Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Histology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Function of epithelial tissue

A

covers body surfaces & lines hollow organs, body cavities, ducts, & forms glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Function of connective tissue

A

protects, supports, & binds organs; stores energy as fat, provides immunity; selective transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Characteristics of epithelial tissue structure

A

surface specialization, arrangement of cells, & cell junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe microvilli

A

finger-like extensions of plasma membrane; increase SA; most developed in absorptive cells (ex: intestinal epithelium, kidney tubules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe cilia

A

motile surface projecions of cells involved in transport of materials over epithelial surface (ex: respiratory tract & oviduct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Structure of cilia

A

2 centrally placed microtubules surrounded by 9 doublets of microtubules; provides the scaffold for various proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Stereocilium definition

A

enormous microvilli; ex: auditory sensory cells of organ of Corti; vestibular sensory cells of vestibular organ; epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alveolus has what type of epithelium

A

simple squamous; functions for the rapid passage of substances (O2 & CO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bronchioles have what type of epithelium

A

simple cuboidal; secretion, includes Club cells & Bronchiolar exocrine cells that release substances
also has simple columnar w/ cilia; transport of trapped particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bronchus, trachea, & nasal cavity have what type of epithelium

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium w/ microvilli; also has mucus-secreting goblet cells, columnar cells w/ cilia, & basal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Functions of pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

secretion (mucus/serous) & transport of trapped materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nostril & nasal plane have what type of epithelium

A

stratified squamous; protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Urinary system has what type of special epithelium

A

transitional epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Function of transitional epithelium

A

designed to distend & return to its normal size, as it does in the lining of the urinary bladder; provides distensibility; prevents urine from diffusing back into the body; variable appearance (relaxed state, cuboidal, stretched state, squamous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lateral cell junctions connect with what

A

specialized areas of cell membrane; membrane proteins acting as adhesion molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Types of cell junctions

A

tight (occluding junction), anchoring junction, communicating junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tight junction location

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anchoring junction location

A

lateral & basal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe tight junctions

A

web-like strands of transmembrane proteins that fuse cells together & are unique to epithelial cells; completely surrounds cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Function of tight junctions

A

forms a barrier preventing diffusion of water-soluble molecules b/w adj cells & lumen; maintains cell polarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Function of anchoring junctions

A

resist separation of cells by connecting cytoskeletal elements of one cell to neighboring cells/ extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 types of anchoring junctions

A

Zonula adherens, desmosome, & hemidesmosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe zonula adherens

A

below the tight junction, surrounds cells in a belt-like fashion; transmembrane glycoproteins (Cadherin); plaque (intracellular link protein); cytoskeleton (actin filaments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe desmosome

A

binding spot b/w cells; transmembrane glycoprotein; plaque; cytoskeleton (intermediate filaments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe hemidesmosome

A

resemble half desmosome; anchor epithelial cells to underlying basement membrane (extracellular matrix); contains transmembrane glycoprotein (integrin); integrin attach to plaque/intermediate filaments & the protein laminin present in the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is pemphigus

A

autoimmune blistering skin disease; autoantibodies bind to transmembrane glycoproteins disrupting cell adhesion (fluid-filled sacs & cysts); widespread blistering & loss of extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define glands

A

exocrine cells that make & secrete a substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are exocrine glands

A

secretory cells derived from the surface epithelium; secrete product onto external or internal epithelial surfaces; generally have ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are endocrine glands

A

hormones into bloodstream travel to target organ; no ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How are exocrine glands classified

A

of cells, arrangement of duct/ secretory segment; secretory product; secretory release method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe unicellular glands

A

single secretory cell (ex: intestinal & respiratory epithelim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe multicellular gland

A

many secretory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Words to describe the arrangement of duct/ secretory segment

A

simple or compound; acinar or tubular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Simple glands

A

no branching for duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Compound gland

A

duct branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acinar gland

A

looks like a berry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tubular gland

A

secretory segment/ unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ex of a simple tubular gland

A

large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ex of a branched tubular gland

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ex of a simple coiled tubular gland

A

sweat gland (foot pad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Simple branched acinar gland

A

enlarged, spherical secretory unit opens to the surface by a duct; ex: sebaceous gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Serous glands secrete what

A

watery product enriched w/ proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ex of serous glands

A

exocrine pancreas (amylase, trypsin, lipase); parotid gland, sweat gland (foot pad), lacrimal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mucous glands secrete what

A

thick & viscous substance rich in mucin (glycoproteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Function of mucous glands

A

lubricant, protects cell layers, & traps foreign particles/ bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ex of mucous glands

A

goblet cells, sublingual salivary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name for a gland consisting of mucous & serous cells

A

mixed gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Ex of seromucous gland

A

mandibular salivary gland; esophagus, duodenum, respiratory airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3 kinds of release secretory methods for glands

A

exocytosis, pinching off apical cell cytoplasm w/ cell product, whole cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Name for glands that use exocytosis

A

merocrine gland (ex: pancreas, sweat gland (foot pad))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Name for glands that pinch off apical cell cytoplasm w/ cell product

A

apocrine gland (ex: sweat gland (haired skin))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Name for glands that release whole cells

A

holocrine gland (ex: sebaceous gland)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe myoepithelial cells

A

present in some glands; share the basal lamina of the acinar cells; share some properties of smooth muscle (contractility)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Other names for muscle cells

A

myocyte, muscle fibers, or myofibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Structure of muscle cells

A

long axis parallel to direction of contraction; full of long protein fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Name for cells located b/w myocytes

A

satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What leads to very long myocytes w/ many nuclei

A

prenatal fusion of myoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Location of nuclei on myocytes

A

cell periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What appears as dots in cross sections

A

myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Name for thin filaments & level of movement

A

actin- moves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Name for thick filaments & level of movement

A

myosin- stationary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What causes striations in muscle

A

overlap of filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name for the structural unit of a myofibril

A

sarcomere; gets shorter as muscle contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Z line is what

A

boundaries b/w adj sarcomeres; attachment of actin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A band is what

A

dark band; corresponds to myosin filaments (darker parts are where actin & myosin overlap)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

H zone is what

A

lighter zone inside of A band; contains only myosin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

I band is what

A

light area on each side of Z line; where actin does not overlap myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Components of a thin filament

A

actin, tropomyosin, troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Function of myosin

A

binds actin & ATP; hydrolyses ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cross bridges function to do what

A

generate force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cycle of cross bridge formation

A

ATP split into ADP & Pi to cock the myosin head; myosin cross bridge attaches to the actin myofilament; working stroke- myosin head pivots & bends as it pulls on the actin filament, sliding it towards the M line; as new ATP attaches to the myosin head, the cross bridge detaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

At rest, what prevents myosin from binding to actin

A

tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How does myosin bind to actin

A

Ca2+ binds to troponin & pulls on tropomyosin, exposing myosin binding site on actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Method to affect force production of muscle

A

level of overlap b/w actin & myosin; affects cross bridges formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Plasma membrane of myocyte

A

sarcolemma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Invagination of plasma membrane of myocyte

A

T-Tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Internal membrane compartment of myocyte that stores Ca2+

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In a neoromuscular junction, does the neuron physically touch the sarcolemma

A

no; relies on neurotransmitters to jump the gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Excitation contraction coupling of neuromuscular junction

A

action potential generated is propagated along the sarcolemma & down the T tubules; action potential triggers Ca2+ relase from terminal cistemae of SR; calcium ions bind to troponin, troponin changes shape & removes the blocking action of tropomyosin, exposes active sites; contraction as myosin cross bridges alternately attach to actin & detach, pulling the actin filaments towards the center of the sarcomere, release of energy by ATP hydrolysis powers the cycling process; removal of Ca2+ by active transport into the SR alter the action of potential ends; tropomyosin blockage restored blocking actin active site, contraction ends & muscle fiber relaxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Definiton of motor units

A

1 motor neuron & all the muscle fibers it innervates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Small motor units

A

low force, high precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Large motor units

A

high force, low precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Order of motor unit recruitment

A

small then to large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Describe red muscle fibers

A

slow oxidative; smaller than white ones; more extensive blood supply; more myoglobin; more mitochondria; more intracellular lipid; contract & fatigue slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Describe white muscle fibers

A

fast glycolytic; more extensive sarcolemma; more rapid Ca2+ release & contraction; more glycogen; faster ATPase; recruited last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Describe myogenesis

A

myoblasts proliferate & fuse together to become myocytes/ myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What happens when myocytes undergo atrophy

A

myonuclar loss; decrease in myofibrillar proteins; decrease in myofiber CSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What happens when myocytes undergo hypertrophy

A

myonuclear addition; increase in myofibrillar proteins; decrease in myofiber CSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

2 types of muscle contractions

A

isotonic (concentric or eccentric) or isometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Describe isotonic muscle contractions

A

muscle moves in 2 phases- concentric & eccentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Concentric phase

A

more heat, less force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Eccentric phase

A

muscle lengthening; less heat, more force, more damage; rhabdomyolysis (muscles ripping apart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Cardiac myocyte description

A

single centrally-located nucleus; fibers branch & anastomose; more mitochondria than cells of skeletal muscle; intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Define desmosomes

A

mechanical link b/w cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Define gap junctions

A

electrical link b/w cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Layers of the heart

A

pericardium, epicardium, & endocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Reticular fibers of cardiac muscle cells are analogous to what

A

endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Groups of cardiac myocytes are divided by thick bundles of connective tissue, which is analogous to what

A

perimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Features of cardiac muscle

A

striated; same banding pattern made by myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Are atrial or ventricular myoctyes smaller

A

atrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Atrial myocytes contain what granules

A

Atrial Natriuretic Peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Peptides stimulate the kidney to do what

A

excrete Na+ & water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Atrial Natruiuretic Peptides promote relaxation of what

A

smooth muscle in blood vessel walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Why are ventricular myocytes larger than atrial myocytes

A

operate against pressure/ require force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are purkinje fibers

A

modified cardiac myocytes/ impulse conducting fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How are purkinje fibers different from other cardiac tissues

A

impulse conducting fibers; more cytoplasm & fewer myofibrils (cytoplasm more pale); sarcoplasmic reticulum present; T tubules absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Describe contraction of cardiac muscles

A

Ca2+ released from sarcoplasmic reticulum; myosin & actin form cross-bridges; unstable resting membrane potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Electrical coupling b/w cardiac muscle cells results in

A

spread of action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Interaction of actin & myosin do what in cardiac muscle cells

A

shorten sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Describe a smooth muscle myocyte

A

single centrally-located nucleus; spindle shaped; surrounded by reticular fibers; tissue rich in blood vessels & nerves; no striations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Smooth muscle is present in hollow organs such as

A

uterus, gallbladder, stomach, urinary bladder, intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What filament is smooth muscle lacking compared to skeletal muscle

A

troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Dense bodies in smooth muscle do what

A

anchor myofilaments to extracellular matrix & other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the contraction of smooth muscle dependent on

A

phosphorylation of mysoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What happens when myosin is phosphorylated in smooth muscle (after Ca2+ & calmodulin)

A

myosin binds to actin & the muscle shortens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Cause of myosin phosphorylation in smooth muscle

A

increase in intracellular Ca2+ that binds to calmodulin which activates it; calcium-calmodulin phosphorylates mysoin light-chain kinase (MLCK); MLCK phosphorylates mysoin & phosphorylated myosin binds actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How does calcium come into smooth muscle

A

stretch activated cation channel; voltage-dependent calcium channel; ligand-gated cation channel; GPCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Contraction of smooth muscle differs from skeletal or cardiac how

A

slower & more sustainable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Involuntary movement of smooth muscle is under the control of

A

autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Cells of unitary smooth muscle are linked by

A

gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

All cells in a unitary smooth muscle do what

A

act as a unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Cells of multi-unit smooth muscle are linked by

A

nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Individual cells of a multi-unit smooth muscle get what

A

their own innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Multi-unit smooth muscle allows for what

A

precise contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Types of connective tissue

A

embryonic; connective tissue proper (loose & dense); specialized connective tissue (blood, cartilage, & bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Functions of connective tissue

A

3D framework supporting epithelium & other tissues; heat regulation; storage; preserve organ structure; protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Connective tissue characteristics (not including blood)

A

sparse cells & extensive extracullar matrix (ECM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the ECM composed of

A

fibers & ground substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Fibers in ECM of CT

A

collagen & elastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Ground substance of CT consists of what

A

Glycosaminoglycans & Proteoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Characteristics of collagen

A

high tensile strength (especially type I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Collagen is secreted as what & assembled where

A

procollagen; extracellularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Type I collagen

A

skin, vessels, tendon, organ capsule, bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Type II collagen

A

cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Type III collagen

A

reticular fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Type IV collagen

A

basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Type V collagen

A

hair & placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Describe shape of Type III (reticular) fibers

A

thinner than other fibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Type III (reticular) fibers can be stained w/ what color

A

silver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Function of Type III (reticular) fibers

A

provide a supporting framework for soft organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Describe properties of elastin

A

stretch & recoil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Elastin is secreted as what & assembled where

A

proelastin; extracellularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

A

chains of sugars w/ a repeating disacchaide unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Ex of GAGs

A

hyaluronic acid, chondoirtin sulfate, dermatan sulfate, keratan sulfate, heparan sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are Proteoglycans

A

GAGs linked to a protein core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Proteoglycans can be linked together by what

A

a core molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Resident cells in connective tissue proper

A

fibroblasts/fibrocytes, adipocytes, mast cells, macrophages, pericytes, & pigment cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Transient cells in connective tissue proper

A

lymphocytes/plasma cells & leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Function of fibroblasts

A

produce ECM in proper connective tissue (fibers- procollagen/prelastin & ground substance- GAGs & proteoglycans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Function of fibrocytes

A

less active than fibroblasts, may become stimulated to become more fibroblastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Mast cells shape

A

ovoid; large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Granules in mast cells

A

basophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Function of mast cells

A

chemical mediators (histamine); responsible for allergic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Function of macrophages

A

professional phagocytes; engulf & destroy; patrol tissues for foreign objects & dead tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Macrophages are derived from what

A

myocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Appearance of macrophages when inactive

A

large & appear oval/spherical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Apperance of macrophages when active

A

very large & multinucleated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Functions of loose/ areolar connective tissue

A

support, tissue repair, & defense activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Loose connective tissue is more common than dense; where is it found

A

around nerves & skeletal muscle bundles; b/w most epithelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Describe the appearance of loose connective tissue

A

cells & fibers separated by large areas filled w/ ground substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Describe the general appearance of dense connective tissue

A

fibers (mainly collagen) are more abundant than ground substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Explain strength of dense regular connective tissue

A

strong in one direction- parallel to orientation of the fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Explain strength of dense irregular connective tissue

A

strong in many directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Ex of dense regular connective tissue

A

tendons/ ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Ex of irregular connective tissue

A

dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Components of the blood

A

cells (erythrocytes/leukocytes); cell fragments (platelets); plasma (water+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Blood components can be separated through

A

clotting & sedimentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Sedimentation occurs when

A

clotting is prevented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

3 layers of sedimentation

A

erythrocytes (PCV or hematorcrit- volume of RBCs compared to total blood volume); buffy coat (leukocytes & platelets); plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Substances found in plasma include

A

salt, ions, large molecules (albumins, globulins, fibrogen), organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Define serum

A

plasma minus fibrinogen & other clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How do you get serum

A

allow blood to clot, then centrifuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Another name for platelets

A

thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Platelets are fragments of what

A

megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Platelets are essential for what

A

hemostasis (blood clotting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Describe platelet formation

A

megakaryocytes in bone marrow project cytoplasm into a blood vessel; fragments break off & become platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Type of activation for platelets

A

receptor mediated activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Steps of platelet activation

A

morphology change; degranulation; aggregate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

When a platelet is activated, this means that

A

it is helping to clot blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Two broad categories of leukocytes

A

granulocytes & agranulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Describe a general feature of granulocytes

A

segmented nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Describe a general feature of agranulocytes

A

mononuclear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Types of granulocytes

A

eosinophils, basophils, & neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Types of agranulocytes

A

monocytes & lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Describe erythrocytes in mammals

A

non-nucleated & biconcave disks

186
Q

Erythrocytes are rich w/ what

A

hemoglobin

187
Q

Special feature of neutrophils compared to other granulocytes

A

granules do not stain

188
Q

Functions of neutrophils

A

early responders to bacterial/fungal infections; phagocytize microbes & foreign particles

189
Q

Describe the plasma components & the substances in each

A

salts, ions, organic compounds, large molecules (albumins, globulins, & fibrinogen)

190
Q

Special feature of eosinophils compared to other granulocytes

A

granules stain red to reddish-orange w/ eosin

191
Q

Functions of eosinophils

A

combat parasites; source of inflammation in an allergic rxn; non-phagocytic

192
Q

Special feature of basophils compared to other granulocytes

A

granules stain blue w/ basophilic stain (hematoxylin)

193
Q

Function of basophil

A

source of inflammation in allergic rxn (histamine)

194
Q

Which cell is the largest leukocyte

A

monocyte

195
Q

Monocytes enter different tissues; what are 4 examples of the names & where they are found

A

macrophages- many tissue
langerhans cells- skin
osteoclasts- bone
microglia- brain

196
Q

In the majority of species, what WBCs are the most common

A

neutrophils (most) & lymphocytes (2nd most)

197
Q

Appearance of lymphocytes

A

little cytoplasm w/ a large nucleus; smallest leukocytes

198
Q

Types of lymphocytes

A

T-lymphocytes & B-lymphocytes

199
Q

Define hematopoiesis/hemopoiesis

A

formation of blood cells

200
Q

Where does hematopoisesis occur in mammals

A

yolk sac -> prenatally
liver -> youth
bone marrow -> adults

201
Q

Extramedullary hematopoiesis occurs where

A

liver & spleen

202
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells include what kinds

A

pluripotent & multipotent (blood stem cells- myeloid & lymphoid)

203
Q

Vascular space in bone marrow is continous w/

A

cardiovascular system

204
Q

Extravascular space in bone marrow is where what occurs

A

hematopoiesis

205
Q

What kinds of factors guide the ultimate differentiation of blood cells

A

local & systemic origin

206
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells give rise to what cells

A

common myeloid progenitor & common lymphoid progenitor

207
Q

Common myeloid progenator gives rise to what cells

A

megakaryotcyte/erythroid progenitor & granulocyte/macrophage progenitor

208
Q

Megakaryocyte/erythroid progenitor gives rise to what cells

A

RBCs & megakaryocytes

209
Q

Megakaryocytes give rise to what cells

A

platelets

210
Q

Granulocyte/macrophage progenitor give rise to what cells

A

monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, & mast cells

211
Q

Monocytes give rise to what cells

A

macrophages & dendritic cells

212
Q

Common lymphoid progenitor gives rise to what cells

A

B cells, T cells, & NK cells

213
Q

B cells give rise to what cells

A

plasma cells

214
Q

What is the most active component of hemopoiesis

A

erythropoiesis

215
Q

What are erythrocytes called in the stage prior to maturation

A

reticulocytes

216
Q

Features of reticulocytes

A

still have RNA but no nucleus

217
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO) is secreted by the kidney & does what

A

acts at all stages of maturation of erythrocytes

218
Q

Last nucleated stage in RBC maturation

A

metarubricytes

219
Q

As the RBC matures, what changes occur

A

size decreases, basiophilia decreases, nuclear size decreases, & hemoglobin increases

220
Q

How many days does it take to produce a granulocyte

A

6-9 days

221
Q

Last step before maturation of a granulocyte is what

A

band cell

222
Q

Some mature granulocytes are stored where until they are needed

A

storage pool in bone

223
Q

Most common granulocyte in production

A

neutrophil

224
Q

Once post-mitotic, granulocyte cells undergo maturation & storage until they are what

A

released into blood

225
Q

Interesting feature about the origin of monocytes

A

produced along granulocytes (even though they are an agranulocyte)

226
Q

Monocytes do not fully mature until when

A

they enter tissues & become macrophages

227
Q

How do megakaryocytes become multinucleated

A

nucleus divides but cytoplasm does not

228
Q

Hemostasis definition

A

process that causes bleeding to stop

229
Q

Hemostasis is a finely regulated process w/ what 3 main players

A

endothelial cells, platelets, & coagulation factors

230
Q

Describe primary hemostasis

A

1) contraction of vessel smooth muscle (vasoconstriction)
2) platelet activation, adhesion/aggregation at site of injury
3) endothelial cells & platelets release factors that facilitate plug formation

231
Q

After a tear in the endothelium, endothelial cells help pull the endothelium back together & release what to make it easier to stick to the defect

A

von Willebrand factor

232
Q

Steps of primary hemostasis

A

1) platelet adhesion
2) shape change
3) granule release (ADP & TXA2)
4) recruitment
5) aggregation (hemostatic plug)

233
Q

Describe secondary hemostasis

A

coagulation to form a fibrin meshwork

234
Q

In secondary hemostasis, thrombin does what

A

converts fibrinogen (soluble) to fibrin (insoluble)

235
Q

Fibrin production is the end result of several rxns involving what

A

coagulation factors, nonenzymatic cofactors, calcium, & phospholipid membranes

236
Q

Steps of secondary hemostasis

A

1) tissue factor
2) phospholipid complex expression
3) thrombin activation
4) fibrin polymerization

237
Q

Pathways of the coagulation cascade

A

extrinsic & intrinsic pathways that meet up at the common pathway

238
Q

What is an important cofactor in clotting (coagulation cascade)

A

Ca2+

239
Q

Ca2+ does what (coagulation cascade)

A

makes thrombin; which converts fibrogen -> fibrin

240
Q

Function of coagulation cascade

A

to amplify the signal so it doesn’t get washed away

241
Q

Clotting factors are activated where

A

at the site they are needed/ point of injury

242
Q

Anticoagulant activity involves what

A

antithrombin III

243
Q

Antithrombin III is produced where

A

liver

244
Q

Antithrombin III is activated by

A

heparin, present in normal epithelial cells

245
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) can result from

A

endothelial damage (heat stroke); platelet activation (parasite); release of tissue procoagulants

246
Q

Where is cartilage found

A

fetal skeleton; supporting framework; on articulating surfaces

247
Q

Describe properties of cartilage

A

strong & pliable connective tissue

248
Q

Special features of cartilage

A

non-vascular & not innervated

249
Q

Cells in cartilage

A

chondroblasts & chondrocytes (few in #)

250
Q

Components in cartilage

A

fibers (collagen/elastin) & ground substance (GAGs/proteoglycans)

251
Q

The cartilage structure is surrounded by what

A

perichondrium (outer fibrous & inner cellular layers)

252
Q

Chondrocytes are surrounded by matrix & fibers but located in what

A

lacunae

253
Q

3 types of cartilage

A

hyaline, elastic, & fibrocartilage

254
Q

Hyaline cartilage is the most common cartilage & is found where

A

articulating surfaces, nose, larynx, connects ribs to sternum, & tracheal rings/bronchi; fetal skeleton & epiphyseal plates

255
Q

Elastic cartilage is flexible & is found where

A

epiglottis & ear canal

256
Q

Fibrocartilage is for mechanical stress & is found where

A

intervertebral disks & menisci

257
Q

Major components of articular (hyaline) cartilage

A

water, collagen, GAGs, & proteoglycans

258
Q

Articular (hyaline) cartilage is dependent on what

A

diffusion from synovial fluid for nutrients & waste removal

259
Q

Why is articular (hyaline) cartilage dependent on diffusion

A

does not have a perichondrium

260
Q

Articular (hyaline) cartilage has what characteristic regarding growth

A

slow remodeling/healing in the adult

261
Q

Matrix of articular (hyaline) cartilage includes what

A

type II collagen, hyaluronic acid (HA), & proteoglycans (PGs)

262
Q

Matrix of articular (hyaline) cartilage does what

A

attracts water (PGs(GAG))

263
Q

The well hydrated matrix of articular (hyaline) cartilage is crucial to what

A

shock absorbing properties

264
Q

Why do the PGs (GAG) help to attract water

A

negative charge

265
Q

Phase of articular cartilage where it is under a load

A

creep

266
Q

Phase of articular cartilage where it is compressed fully

A

equillibrium

267
Q

Why does articular cartilage not function well long-term if it is not being used

A

compression of the joint allows for diffusion of water-> brings nutrients

268
Q

Superficial layer of articular cartilage has what features

A

more water, more collagen, more cells, less PGs

269
Q

Deep layer of articular cartilage has what features

A

less water, less collagen, less cells, more PGs

270
Q

Why does the deep layer of articular cartilage have more PGs

A

to help draw fluid down to the deeper layer

271
Q

Define perichondrium

A

layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the cartilage of developing bone (except articular cartilage)

272
Q

Muscle lengthens in eccentric or concentric

A

eccentric

273
Q

Muscle shortens in eccentric or concentric

A

concentric

274
Q

Function of T tubules

A

conduct impulses from the surface of the cell (sarcolemma) down into the cell and, specifically, to another structure in the cell called the sarcoplasmic reticulum

275
Q

Intercalated disks are what

A

cell junctions- includes desmosomes & gap junctions

276
Q

Describe appearance of articular (hyaline) cartilage

A

chondrocytes/blasts are random; cannot distinguish collagen from ground substance

277
Q

Describe appearance of fibrocartilage

A

chondrocytes in parallel rows w/ collagen in b/w

278
Q

Describe appearance of elastic cartilage

A

abundant & large chondrocytes; collagen blends in w/ ground substance; visible elastic cartilage

279
Q

Fibers in hyaline/ elastic cartilage

A

collagen

280
Q

Fibers in fibrocartilage

A

collagen

281
Q

Fibers in elastic cartilage

A

collagen & elastin

282
Q

Perichondrium has what layers

A

outer fibrous & innter cellular layer

283
Q

Where is the perichondrium absent

A

hyaline articular cartilage & fibrocartilage

284
Q

Role of hyaluronic acid in hyaline articular cartilage

A

lubrication & viscoelasticity of synovial fluid

285
Q

Location of appositional growth of cartilage

A

underneath periosteum

286
Q

Location of interstitial growth of cartilage

A

located around chondrocytes in lacunae

287
Q

Functions of bone

A

hematopoeisis; support; protection (against mechanical stress); storage (of minerals); attachment; lever system

288
Q

Describe osteoprogenitors

A

make osteblasts

289
Q

Describe osteoblasts

A

immature bone cells; no lacunae; make tissue; found lined up along edges of growing bone

290
Q

Describe osteocytes

A

mature bone cells; have lacunae; maintain bone; found trapped in bone

291
Q

Describe osteclasts

A

cut edges of bone (under endosteum); multinucleated (differentiate from monocytes)

292
Q

(Periosteum is the outer covering of bone) Outer fibrous layer of periosteum does what

A

makes collagen

293
Q

(Periosteum is the outer covering of bone) Inner cellular layer of periosteum does what

A

osteogenesis

294
Q

Describe compact bone

A

osteon functional units (includes central canal, cone rings of osteocytes in lacunae, & canaliculi); in diaphysis

295
Q

Other names for compact bone

A

cortical or dense bone

296
Q

Describe calcullous bone

A

large open spaces surrounded by thin anastomosing plates of bone; lines w/ endosteum (squamous cells & osteblasts/clasts); in epiphysis

297
Q

Other names for calcullous bone

A

spongy or trabecular

298
Q

Explain the organization of calcullous bone

A

lamella organized as trabeculae w/ osteocytes in lacunae; canaliculi open at trabecular surface below the endosteum & fluid nutrients are exchanged; no osteon

299
Q

Central canals are located parallel to bone and contain what

A

blood & nerve supply

300
Q

Perforating canals are located perpendicular to bone and do what

A

connect central canals to periosteum

301
Q

What is the canaliculi

A

paths to central canal for fluid, waste, & nutrients to be exchanged

302
Q

Concentric rings of compact bone are from what

A

lamina of osteocytes in lacunae

303
Q

Function of bone marrow

A

make RBCs & is important in the lymphatic system

304
Q

Describe red bone marrow

A

hematopoetically active; present at birth; gradually converts to yellow

305
Q

Describe yellow bone marrow

A

inactive; primary adipocytes; in severe blood loss, can convert back to red

306
Q

Intramembranous ossification occurs where

A

flat bones & fracture sites w/ blood supply

307
Q

Endochondral ossification occurs where

A

long bones & fracture sites w/out blood supply

308
Q

What happens in intramembranous ossification

A

connective tissue ossifies

309
Q

What happens in endochondral ossification

A

cartilage is replaced w/ bone

310
Q

Describe structure of lamellar bone

A

organized matrix of collagen fibers

311
Q

Describe structure of woven bone

A

irregular arrangement of collagen fibers

312
Q

Longevity of woven bone

A

not permanent, replaced w/ lamellar bone

313
Q

Characteristics of lamellar bone

A

slow to make, layered, & stronger

314
Q

Characteristics of woven bone

A

quick to make, single layer, & weaker

315
Q

Steps of intramembranous ossification

A

1) mesenchyme condenses
2) cells produce collagen fibrils & thicken matrix
3) osteoblasts differentiate & form mesenchymal cells
4) osteoblasts secrete collagen for matrix (centers of ossification that form trabeculae of bone - add layers - then fuse w/ other trabeculae)
5) organization is poor at first (woven bone)

316
Q

Steps of endochondral ossification

A

1) mesenchymal cells become chondroblasts
2) hyaline cartilage starts being replaced by bone
3) bone collar forms on outside of cartilage
4) chondrocytes in center hypertrophy, calcify matrix, & die
5) vessels invade cartilage matrix
6) osteoblasts invade & start making new bone

317
Q

Explain resting cartilage cells (epiphyseal plate)

A

chondrocytes in storage

318
Q

Explain proliferating cartilage cells (epiphyseal plate)

A

chondrocytes line up

319
Q

Explain hypertrophic cartilage cells (epiphyseal plate)

A

chondrocytes enlarge & burst

320
Q

Explain zone of calcifies cartilage (epiphyseal plate)

A

cartilage turns to bone

321
Q

Explain vascular invasion & primary bone formation (epiphyseal plate)

A

last phase of epiphyseal plate growth

322
Q

Summary of epiphyseal plate growth

A

chondrocytes proliferate, hypertrophy/ calcify matrix, then die; osteoblast invade & secrete matrix; growth plates eventually close

323
Q

Bone remodeling occurs when

A

throughout life

324
Q

Bone remodeling involves what

A

bone repair; Ca2+ homeostasis; shape changes after mechanical stress; increasing diameter

325
Q

Name the phases of bone fracture healing

A

reactive phase, reparative phase, & remodeling phase

326
Q

Describe reactive phase of bone fracture healing

A

fracture, hematoma, & inflammation; granulation type tissue formation; new CT & blood vessels fill the wound

327
Q

Describe reparative phase of bone fracture healing

A

callus formation; bone deposition (endo/intra ossification)

328
Q

Describe remodeling phase of bone fracture healing

A

many years to convert woven -> lamellar

329
Q

Does thin or thick skin have hair follicles

A

thin skin

330
Q

Sweat glands in thick skin

A

merocrine

331
Q

Sweat glands in thin skin

A

apocrine

332
Q

Layers of thick skin

A

stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, & stratum corneum

333
Q

Layers of thin skin

A

thin stratum corneum; stratum lucidum/ granulosum difficult to define

334
Q

Which type of skin is glabrous

A

thick (thin is nonglabrous)

335
Q

Describe stratum basale

A

situated on top of basement membrane; stem cells give rise to keratoncytes; melanocytes & merkel cells

336
Q

Describe stratum spinosum

A

cells attached by desmosomes; membranes coating granules; start of keratinization

337
Q

Describe stratum granulosum

A

last layer where cells have nuclei; keratohyaline granules

338
Q

Describe stratum lucidum

A

(not always present) no organelles or nuclei; keratin filaments

339
Q

Describe stratum corneum

A

deep layer has desmosomes while superficial layer has desmosome breakdown & desquamated (sloughed off)

340
Q

Where are melanocytes found

A

epidermis basal layer; external root sheath & matrix of hair

341
Q

Function of melanocytes

A

source of melanin for keratinocytes

342
Q

Where are dendritic (Langerhans cells) found

A

all layers of epidermis

343
Q

Function of dendritic cells

A

antigen-presenting cells

344
Q

Where are merkel cells found

A

epidermis basal layer

345
Q

Function of merkel cells

A

slow adapting light touch receptors

346
Q

Layers of the dermis

A

papillary layer & reticular layer

347
Q

Describe papillary layer

A

dermal ridges; loose CT; anchoring fibrils from basal lamina of epithelium

348
Q

Describe reticular layer

A

dense irregular CT (collagen & elastin); sweat glands; hair follicles/ arrector pili; mechanoreceptors; blood & lymph nodes

349
Q

Thin skin of dermis has what characteristics

A

only have a reticular layer that can be divided into superficial & deep

350
Q

Describe the hypodermis

A

loose CT; anchors dermis to underlying muscle/bone; has adipose tissue

351
Q

1st degree burn

A

epidermis

352
Q

2nd degree burn

A

dermis

353
Q

3rd degree burn

A

hypodermis

354
Q

4th degree burn

A

muscle

355
Q

Describe what sebacous glands secrete

A

sebum for water-proofing & antibacterial

356
Q

Describe what sweat glands secrete

A

viscous secretions that contain scent

357
Q

Type of secretion for sebacous glands

A

holocrine secretion

358
Q

Type of secretion for sweat glands

A

apocrine & merocrine secretion

359
Q

Where does apocrine secretion of sweat glands occur

A

into hair follicles; in all haired skin

360
Q

Where does merocrine secretion of sweat glands occur

A

onto cell surface; foot pads of cats/ dogs

361
Q

Define hair

A

flexible keratinized structure

362
Q

Function of a hair follicle

A

produces hair

363
Q

Hair follicles are embedded in what

A

dermis

364
Q

Layers of hair

A

medulla (inner), cortex (hair color), & cuticle (outer)

365
Q

Components of external root sheath

A

epidermis & dermis

366
Q

Internal root sheath produced by what & ends where

A

inner matrix; b4 sebacous gland

367
Q

What is at the base of a growing hair follicle

A

hair matrix & dermal papilla

368
Q

Hair matrix has what

A

cells that produce keratin

369
Q

Dermal papella is for what

A

support & nutrition

370
Q

Describe simple hair follicles

A

single hair from one external orifice

371
Q

Describe compound hair follicles

A

one/few primary hair(s) & several/many secondary hairs all from one external orifice

372
Q

Arrangement of hair follicles is dependent on what

A

species, breed, & age

373
Q

How does age affect hair follicles

A

animals born w/ simple hair follicles that then turn into compound follicles as they age; humans always have single hair follicles

374
Q

Other names for whiskers

A

sinus or tactile hairs

375
Q

Special features of whiskers

A

blood-filled cavity b/w inner & outer dermal sheath; innervated by sensory nerve bundles

376
Q

Anagen hair growth

A

active growth

377
Q

Catagen hair growth

A

growth slows & stops; bulb keratinizes & starts moving to sebacous glands

378
Q

Telogen hair growth

A

resting phase; club hair on bulb

379
Q

Renewed anagen hair growth

A

new hair pushes out old one

380
Q

Hair growth is under the control of what

A

hormones, day length, temperature, & nutrition

381
Q

Describe the epidermis of the claw

A

keratinized; dorsal ridge on top; wall on side; sole on bottom

382
Q

Describe dermis of the claw

A

not keratinized; blood supply -> called quick

383
Q

Another name for the dermis of the claw

A

corium

384
Q

Compare structure of horns to antlers

A

horn = hollow; antlers = solid

385
Q

Are horns found in both males & females

A

yes -> antlers are not (usually)

386
Q

Species that have horns

A

cattle, sheep, goats

387
Q

Species that have antlers

A

cervids

388
Q

Are horns permanent

A

yes -> antlers are shed seasonally

389
Q

Boney core of a horn is what

A

corneal process from frontal bone

390
Q

Dermis of horn

A

dermal core covering corneal process

391
Q

Epidermis of horn

A

outer layer is keratinized

392
Q

Antlers are a bony outgrowth from what

A

frontal bones (pedicle)

393
Q

Dermis & epidermis in antlers

A

velvet

394
Q

Other names for mammary glands

A

tubuloalvelar/ modified sweat gland

395
Q

Components of mammary glands

A

alveoli, ducts, & interstitial tissue

396
Q

Merocrine part of mammary gland

A

protein & carbs

397
Q

Apocrine part of mammary gland

A

lipids

398
Q

What is involution

A

process of converting from active to inactive (vice versa)

399
Q

Over time, involution of mammary glands leads to what

A

CT/ adipocyte content increasing & milk production decreasing

400
Q

Describe structure of mammary gland cells inactive vs active

A

low cuboidal when inactive to tall cuboidal/ columnar when active

401
Q

Anal sacs are what

A

paired diverticular opening into the anal canal at the anocutanous junction

402
Q

Describe dog anal sacs

A

apocrine glands in wall; sebacous glands near duct

403
Q

Describe cat anal sacs

A

apocrrine & sebacous glands in wall

404
Q

Primary lymphoid organs are the sites for what

A

lymphocyte development; B & T cell education

405
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs are the sites for what

A

lymphocytes respond to antigens

406
Q

Primary lymphoid organs include what

A

thymus, bursa, peyer’s patches, & bone marrow

407
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs include what

A

tonsils, spleen, lymph nodes, peyer’s patches, & bone marrow

408
Q

Primary lymphoid organ of T cells

A

thymus

409
Q

Primary lymphoid organ of B cells

A

bursa, peyer’s patches, & bone marrow

410
Q

What occurs in the cortex of the thymus

A

T lymphocytes replicate; positive selection for MHC I & II recognition

411
Q

Epithelial reticular cells help w/ what

A

+/- selection in cortex of thymus

412
Q

What happens in corticomedullary junction of thymus

A

negative selection for self antigen recognition

413
Q

Primary lymphoid organ of birds

A

bursa

414
Q

Ruminants, pigs, horses, dogs, & cats have what for their primary lymphoid organ

A

large peyer’s patches

415
Q

Primates & rodents have what for their secondary lymphoid organ

A

small peyer’s patches

416
Q

As the thymus age (more involutions) what happens

A

size decrease & adipose tissue increases

417
Q

Parts of thymus

A

cranial part, craniocervical isthmus, cervical part, cerviothoracic isthmus, & thoracic part

418
Q

Function of lymph node

A

proceess lymph (interstitial fluid); filter lymph when it returns

419
Q

Parts of a lymph node

A

stroma, cortex, paracortex, & medulla

420
Q

Describe stroma

A

contains a capsule, trabeculae, reticular fibers, & sinuses

421
Q

Capsule of stroma has what

A

dense irregular CT

422
Q

Trapeculae of stroma is formed from what

A

CT from capsule diving into lymph nodes

423
Q

Describe the cortex

A

lymphoid nodules w/ B cells & follicular dendritic cells

424
Q

Describe the paracortex

A

T cells, APCs, & high endothelial venules

425
Q

Describe the medulla

A

medullary cords & medullary sinuses

426
Q

What is in the medullary cords of the medulla

A

plasma cells, T cells, & macrophaages

427
Q

High endothelial venules allow for what

A

passage of naive lymphocytes into lymph nodes

428
Q

Afferant lymphatic vessels allow for what

A

passage of primed lymphocytes into lymph nodes

429
Q

Efferant lymphatic vessels allow for what

A

passage of primed & naive lymphocytes out of lymph nodes

430
Q

Typical lymph nodes have what

A

two afferent lymph vessels & one efferant lymph vessel

431
Q

Pig lymph nodes have what

A

one afferant lymph vessel & two efferant lymph vessels

432
Q

High endothelial venules are found where

A

tonsils, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches, & bone marrow

433
Q

High endothelial venules are NOT found where

A

spleen

434
Q

What are high endothelial vessels

A

blood vessels adapted for lymphocyte trafficking

435
Q

Describe primary lymphatic nodules

A

stromal network of connective tissue & immature follicular dendritic cells

436
Q

What type of lymphocyte does primary lymphatic nodules have

A

naive recirculating B cells

437
Q

What type of lymphatic nodule has germinal centers

A

secondary lymphatic nodules

438
Q

What occurs in the dark zone of secondary lymphatic nodules

A

B cells replicate when they find their antigen

439
Q

What occurs in the light zone of secondary lymphatic tissue

A

when mature, B cell immune response is tested; if B cells do not match their antigen, they are destroyed

440
Q

Where are lymphatic nodules found

A

cortex of lymph node, spleen, tonsils, & Peyer’s patches

441
Q

Function of spleen

A

blood filtration, blood storage (species-specific), hematopoiesis, & mounting an immune response to bloodborne pathogens

442
Q

Components of spleen

A

capsule w/ trabeculae, reticular fibers, red & white pulp

443
Q

What is the capsule of the spleen made out of

A

fibroelastic tissue w/ smooth muscle

dense irregular CT

444
Q

Red pulp has what

A

splenic sinuses, vascular spaces, macrophages, & PAMS

445
Q

Species that have splenic sinuses

A

dog, rat, & human

446
Q

What are splenic sinuses

A

disconintous endothelium & basal lamina

447
Q

PAMS are what

A

Periarticular Macrophage Sheath

448
Q

White pulp has what

A

PALS, nodules, marginal zones

449
Q

PALS are what

A

Periarticular Lymphoid Sheath

450
Q

PALS have what cell

A

T lymphocytes

451
Q

Nodules in white pulp has what

A

B lymphocytes

452
Q

Marginal zones in spleen have what

A

plasma cells, APCs, macrophages, & circulating B & T lymphocytes (leave blood & contact APCs)

453
Q

MALT is what

A

Mucosa-Associated Lymphatic Tissue

454
Q

What does MALT consist of

A

lymphatic nodules & diffuse lymphatic tissue

455
Q

Special feature of MALT

A

no afferant ducts

456
Q

MALT is found where

A

tonsils, Bronchus-ALT (BALT), & Gut-ALT (GALT)

457
Q

Describe hemal node

A

black structure w/ unkown function

458
Q

Species that have hemal nodes

A

ruminants

459
Q

Besides the lymphatic vessels being different, what else is weird about the pig lymph node

A

the inside layer is the cortex, the middle is paracortex, and the outside is the medulla

460
Q

What is the organization of a typical (not pig) lymph node

A

the inside layer is the medulla, the middle is paracortex, and the ouside is the cortex

461
Q

Sarcomeres in series

A

fast contractions, but less force

462
Q

Sarcomeres in parallel

A

slow contractions, but more force

Histology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions