Exam 2 Flashcards
1) Which of the following sequences represents a monosaccharide followed by a disaccharide followed by a polysaccharide?
a) fructose, sucrose, starch
b) lactose, glucose, dietary fiber
c) glucose, maltose, lactose
d) galactose, glycogen, starch
a) fructose, sucrose, starch
2) Carbohydrate loading, a training technique used by some endurance athletes, can help to increase _____________ stores.
a) glycogen
b) amylose
c) sucrose
d) lactase
a) glycogen
3) Which of the following statements about Type 1 diabetes is correct?
a) This type of disease occurs when cells are no longer sensitive to insulin.
b) Obesity is a major risk factor for developing this disease.
c) The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin.
d) Type 1 is the most common type of diabetes.
c) The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin.
4) Dietary fiber is categorized by:
a) its solubility in water.
b) its molecular weight.
c) the ratio of carbon to hydrogen molecules.
d) the number of branch points.
a) its solubility in water.
5) The organ(s) which supplies enzymes required for starch digestion include(s) the:
a) stomach.
b) gallbladder.
c) pancreas.
d) All of these choices are correct.
c) pancreas.
6) Lactose intolerance is caused by:
a) excess production of the enzyme lactase.
b) an allergic reaction to proteins found in milk and milk products.
c) inadequate production of the enzyme lactase.
d) the inability to produce the hormone insulin.
c) inadequate production of the enzyme lactase.
7) The most important determinant for developing lactose intolerance is:
a) ethnic background.
b) gender.
c) geographic location where a person lives.
d) whether one is lean or obese.
a) ethnic background.
8) The concentration of glucose in the blood is primarily regulated by:
a) pancreatic enzymes.
b) pancreatic hormones.
c) enzymes in the membranes of cells lining the small intestine.
d) hormones released by the GI tract.
b) pancreatic hormones.
9) The _____________________ reflects a ranking of how specific foods affect blood glucose as compared to the response of a reference food.
a) glycemic response
b) glycemic index
c) gluconeogenic index
d) digestibility and solubility index
b) glycemic index
10) Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that:
a) splits glucose into two molecules of pyruvate.
b) generates glucose from glucogenic amino acids.
c) synthesizes glycogen.
d) creates glucose molecules from glycogen.
a) splits glucose into two molecules of pyruvate.
11) Diabetes is best characterized by:
a) abnormally high blood glucose levels.
b) elevated blood lipids.
c) the presence of ketones in blood.
d) blood glucose levels below the normal range.
a) abnormally high blood glucose levels.
12) Which of the following types of diabetes is classified as an autoimmune disease?
a) Gestational
b) Type 2
c) Type 1
d) All of these choices are correct.
c) Type 1
13) Which of the following foods are the best sources of complex carbohydrates?
a) Milk and dairy products
b) Meat, fish, and poultry
c) Fats and oils
d) Cereals and grains
d) Cereals and grains
14) A diet high in dietary fiber can help reduce the risk of developing:
a) diverticular disease.
b) anemia.
c) Type 1 diabetes.
d) lactose intolerance.
a) diverticular disease.
15) Dietary fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol levels by:
a) binding cholesterol and bile acids in the GI tract.
b) blocking reabsorption of bile acids in the GI tract.
c) inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver.
d) All of the these choices are correct.
d) All of the these choices are correct.
16) A well-documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake is:
a) dental caries.
b) Type 1 diabetes.
c) diverticular disease.
d) constipation.
a) dental caries.
17) An oligosaccharide is a:
a) disaccharide found in fruits and vegetables.
b) storage form of plant starch.
c) carbohydrate containing 3-10 sugar units.
d) form of artificial sweetener.
c) carbohydrate containing 3-10 sugar units.
18) The breakdown of dietary carbohydrates releases _____kcal/g of energy.
a) 9
b) 4
c) 7
d) 2
b) 4
19) Fructose is found mostly in:
a) dairy products.
b) grains and cereals.
c) meat.
d) fruits and vegetables.
d) fruits and vegetables.
20) Which food would NOT be recommended as a source of calcium to someone who is lactose intolerant?
a) Soy milk
b) Tofu
c) Fortified orange juice
d) Ice cream
d) Ice cream
21) Which of the following conditions is likely to increase ketone production?
a) Untreated diabetes
b) Starvation
c) A very low carbohydrate diet
d) All of these choices are correct.
d) All of these choices are correct.
22) Carbohydrates promote dental caries by which of the following mechanisms?
a) Sugar promotes the growth of bacteria that breakdown enamel.
b) Bacteria metabolize carbohydrate to form acids, which break down enamel.
c) Carbohydrates stick to teeth, preventing the removal of plaque.
d) All of these choices are correct.
b) Bacteria metabolize carbohydrate to form acids, which break down enamel.
23) A 2000 calorie diet in which carbohydrate provides 50% of the calories would provide how many grams of carbohydrate?
a) 140
b) 200
c) 250
d) 400
c) 250
24) Which of the following is the best source of dietary fiber?
a) 2 scrambled eggs
b) 1 small doughnut
c) A 4 ounce salmon filet
d) 1 cup of broccoli
c) A 4 ounce salmon filet
25) Aspartame:
a) is an artificial sweetener.
b) consists of two amino acids linked together.
c) is often found in soft drinks.
d) All of these choices are correct.
d) All of these choices are correct.
26) Sugar alcohols are:
a) derived from ethyl alcohol.
b) a combination of amino acids.
c) produced from oleic acid.
d) structurally similar to dietary sugars.
d) structurally similar to dietary sugars.
27) Aerobic metabolism occurs in:
a) the cytoplasm of a cell.
b) the mitochondria of a cell.
c) the nucleus of a cell.
d) None of these choices is correct.
b) the mitochondria of a cell.
28) Which of the following statements about glycogen is FALSE?
a) Glycogen is a storage form of carbohydrate in humans and animals.
b) Glycogen is composed of many glucose molecules.
c) Glycogen is made and stored in liver and muscle.
d) The primary role of muscle glycogen is to maintain blood glucose levels.
d) The primary role of muscle glycogen is to maintain blood glucose levels.
29) Refined grain products contain predominantly what part(s) of the kernel?
a) Husk and germ
b) Stalk
c) Germ and bran
d) Endosperm
d) Endosperm
30) ___________ can be a concern for individuals with phenylketonuria.
a) Aspartame
b) Saccharin
c) Acesulfame K
d) Neotame
a) Aspartame
31) Dietary fiber promotes a healthy intestinal microflora in part by:
a) slowing the movement of food material in the gut.
b) promoting the production of short chain fatty acids which provide metabolic fuel for colonic cells.
c) decreasing the fluidity of the intestinal contents.
d) producing natural antibiotics that kill pathogenic bacteria.
b) promoting the production of short chain fatty acids which provide metabolic fuel for colonic cells.
32) Which of the following nutrients is NOT added to enriched grains?
a) Thiamin
b) Niacin
c) Folate
d) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin E
33) Which sugar substitute contains phenylalanine, yet is safe for those with phenylketonuria?
a) Sorbitol
b) Saccharine
c) Neotame
d) Aspartame
c) Neotame
34) Which of the following is true of colon cancer?
a) High fiber and whole grain intake may reduce the risk.
b) Changes in DNA underlie the development of colonic tumors.
c) Environmental carcinogens are thought to cause many cancers.
d) All of these statements are true.
d) All of these statements are true.
35) Indigestible carbohydrates provide positive health benefits in part by:
a) slowing fecal movement.
b) increasing the bulk of the colonic contents.
c) decreasing the amount of water in the colon.
d) All of these choices are true.
b) increasing the bulk of the colonic contents.
36) Carbohydrates provide 60% of the energy in John’s diet of 2700 kilocalories. This represents how many grams of carbohydrate?
a) 100
b) 225
c) 300
d) 405
d) 405
37) The daily value for dietary fiber is 25 grams in a 2000 kilocalorie diet. A slice of whole-wheat bread is 8% of the daily value. The slice of whole-wheat bread contains how much fiber?
a) 2 grams
b) 4 grams
c) 8 grams
d) 16 grams
a) 2 grams
38) Of the following foods, ___________ is the best dietary source of resistant starch.
a) apples
b) chilled, cooked potatoes
c) whole grain bread
d) oatmeal
b) chilled, cooked potatoes
39) Treatment of diverticulitis usually includes:
a) antibiotics and a temporary decrease in fiber intake.
b) increasing fluid intake and antacids.
c) insulin injections.
d) exercise and weight loss.
a) antibiotics and a temporary decrease in fiber intake.
40) Studies suggest that the incidence of colon cancer may be lowered with high fiber diets. How might this be explained?
a) Fiber decreases contact between mucosal cells and colonic contents.
b) Fiber decreases transit time.
c) Fiber containing foods are usually high in phytochemicals and antioxidant vitamins.
d) All of these statements are true.
d) All of these statements are true.
41) The AMDR for carbohydrate intake for a healthy diet has been set at ______ of the total energy required.
a) 15-10%
b) 30-45%
c) 45-65%
d) 65-80%
c) 45-65%
42) Sucrose is composed of:
a) many molecules of glucose linked together.
b) two molecules of glucose.
c) a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose.
d) two molecules of fructose.
c) a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose.
43) One possible adverse effect of excessive fiber consumption is:
a) an increase in blood cholesterol.
b) decreased absorption of calcium and iron.
c) increased incidence of colon cancer.
d) increased incidence of diverticulosis.
b) decreased absorption of calcium and iron.
44) The structure of glycogen consists of:
a) highly branched chains.
b) straight chains.
c) short chains linked together.
d) two monosaccharide units.
a) highly branched chains.
45) In which individual would you expect the highest muscle glycogen content?
a) A person on a high protein weight loss diet
b) A person who eats a balanced diet of protein, carbohydrate and fat
c) A sedentary person
d) A trained athlete consuming 65-70% of kcals as carbohydrate
d) A trained athlete consuming 65-70% of kcals as carbohydrate
46) Which hormone is most important for glucose uptake by body cells?
a) Glucagon
b) Insulin
c) Prolactin
d) Ghrelin
b) Insulin
1) Over the past 40 years, the fat intake of Americans has:
a) significantly declined, resulting in less obesity.
b) declined as a proportion of total kcalories consumed.
c) declined as people tend to cook at home more frequently.
d) risen significantly.
b) declined as a proportion of total kcalories consumed.
2) Which of the following is FALSE about eating a healthy diet?
a) It is essential for most people to reduce total fat consumption by 25-50%.
b) A healthy diet is low in saturated fat from meat and dairy.
c) A healthy diet is low in processed fats like shortenings.
d) Healthy diets include fats from fish, nuts and olive oil.
a) It is essential for most people to reduce total fat consumption by 25-50%.
3) Most fatty acids in food and in the body are bound to a molecule called:
a) cholesterol.
b) phospholipids.
c) lecithin.
d) glycerol.
d) glycerol.
4) The end of a fatty acid chain containing a methyl group is also referred to as the __________ end.
a) omega
b) alpha
c) delta
d) acid
a) omega
5) Fatty acids are categorized based on the carbon chain length as well as:
a) the number of sulfur-containing groups.
b) their solubility in water.
c) the types and locations of bonds between the carbons.
d) the number of acid groups in the fatty acid chain.
c) the types and locations of bonds between the carbons.
6) A fatty acid with only single bonds between carbon atoms is called a(n) ________ fatty acid.
a) saturated
b) unsaturated
c) hydrophobic
d) hydrophilic
a) saturated
7) Foods consisting mostly of fatty acids with only single bonds tend to be:
a) solid at room temperature.
b) soluble in water.
c) liquid at room temperature.
d) less stable than fatty acids with double bonds.
a) solid at room temperature.
8) An omega-6 fatty acid is an example of a(n):
a) saturated fatty acid.
b) trans fatty acid formed by hydrogenation.
c) unsaturated fatty acid.
d) a fatty acid found in tropical oils.
c) unsaturated fatty acid.
9) Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are examples of:
a) polyunsaturated fatty acids.
b) saturated fatty acids.
c) hydrogenated fats.
d) phospholipids.
a) polyunsaturated fatty acids.
10) A(n) ___________ fatty acid has a carbon-carbon double bond with the hydrogen atoms on the same side of the double bond.
a) cis
b) trans
c) essential
d) nonessential
a) cis
11) __________ fatty acids are not synthesized by the body.
a) Nonessential
b) Saturated
c) Short chain
d) Essential
d) Essential
12) Essential fatty acids can be used by the body to synthesize:
a) eicosanoids.
b) cholesterol.
c) vitamin D.
d) phosphoglycerides.
a) eicosanoids.
13) Phospholipids consist of glycerol with __________ attached.
a) three fatty acids
b) three amino acids
c) two fatty acids and a phosphate group
d) two fatty acids and lecithin
c) two fatty acids and a phosphate group
14) __________ can help fat and water mix by breaking large fat globules into smaller ones.
a) Bile
b) Pancreatic lipase
c) Eicosanoids
d) Cholesterol
a) Bile
15) Which of the following is used as an emulsifier in foods?
a) Lecithin
b) Trans fatty acids
c) Arachidonic Acid
d) Safflower oil
a) Lecithin
16) Bile, vitamin D, and some hormones such as testosterone and estrogen are derived from:
a) essential fatty acids.
b) cholesterol.
c) trans fatty acids.
d) phospholipids.
b) cholesterol.
17) Dietary sources of cholesterol include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) meat.
b) eggs.
c) fish.
d) peanut butter.
d) peanut butter.
18) Which organ produces the lipase enzyme that accomplishes the bulk of lipid digestion?
a) Stomach
b) Pancreas
c) Mouth
d) Liver
b) Pancreas
19) The function of bile in triglyceride digestion is:
a) to hydrolyze (split) the bond that attaches fatty acids to glycerol.
b) to break fat into small globules.
c) facilitate the formation of chylomicrons.
d) to bind and transport lipids in the blood.
b) to break fat into small globules.
20) Which of the following is formed in the LUMEN of the small intestine during lipid digestion?
a) Micelles
b) Cis fatty acids
c) Chylomicrons
d) LDL particles
a) Micelles
21) If you were to analyze the composition of adipose tissue, you would likely find an abundance of:
a) micelles.
b) triglycerides.
c) eicosanoids.
d) cholesterol.
b) triglycerides.