nephrons be made after birth

A

no

284
Q

Urinary bladder develops from an expansion of

A

urachus & cranial part of urogenital sinus

285
Q

Urogenital sinus in males gives rise to

A

pelvic & penile urethra

286
Q

Urogenital sinus in females gives rise to

A

pelvic urethra, vestibule of vagina, & caudal vagina

287
Q

At the beginning of urinary bladder development, where does the mesonephric duct open

A

at site of future urinary bladder

288
Q

As the bladder moves dorsally, what happens

A

metanephric diverticulum (future ureter) opens near bladder at site of future urethra

289
Q

Differential growth of the urogenital sinus moves what around

A

metanephric diverticulum (future ureter) shifts to open in the future bladder & mesonephric duct (future ductus deferens) moves to open into future urethra

290
Q

Evidence of differential growth & swapping of ducts in adult animal

A

trigone region

291
Q

Varied development of the metanephric diverticulum & metanephrogenic mass leads to

A

dif kidney shapes among animals

292
Q

Describe renal agenesis

A

kidney fails to develops

293
Q

Describe renal dysplasia

A

abnormal growth (horseshoe kidney)

294
Q

Describe renal hypoplasia

A

small kidney

295
Q

Describe patent urachus

A

urachus does not close at birth

wet umbilical stalk -> infection

296
Q

What is the urachus

A

channel extending from cranial part of urinary bladder that goes down the allentoic stalk & into the allentoic cavity

297
Q

Function of urachus

A

moves urine out of embryonic bladder

298
Q

Urachus membrane does what

A

prevents urine from going the alternate route to the amniotic cavity until later in development

299
Q

Describe ectopic ureter

A

transposition in dorsal part of urogenital sinus does not occur so the ureter opens to the urethra or vagina vestibule

300
Q

Describe ectopic kidney

A

kidneys stay in pelvic area; issue during pregnancy

301
Q

Testis influence what hormone(s)

A

ovarian-inhibiting substance & testosterone

302
Q

Ovarian inhibiting substance does what

A

suppresses paramesonephric duct

303
Q

Testosterone does what

A

stimulates mesonephric duct (ductus deferens & epididymis)
metabolites stimulate male external genitalia (penis/ scrotum) & accessory sex glands

304
Q

Ovaries influence what hormone(s)

A

estrogen

305
Q

Estrogen does what

A

stimulates paramesonephric duct (uterine tube, uterus, & cranial part of vagina)
stimulates formation of female external genitalia (labia, clitoris, & caudal part of vagina)

306
Q

What is the effect of the fact that genetic sex is determined at fertilization, but it takes a while for the signal to reach the entire embryo

A

indifferent stage

307
Q

Early reproductive system has what duct(s)

A

both paramesonephric & mesonephric

308
Q

What develops in the caudal part of the yolk sac & migrates to the developing embryo through the hindgut, mesentery, & into mesoderm (urogenital development)

A

primordial germ cells

309
Q

Primordial germ cells form what ventral to the mesonephros

A

genital/ gonadal ridge

310
Q

Cells from degenerating mesonephric tubules join w/ primordial germ cells to form

A

gonadal cords

311
Q

Genital tubercle in males give rise to

A

glans of penis

312
Q

Genital tubercle in females give rise to

A

clitoris

313
Q

Urogenital folds in males give rise to

A

ventral penis

314
Q

Urogenital folds in females give rise to

A

labia of vulva

315
Q

Labioscrotal swelling in males give rise to

A

scrotum

316
Q

Labioscrotal swelling in females give rise to

A

poorly develops in domestic animals

317
Q

Explain testicular descent

A

gubernaculum tethers testicle to scrotum as embro continues growing
swelling of gubernaculum dilates inguinal canal & scrotum
shrinking of gubernacuum pulls testicles into scrotum

318
Q

What causes gubernaculum to swell

A

mesenchymal cells influence ECM to produce hyaloronic acid, which attracts water & causes swelling

319
Q

What causes gubernaculum to shrink

A

mesenchymal cells influence ECM to produce less hyaloronic acid, which causes shrinkage as water leaves

320
Q

Remnants of gubernaculum

A

tail of the epididymis & proper ligament of the testis

321
Q

In ovarian development, what breaks down

A

gonadal cords

322
Q

Oocytes are surrounded by epithelial cells (called follicular cells) that are derived from

A

mesonephric duct

323
Q

Varied paramesonphric duct formation amongst species leads to

A

varied fusion of vagina & uterus

324
Q

Vagina & uterus duplex means

A

no fusion; 2 uteri, 2 cervixes, & 2 vaginas

325
Q

Vagina simplex/ uterus duplex means

A

some fusion; 2 uteri, 2 adj cervical canals, & 1 vagina

326
Q

Uterus bicornis means

A

most fusion; 2 uterine horns, 1 uterine body, 1 cervix, & 1 vagina

327
Q

Describe genital hypoplasia

A

few or no germ cells

328
Q

Describe cryptorchism

A

retained testicle(s)

329
Q

Describe stenosis of duct

A

abnormal fusion -> narrowed ducts

330
Q

Describe genital hypospadia

A

occurs in males; urogenital sinus & urogenital folds do not close properly

331
Q

Describe intersex conditions

A

improper hormonal signaling

332
Q

Describe free martin

A

dizygotic twins of opposite genders influence hormone signals -> infertility issues
more pronounced in females since male differentiation starts earlier than female differentiation

333
Q

Foregut gives rise to

A

esophagus, stomach, descending duodenum, liver, & pancreas

334
Q

Blood supply of foregut

A

celiac artery (also supports spleen)

335
Q

Foregut fermenters are

A

ruminants

336
Q

Midgut gives rise to

A

ascending duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, ascending & transverse colon

337
Q

Blood supply of midgut

A

cranial mesenteric artery

338
Q

Hindgut gives rise to

A

descending colon

339
Q

Blood supply of hindgut

A

caudal mesenteric artery

340
Q

Hindgut fermenters are

A

equine

341
Q

At the start of gastric rotation, what occurs

A

differential growth of the dorsal stomach wall

342
Q

90 degree rotation around what axis moves the dorsal portion of the stomach in what direction

A

longitudinal axis

left

343
Q

Rotation around what axis shifts what end of the stomach to the right & cranially

A

dorsoventral axis

caudal end

344
Q

End result of gastric rotation

A

descending duodenum on right & fundus on left

345
Q

What organs are still supported by a vetnral mesentery

A

stomach & caudal part of bladder

346
Q

For the stomach to be able to rotate, what has to happen

A

one mesentery has to grow

347
Q

Dorsal mesogastrium does what

A

grows into greater omentum

348
Q

Greater curvature of stomach is equivalent to the embryologic

A

dorsal

349
Q

Ventral mesogastrium does what

A

no growth but becomes lesser omentum

350
Q

Lesser curvature of stomach is equivalent to the embryologic

A

ventral

351
Q

At the start of intestinal development, the intestines are supported by

A

elongated dorsal mesentery & cranial mesenteric artery

352
Q

Cecum forms from what

A

evagination of the caudal limb of the intestinal loop

353
Q

Intestines first loop towards the umbilicus & yolk sac to produce what

A

physiological herniation

354
Q

What fixes the duodenum to the right during intestinal development

A

short dorsal mesentery

355
Q

What part of intestinal loop has explosive growth

A

cranial limb

356
Q

Cranial limb passes to the right side of what during its first phase of explosive growth & results in what

A

cranial mesenteric artery

cranial & caudal limb switch places

357
Q

Cranial limb grows in a cranial direcion and does what

A

sweeps caudal limb to the right

358
Q

As the embryo continues growing, what happens to the developing intestines

A

become drawn back into the body cavity

359
Q

270 degree rotation of developing intestines forms what

A

mesenteric root

360
Q

Caudal to the mesenteric loop, what part of the intestines in involved & how does ingesta flow

A

caudal duodenal flexure

right -> left

361
Q

Cranial to the mesenteric loop, what part of the intestines in involved & how does ingesta flow

A

transverse colon

right -> left

362
Q

Cloaca is closed by what

A

cloacal membrane

363
Q

Urorectal septum at the junction b/w the hindgut & urogenital sinus does what (cloaca separation)

A

grow caudally dividing anal canal & rectum from urogenital sinus
divides cloacal membrane into anal & urogenital membrane

364
Q

Describe intestinal stenosis

A

narrowing due to rapid growth of epithelial cells

no recanalization

365
Q

Describe intestinal atresia

A

blood supply lost

results in some missing intestines

366
Q

Describe atresia ani

A

anal membrane doesn’t break down

no anus

367
Q

Describe urorectal fistula

A

urorectal septum fails to divide correctly

368
Q

Basic elements of pharyngeal arches

A

aortic arch, cartilage rod, nerve, & muscle

369
Q

Pharyngeal arch 1 gives rise to

A

CN V (Trigeminal nerve)
mandible, maxilla, incus, & malleus
muscles of mastication & rostral digastricus

370
Q

Pharyngeal arch 2 gives rise to

A

CN VII (Facial nerve)
hyoid & stapes
muscles of facial expression & caudal digastricus

371
Q

Pharyngeal arch 4 & 6 give rise to

A

CN X (Vagus nerve)
laryngeal cartilage
4 -> cricothyroideus muscle
6 -> remaining intrinsic laryngeal muscle

372
Q

Recurrent layngeal nerve is a branch from what

A

CN X (Vagus nerve) -> caudal laryngeal nerve -> recurrent laryngeal nerve

373
Q

Explain path of left recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

left 6th aortic arch is maintained

recurrent laryngeal nerve wraps around ligamentum arteriosus

374
Q

Explain path of right recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

right 6th aortic arch degenerates & right 5th never develops
recurrent laryngeal nerve wraps around the right subclavian artery

375
Q

To prevent cheiloschisis, what has to happen

A

cleft lip

medial nasal process & maxillary process must grow together

376
Q

Can a cleft lip occur on just one side

A

yes, left right or both

377
Q

Start of closing off a cleft palate

A

combined oronasal cavity where nasal pits excavate into the developing animals head

378
Q

What leads to the separation of the oronasal cavities

A

maxillary process -> primary palate

lateral palatine process -> secondry palate

379
Q

As the tongue b/w the secondary palates shrinks, wht happens

A

secondary palate becomes more horizontal

right & left secondary palates connect

380
Q

To prevent palatoschisis, what has to happen

A

cleft palate

right & left secondary palates must connect before the head of the developing animal grows

381
Q

What divides the nasal cavity in two

A

nasal septum that grows down to make contact w/ the palate

382
Q

Secondary palates fuse w/ primary palate, what do the rostral 2/3rd & caudal 1/3rd become

A

2/3rd - ossify into hard palate

1/3rd - no ossification, soft palate

383
Q

Trachea begin to develop as a laryngotracheal groove where

A

ventral part of pharynx in b/w the 4th & 6th pharygeal arches

384
Q

As laryngotracheal groove stretches caudally, what happens

A

trachea is pinched off the ventral part of the esophagus

385
Q

Trachea moves to what area where the lung will develop

A

mesodermal area

386
Q

Airway conducting part of the lung divides, developing into

A

primary & secondary bronchi

387
Q

When do alveoli develop & why is this important

A

late, most post-natally

pneumonia is severe in young animals

388
Q

Why do the ribs move in utero

A

to prevent joints from fusing
strengthens muscles that will be used for breathing
takes in amniotic fluid

389
Q

What is the first thing that happens during the postnatal transition for the respiratory system

A

calf presents normally

cow bears down on calf -> squeezes thoracic cavity

390
Q

Once the umbilical cord connection is lost, what must the lungs do

A

increase surface area

get rid of fluid & start gas exchange

391
Q

Importance of lymphatic vessels in alveolar compartments in the lungs of a newborn

A

large in diameter

help capillaries to remove amniotic fluid

392
Q

Describe pulmonary hypoplasia

A

abnormal structure in pleural cavity prevents lungs from growing normally

393
Q

Describe tracheal hypoplasia

A

occurs in brachiocephalic breeds

394
Q

Describe tracheoesophageal fistula

A

connection b/w esophagus & trachea persists post-natally

395
Q

Name for pain receptors

A

nociceptor

396
Q

Name for temp receptors

A

thermoreceptor

397
Q

Name for touch receptors

A

mechanoreceptors

398
Q

Name for proprioception receptors

A

proprioceptors

Histology (4 decks)

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