Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
1) Which of the following is NOT considered a macronutrient?
a) Carbohydrate
b) Fat
c) Protein
d) Vitamins
A
d) Vitamins
2
Q
2) Physiologic processes take place in the body to keep body temperature, heart rate, and blood sugar relatively constant. This stable state is called:
a) anabolism.
b) catabolism.
c) homeostasis.
d) metabolism.
A
c) homeostasis.
3
Q
3) A processed food is defined as:
a) having more than five ingredients.
b) requiring heating or cooking before it can be eaten.
c) a food which has had preservatives added.
d) any food that has been changed from its natural state.
A
d) any food that has been changed from its natural state.
4
Q
4) Which of the following statements about the typical American diet is true?
a) Intake of whole grains is above the recommended level and less energy is consumed than expended.
b) Intake of whole grains is low and more energy is consumed than expended.
c) Intake of fiber is adequate and intake of fruits and vegetables is less than recommended.
d) Intake of fiber is low and fruit and vegetable intake is above recommended levels.
A
b) Intake of whole grains is low and more energy is consumed than expended.
5
Q
5) Where do most people in the U.S. get their nutrition information?
a) Dietitians
b) Mass media, i.e., television, magazines and newspapers
c) Physicians
d) Talk radio
A
b) Mass media, i.e., television, magazines and newspapers
6
Q
19) A substance found in plants which cannot be made by the body and is not necessary to sustain life, but has healthful benefits, is:
a) an herbal supplement.
b) a phytochemical.
c) an enzyme.
d) a zoochemical.
A
b) a phytochemical.
7
Q
20) Which of the following yields energy but is not considered a nutrient?
a) Alcohol
b) Carbohydrate
c) Fat
d) Protein
A
a) Alcohol
8
Q
21) The energy provided by foods is measured in:
a) BTUs.
b) kilocalories.
c) thermal equivalents.
d) watts.
A
b) kilocalories.
9
Q
22) Which of the following conditions does NOT represent a state of malnutrition?
a) Weight loss as a result of increasing physical activity.
b) Vitamin A toxicity as a result of excessive intake of vitamin supplements.
c) Osteoporosis as a result of long-term inadequate intake of calcium and vitamin D.
d) Overweight status as a result of regular ingestion of large portions of energy-dense foods.
A
a) Weight loss as a result of increasing physical activity.
10
Q
26) A measure of the nutrient content of a food compared to its energy content is referred to as
a) Healthy Food Index.
b) nutrient score.
c) dietary reference intake.
d) nutrient density.
A
d) nutrient density.
11
Q
30) Which of the following nutrients are NOT organic molecules?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Proteins
d) Minerals
A
d) Minerals
12
Q
35) Processed foods and convenience foods tend to ______ compared to freshly prepared foods.
a) provide more kcalories
b) contain fewer nutrients
c) be higher in fat, sugar, or salt
d) All of these statements are true
A
d) All of these statements are true
13
Q
36) Which of the following functions is performed by members of all six classes of nutrients?
a) Provide energy
b) Form structures
c) Regulate body processes
d) All of these functions are performed by each of the six classes of nutrients
A
c) Regulate body processes
14
Q
37) Under-nutrition does not include:
a) starvation reflecting a deficiency of energy.
b) eating too much saturated fat.
c) the deficient intake of single nutrients.
d) the inability to absorb a particular nutrient.
A
b) eating too much saturated fat.
15
Q
38) An adverse or toxic reaction is most likely to occur if:
a) an individual overuses vitamin and/or mineral supplements.
b) the individual cannot absorb nutrients efficiently.
c) the individual’s diet is not varied enough.
d) the individual overeats a particular food.
A
a) an individual overuses vitamin and/or mineral supplements.
16
Q
39) The recommendation to eat everything in “moderation” refers to:
a) including each food group in the diet.
b) including a variety of foods from within each food group.
c) selecting appropriate portion sizes.
d) varying the foods eaten from day to day, week to week and season to season.
A
c) selecting appropriate portion sizes.
17
Q
1) _________ are units of matter that cannot be further broken down by chemical means.
a) Organic compounds
b) Cells
c) Atoms
d) Solvents
A
c) Atoms
18
Q
2) Nutrients classified as “organic molecules” have a molecular structure which contains the element:
a) carbon.
b) oxygen.
c) nitrogen.
d) sulfur.
A
a) carbon.
19
Q
Which of the following is an energy-yielding nutrient?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Minerals
C. Vitamins
D. Water
E. All of the above are energy yielding
A
A. Carbohydrate
20
Q
Which class of nutrients is needed in larger quantities than all the rest?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Lipids
D. Water
A
D. Water
21
Q
A nutrient is essential if it:
A. must be consumed by the diet
B. cannot be made by the body
C. provides kcalories
D. both A&B
E. all the above
A
D. both A&B
22
Q
A substance in foods used by the body for energy, maintanence/growth of body structures, or regulation of chemical processes is known as a/an
A. functional foods
B. nutrient
C. organic compound
D. phytochemical
A
B. nutrient
23
Q
the leading causes of death in 1900 in the U.S. were ________; today the leading causes are _______.
A. autoimmune diseases; chronic diseases
B. chronic diseases; infectious diseases
C. infectious diseases; chronic diseases
D. infectious diseases; autoimmune diseases
A
C. infectious diseases; chronic diseases
24
Q
Minerals are classified as either:
A. simple or complex
B. organic or inorganic
C. essential or nonessential
D. major or trace
E. fat or water soluble
A
D. major or trace
25
**In the US, what fraction of the adult population is classified as having a "health" or "normal" weight?**
A. one-quater
B one third
C. one half
D. two thirds
B one third
26
6) The correct sequence of events in the scientific method is:
a) conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, form a theory, and make an observation.
b) develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, make an observation, and form a theory.
c) form a theory, conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, and make an observation.
d) make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory.
d) make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory.
27
8) Approximately 1000 college students were asked to keep a record of what supplemental vitamins they took and how many colds they had over the course of a year. The amount of vitamin C consumed was compared with the students’ incidences of colds. This is an example of a(an):
a) clinical trial.
b) epidemiological study.
c) intervention study.
d) laboratory study.
b) epidemiological study.
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9) Which of the following is the BEST reason to include a placebo in the experimental design of a human intervention trial?
a) The researchers do not know who is receiving an intervention and who is not.
b) Placebos reduce the cost of the study.
c) It helps prevent the expectations of the subjects from biasing the research.
d) It makes it possible to include a larger number of subjects in the experiment.
c) It helps prevent the expectations of the subjects from biasing the research.
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10) One group of individuals is asked to eat a diet high in fruits, vegetables and dairy foods while a second group of individuals is asked to eat a diet with lower amounts of fruits, vegetables and dairy foods. The two groups’ blood pressure readings are monitored and compared. This is an example of a(an):
a) case-control study.
b) epidemiological study.
c) intervention study.
d) laboratory study.
c) intervention study.
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11) Comparison of the amount of a particular nutrient consumed with the amount of the nutrient excreted is characteristic of a(an):
a) balance study.
b) collection study.
c) depletion-repletion study.
d) epidemiological study.
a) balance study.
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12) Which is NOT a true statement about nutritional studies using animals?
a) Animal studies can be more easily controlled than human studies.
b) The digestive system of some animals is quite different from humans, making these animals inappropriate choices for some studies.
c) The choice of the animal studied may influence the outcome of the study.
d) Results from animal studies can always be readily extrapolated to humans.
d) Results from animal studies can always be readily extrapolated to humans.
32
13) Which of the following describes a hypothesis?
a) A conclusion based on many studies with similar outcomes.
b) An idea based upon no observable phenomena.
c) A fact stated in a textbook.
d) An educated guess made to explain an observation.
d) An educated guess made to explain an observation.
33
17) One important principle of a healthy diet is to eat a variety of foods. In this context, “variety” refers to:
a) choosing at least one food from each food group on the Food Pyramid daily.
b) including low calorie food choices to balance high calorie foods at each meal.
c) choosing a variety of foods from within food groups as well as among food groups.
d) making sure portion sizes are matched to energy needs.
c) choosing a variety of foods from within food groups as well as among food groups.
34
1) Recommended Dietary Allowances were first published in which decade?
a) 1920s
b) 1940s
c) 1960s
d) 1980s
b) 1940s
35
23) What is true regarding the differences between a hypothesis and a theory?
a) A hypothesis is an educated guess and a theory is based on scientific study and reasoning.
b) Hypotheses are not tested; theories are tested.
c) Theories are the foundations of hypotheses.
d) A hypothesis is tested using quantifiable data; theories are tested using subjective data.
a) A hypothesis is an educated guess and a theory is based on scientific study and reasoning.
36
27) Researchers are interested in whether caffeine has any effect on short-term memory. A study is designed in which two groups of subjects are given capsules that look identical. Group A receives capsules containing caffeine and Group B receives capsules containing powdered sugar. Group B is being given a:
a) catalyst.
b) placebo.
c) stimulant.
d) simulation factor.
b) placebo.
37
29) The discipline which explores the relationship between genetic variation and nutrition is called:
a) nutrigenomics.
b) genetic nutritional variation.
c) nutritional genomic analysis.
d) nutrient gene factor identification.
a) nutrigenomics.
38
40) Nutrients are classified according to their chemical properties. What are the six classes of nutrients? Which are macronutrients? Which are micronutrients?
**_Macronutrients_** **_Micronutrients_**
Water Vitamins
Carbohydrates Minerals
Proteins
Fats
39
41) A serving of hot chocolate provides 5 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein and 28 grams of carbohydrate. How many kcalories are in the serving of hot chocolate?
5 X 9= 45
2 X 4= 8
28 X 4=112
**165 kCalories**
40
42) Americans are replacing more and more home cooked meals with meals from fast food restaurants. a) What are the nutritional impacts of this trend? b) How does this trend influence disease risk?
a) Larger portions increase energy intake beyond needs; tend to be higher in fat, sodium, and sugar.
b) Along with lack of physical activity, increases risk of chronic diseases such as diabetes, obesity, heart disease, and cancer.
41
43) Describe the three general functions of nutrients.
**Provide energy:** Carbohydrate, protein and lipids undergo biochemical reactions that provide energy for synthesis, basic body functions and physical activity
**Forming structures:** bones, muscles, cells are formed from protein, fats, minerals
**Regulating Body Processes:** all 6 classes of nutrients regulate various body processes and function to maintain homeostasis
42
47) Describe what is meant by the term control group and explain why a well designed experiment includes a control group.
A group of participants in a study who are treated the same as subjects in an experimental group, except that no experimental treatment is implemented. They would receive a placebo to control bias. A control group is used as a basis of comparison.
43
53) Mrs. Sandoz’ fourth grade class spent several class periods learning about nutrition. They learned about MyPyramid and how eating a healthy diet could benefit them. Mr. Danner’s fourth grade class, in the same building, did not have a unit on nutrition. After the nutrition unit was finished in Mrs. Sandoz’ class, researchers looked at the selections students made in the cafeteria and how much food was consumed and thrown away by each class to see if the nutrition education had an effect on the students’ eating habits.
a) What type of study was this?
b) Which classroom was the control classroom?
c) Which classroom was the experimental group?
d) What other factors affect students’ choice of food, besides what they know about health and food?
a) Case control/Clinical Trial
b) Mr. Danner’s
c) Mrs. Sandoz’s
d) Availability, Cultural and Family Background, Social Acceptability, Personal Preference, Psychological and Emotional Factors
44
54) What is epidemiology? Compare the type of information obtained from epidemiological studies to that obtained from human intervention studies.
Epidemiology observes the relationships between diet and health among population groups and identifies patterns or correlations among patterns and disease.
Human intervention studies test hypotheses that arise from epidemiological studies. Intervention studies use experiments to intervene in individual lives and test a hypothesis so that a theory may be developed.
45
2) Which is NOT a goal of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)?
a) Prescribing what a person should eat each day
b) Prevention of nutrient deficiencies
c) Promotion of healthful eating
d) Reduction of chronic diseases
a) Prescribing what a person should eat each day
46
3) The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group?
a) 33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 97-98%
d) 97-98%
47
4) The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for a selected nutrient would meet the needs of approximately what percentage of individuals in a population?
a) 33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 99%
b) 50%
48
5) Which is TRUE regarding Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs)?
a) For some groups, there is an established benefit of consuming nutrients at this level.
b) It is a not a recommended level for consumption.
c) Consuming nutrients at this level will probably cause adverse health effects.
d) The UL is set at the level of intake that causes adverse effects in 5% of the population .
b) It is a not a recommended level for consumption.
49
6) Which is the FALSE statement regarding RDAs?
a) RDAs recommend amounts of nutrients that can serve as a goal for individual intake.
b) The RDAs are one component of the DRIs.
c) The EARs are derived from the RDAs.
d) RDAs are often used in menu planning.
c) The EARs are derived from the RDAs.
50
7) Which would most likely be used to plan menus for a school breakfast and lunch program?
a) AIs
b) DRVs
c) RDAs
d) ULs
c) RDAs
51
8) Which is NOT included in the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
a) Limit your intake of saturated fat, cholesterol, and trans fat.
b) Limit consumption of foods containing refined grains and added sugars.
c) Exercise three times a week.
d) Balance calories to maintain weight.
c) Exercise three times a week.
52
9) The purpose of the AMDRs is to:
a) make recommendations for the proportions of fats, carbohydrates and proteins that make up a healthy diet.
b) inform people how to choose from all the different food groups.
c) allow individuals to calculate their energy needs and to determine how their diet meets these needs.
d) encourage individuals to make healthy food choices.
a) make recommendations for the proportions of fats, carbohydrates and proteins that make up a healthy diet.
53
10) The variables used to calculate Estimated Energy Requirements include:
a) age, BMI, weight and gender.
b) age, gender, weight, height, and physical activity level.
c) physical activity level, gender and BMI.
d) gender, age, weight, physical activity level and proportions of kcals consumed as fats.
b) age, gender, weight, height, and physical activity level.
54
11) Which is NOT a goal or objective of the Healthy People Initiative?
a) Eliminating health disparities among Americans
b) Decreasing prevalence of obesity among adults
c) Increasing the number of formula-fed infants in the U.S.
d) Reduction of deaths due to heart disease
c) Increasing the number of formula-fed infants in the U.S.
55
12) The nutritional analysis of a diet that follows The MyPlate recommendations would most closely resemble which DRI group?
a) EARs
b) RDAs
c) AIs
d) ULs
b) RDAs
56
13) Which is typically not found on a Nutrition Facts label?
a) Calories from fat
b) Calories per serving as compared to comparable products
c) Percent daily values for key nutrients
d) Serving size
b) Calories per serving as compared to comparable products
57
14) A healthy eating pattern emphasizes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) nutrient-dense foods.
b) medium amounts of high protein foods.
c) consuming more oils than solid fats.
d) eating 3 servings of foods containing refined grains per day.
d) eating 3 servings of foods containing refined grains per day.
58
15) Which is the FALSE statement regarding the MyPlate guidelines?
a) No matter your caloric requirements, MyPlate can be effectively used as a guide for eating.
b) MyPlate Daily Food Plan does NOT include recommendations for physical activity.
c) The amount of the plate covered by each food group is proportional to the amount each group should contribute to a healthy diet.
d) MyPlate emphasizes proportionality, variety, moderation and nutrient density.
b) MyPlate Daily Food Plan does NOT include recommendations for physical activity.
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16) How is the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label determined?
a) By contribution to total weight
b) By contribution to total volume
c) By nutrient density
d) In alphabetical order
a) By contribution to total weight
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17) Which of the following is NOT an authorized health claim associating intake with a health consequence?
a) Soluble fiber and coronary heart disease
b) Dietary fat and cancer risk
c) Sodium intake and blood pressure
d) Vitamin A intake and risk of cataracts
d) Vitamin A intake and risk of cataracts
61
19) A system that scores the average American diet is the:
a) Dietary Guidelines.
b) Food Guide Pyramid.
c) Exchange List.
d) Healthy Eating Index.
d) Healthy Eating Index.
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20) Which of the following methods is MOST likely to provide accurate information about what a person typically eats?
a) A computerized food frequency questionnaire
b) A 3-day food record that includes a weekend day kept by the individual
c) Analyzing all grocery store and restaurant receipts kept over a 60 day time period
d) A diet history that includes a 24 hour recall and a food frequency questionnaire
d) A diet history that includes a 24 hour recall and a food frequency questionnaire
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22) To manage weight and prevent unhealthy weight gain, the MyPlate guide recommends:
a) a minimum of 150 minutes of activity weekly.
b) 30 minutes most days of the week.
c) 60 minutes 3 days of the week.
d) 75-100 minutes of vigorous activity every 10 days.
a) a minimum of 150 minutes of activity weekly.
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24) Daily Values are based on a ___________ kcalorie diet.
a) 1000
b) 1500
c) 2000
d) 2500
c) 2000
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25) Which of the following statements about the assessment of food intake is FALSE?
a) Food frequency questionnaires do not give specific information about an individual’s food intake.
b) Food records are reliable but individuals may change their usual intake while recording his or her intake.
c) The most common error made in reporting food intake is to overestimate portion sizes.
d) Food intake records should include one weekend day for greatest accuracy.
c) The most common error made in reporting food intake is to overestimate portion sizes.
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26) Nutrition Facts labels include information about which vitamins?
a) A & C
b) A & E
c) A & D
d) C & D
a) A & C
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27) Nutrition Facts labels contain information about which minerals?
a) Calcium and iron
b) Calcium and zinc
c) Iron and magnesium
d) Iron and zinc
a) Calcium and iron
68
28) The descriptor, Healthy, can legally be used on a food product when the product contains adequate levels of at least one selected nutrient and is low in:
a) fat, saturated fat, sodium, and cholesterol.
b) fat, fiber and protein.
c) fat, sugar and cholesterol.
d) fat, sodium and protein.
a) fat, saturated fat, sodium, and cholesterol.
69
30) Which of the following is true regarding the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010?
a) Recommendations are made for specific amounts of individual nutrients.
b) The DGA 2010 is based on the DRIs.
c) They are intended to promote health and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity and the risk of chronic disease.
d) These recommendations are designed for Americans 19 years and older.
c) They are intended to promote health and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity and the risk of chronic disease
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31) ____________ are used when not enough information is available to establish an EAR for a particular nutrient.
a) AIs
b) DRIs
c) RDAs
d) ULs
a) AIs
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32) The three main categories in the Exchange List are carbohydrate, meat and meat substitutes, and:
a) protein.
b) fiber.
c) fruits & vegetables.
d) fat.
d) fat.
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37) Using dietary information provided by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_would be the most practical approach to evaluate your own diet.
a) Exchange Lists
b) Dietary Guidelines for Americans
c) DRVs
d) MyPlate
d) MyPlate
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38) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels are most likely to be exceeded when:
a) large quantities of food are consumed by highly trained athletes.
b) people are recovering from surgery and need more kcalories.
c) dietary supplements are taken.
d) people eat meat from wild game animals.
c) dietary supplements are taken.
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33) Computer software can be used to analyze diets. The most appropriate time to use a nutrition analysis program would be when:
a) checking for a clinical symptom of nutritional deficiency.
b) you wanted to know how many third graders in a classroom ate breakfast.
c) comparing the planned menu for children in an elementary school to the RDAs.
d) determining the estimated energy requirements of senior citizens.
c) comparing the planned menu for children in an elementary school to the RDAs.
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34) Which health claim on a food label is NOT allowed?
a) Diets low in fat and rich in fruits and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer.
b) Diets rich in vitamin C will reduce the incidence of colds and flu.
c) Adequate calcium intake throughout life helps maintain bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
d) Diets high in sodium may increase the risk of high blood pressure in some people.
b) Diets rich in vitamin C will reduce the incidence of colds and flu.
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35) Food Disappearance Surveys are used to identify:
a) general trends in food intake among a population.
b) processing losses.
c) at-risk groups in the population.
d) marketing trends.
a) general trends in food intake among a population.
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36) A complete nutritional assessment would include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) laboratory measurements.
b) past and present dietary intake information.
c) setting nutritional goals.
d) anthropometric measurements.
c) setting nutritional goals.
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39) Which statement regarding foods selected in a restaurant is FALSE?
a) A menu item labeled “low fat” must meet the same criteria as a packaged product with a “low fat” label.
b) Nutrient claims about menu items must be backed up with appropriate nutrition information.
c) A restaurant cannot make a health claim on its menu.
d) Restaurants are not required to have food labels unless the establishment has 20 or more locations.
c) A restaurant cannot make a health claim on its menu.
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40) Analysis of blood can be used to determine:
a) what someone ate the previous day.
b) glucose and cholesterol levels.
c) an individual’s overall nutritional status.
d) bone mineral density.
b) glucose and cholesterol levels.
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41) Which of the following is true regarding “qualified” health claims?
a) They result from significant scientific agreement.
b) They must be accompanied by a statement of explanation.
c) Their use on food labels does not require FDA approval.
d) They can only be used on dietary supplements.
b) They must be accompanied by a statement of explanation.
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43) Which statement about dietary supplements is true?
a) The label must include all the ingredients in the dietary supplement.
b) All dietary supplements are produced according to the same strict laws that govern drug manufacturing.
c) All dietary supplements must be approved by the FDA to ensure safety and effectiveness.
d) Dietary supplements cannot be removed from the market once they are introduced.
a) The label must include all the ingredients in the dietary supplement.
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44) Which of the following statements is true about the Daily Values standards?
a) DVs help consumers know if a food is a good source of a particular nutrient.
b) A DV of 5% or less on a food label indicates that the food is low in that nutrient.
c) The DVs may overestimate nutrient needs for some populations but they would never underestimate the requirements for any group.
d) All of these statements are true.
d) All of these statements are true.
83
45) Which statement about proportionality is true?
a) Proportionality means we need to eat more of some types of foods than others.
b) Proportionality is represented by the area covered on the MyPlate logo.
c) Proportionality indicates that grains, vegetables, fruits and dairy are the groups from which to eat the most foods.
d) All of these statements are true.
d) All of these statements are true.
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46) The recommendation of moderation in healthy diets:
a) means limiting portion sizes and choosing nutrient-dense foods.
b) means choosing nutrient dense foods as often as energy-dense foods.
c) relates to consuming moderate amounts of complex carbohydrates.
d) All of these statements are true.
a) means limiting portion sizes and choosing nutrient-dense foods.
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47) Empty calories are:
a) from added sugars and/or solid fats.
b) contributed by junk foods and are completely banned in a healthy diet.
c) suggested to be limited to ≤ 50% of the kcals in a healthy diet.
d) the kcals consumed when an eating plan other than MyPlate is followed.
a) from added sugars and/or solid fats.
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48) Which of the following is true of structure/function claims?
a) FDA approval is required.
b) They do NOT have to be accompanied by a disclaimer.
c) Some describe a benefit in relation to a nutrient-deficiency disease.
d) Common examples are “high fiber and “fat free”.
c) Some describe a benefit in relation to a nutrient-deficiency disease.
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49) The amount of a nutrient estimated to meet the needs of 50% of people in the same gender and life stage group is the:
a) EAR.
b) RAE.
c) AI.
d) RDA.
a) EAR.
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50) Which of the following is FALSE concerning the MyPlate web site?
a) The tools on the web site are only applicable to a 2000 kcal dietary requirement.
b) Nutrition information can be personalized for individuals.
c) The website allows individuals to analyze their diets for energy and nutrient intake.
d) The website is of little use to those Americans without internet access.
a) The tools on the web site are only applicable to a 2000 kcal dietary requirement.
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51) How would donuts be categorized in the MyPlate food plan?
a) Grains & dairy
b) Protein & grains
c) Grains & empty calories
d) Empty calories & vegetables
c) Grains & empty calories
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52) The MyPlate plan separates foods into groups to help Americans apply the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines to their individual diets. These groups are:
a) milk, meat, grains, fruits & vegetables and legumes.
b) meat, milk, beans & nuts, grains and fruits & vegetables.
c) fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods and dairy.
d) grains, vegetables, fruits, dairy and meat, beans & nuts.
c) fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods and dairy.
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53) On the MyPlate guide, oils are:
a) listed in the fat group.
b) included and recommendations are given in teaspoons.
c) not given specific consideration.
d) considered empty calories.
b) included and recommendations are given in teaspoons.
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54) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010 considers all of the following healthy eating patterns EXCEPT:
a) USDA Food Patterns.
b) the Asian Cultural Food Consumption Program.
c) Mediterranean-style eating pattern.
d) the DASH Eating Plan.
b) the Asian Cultural Food Consumption Program.
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4) The movement of food through the digestive tract is regulated by:
a) the endocrine and nervous systems.
b) the lymphatic and muscular systems.
c) the respiratory and urinary systems.
d) the cardiovascular system.
a) the endocrine and nervous systems.
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5) The most important roles of the digestive system include digestion and:
a) metabolism.
b) absorption.
c) circulation.
d) excretion.
b) absorption.
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3) Which of the following sequences is organized from the simplest to the most complex arrangement?
a) atoms : molecules : tissues : organs
b) molecules : tissues : atoms : organs
c) tissues: atoms : molecules : organs
d) atoms : organs : tissues : molecules
a) atoms : molecules : tissues : organs
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6) The internal lining of the gastrointestinal tract is the:
a) submucosa.
b) serosa.
c) muscularis.
d) mucosa.
d) mucosa.
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7) The digestive tract begins at the _________ and ends at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a) esophagus; small intestine
b) mouth; transverse colon
c) esophageal sphincter; pylorus
d) mouth; anus
d) mouth; anus
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8) Transit time is the rate at which food:
a) moves through the digestive tract.
b) is swallowed.
c) is absorbed into the blood.
d) is broken down into chyme.
a) moves through the digestive tract.
99
9) Which of the following is NOT a product released by the GI tract?
a) Mucus
b) Enzymes
c) Chyme
d) Hormones
c) Chyme
100
10) Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a) Liver
b) Pancreas
c) Salivary glands
d) Kidney
d) Kidney
101
11) Chewing is an important digestive function because it improves the functionality of:
a) enzymes.
b) hormones.
c) mucus.
d) peristalsis.
a) enzymes.
102
12) What enzyme prevents bacterial growth in the mouth?
a) Amylase
b) Lysozyme
c) Bacteriocidase
d) Lipase
b) Lysozyme
103
13) Which structure prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea?
a) Tongue
b) Pharynx
c) Esophageal sphincter
d) Epiglottis
d) Epiglottis
104
14) The pharynx is a cavity shared by the digestive tract and the:
a) urinary tract.
b) respiratory tract.
c) pancreatic duct.
d) common bile duct.
b) respiratory tract.
105
15) Coordinated muscular contractions that move food through the GI tract are called:
a) segmentation.
b) muscular syncopation.
c) gastroesophageal sphincterization.
d) peristalsis.
d) peristalsis.
106
16) When the gastroesophageal sphincter contracts, food:
a) flows from the esophagus into the stomach.
b) is prevented from reentering the esophagus from the stomach.
c) leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine.
d) is eliminated from the body through the anus.
b) is prevented from reentering the esophagus from the stomach.
107
17) Which of the following is NOT true of the stomach?
a) It produces pepsinogen.
b) Parietal cells in gastric pits produce hydrochloric acid.
c) The main function is absorption.
d) It has 3 layers of smooth muscle.
c) The main function is absorption.
108
18) The formation of chyme occurs in which part of the GI tract?
a) Small intestine
b) Large intestine
c) Gallbladder
d) Stomach
d) Stomach
109
19) Activity in the digestive tract begins in response to the sight and smell of food. This is referred to as the _________ response.
a) cephalic
b) gastric
c) intestinal
d) cognitive
a) cephalic
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20) The hormone gastrin is released in response to:
a) the presence of food in the stomach.
b) contraction of the gastroesophageal sphincter.
c) relaxation of the anal sphincter.
d) the presence of the bacteria Helicobacter pylori in the stomach.
a) the presence of food in the stomach.
111
21) The stomach wall is protected from the acidity of the gastric juice by:
a) the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.
b) a viscous mucus layer.
c) the action of gastrin.
d) pancreatic secretions.
b) a viscous mucus layer.
112
22) Which of the following is most likely to inhibit gastric secretion and motility?
a) The sight and smell of food
b) The release of gastrin from the stomach
c) The passage of chyme into the small intestine
d) The release of bile from the gallbladder
c) The passage of chyme into the small intestine
113
23) The sphincter that regulates the flow of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine is the __________ sphincter.
a) gastroesophageal
b) celiac
c) anal
d) pyloric
d) pyloric
114
24) Which of the following meals is likely to stay in the stomach the longest?
a) Cheeseburger, small French fries, small soft drink, ice cream
b) Grilled chicken breast, mashed potato with butter, green beans, skim milk
c) Tuna sandwich on whole wheat, pickle, ice tea
d) Rice Krispies, skim milk, blueberries, coffee
a) Cheeseburger, small French fries, small soft drink, ice cream
115
25) Stomach emptying is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) the nutrient composition of a meal.
b) the time of day the meal is consumed.
c) the meal consistency (liquid versus solid).
d) emotional states (sadness, anger, stress).
b) the time of day the meal is consumed.
116
26) Which of the following accessory organs releases its secretions into the GI tract?
a) Gallbladder
b) Pancreas
c) Salivary glands
d) All of these are correct
d) All of these are correct
117
27) Pancreas secretions contain digestive enzymes and:
a) bicarbonate ions.
b) bile.
c) cholecystokinin (CCK).
d) chyme.
d) chyme.
118
28) Chyme is neutralized in the small intestine by secretions from the:
a) gallbladder.
b) kidneys.
c) liver.
d) pancreas.
d) pancreas.
119
29) The release of bile and pancreatic enzymes into the small intestine is controlled by:
a) secretin and CCK.
b) stimulation of stretch receptors in the stomach.
c) gastrin.
d) salivary amylase.
a) secretin and CCK.
120
30) The primary site of nutrient absorption is the:
a) liver.
b) large intestine.
c) stomach.
d) small intestine.
d) small intestine.
121
31) The absorption of nutrients by simple diffusion requires:
a) a carrier molecule.
b) energy.
c) a concentration gradient.
d) All of these choices are correct
c) a concentration gradient.
122
32) Which of the following digestive organs is lined with fingerlike projections called villi?
a) Esophagus
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine
c) Small intestine
123
33) The absorptive surface of the small intestine is increased by the presence of:
a) sphincters.
b) microvilli.
c) enterocytes.
d) gastric pits.
b) microvilli.
124
34) Which of the following structures is located past (beyond) the ileocecal valve?
a) Colon
b) Common bile duct
c) Stomach
d) Pharynx
a) Colon
125
35) The primary function of the large intestine is to:
a) prepare and store unabsorbed food residue for excretion.
b) absorb digested nutrients.
c) neutralize chyme.
d) All of these choices are correct.
a) prepare and store unabsorbed food residue for excretion.
126
36) A diseased gallbladder can interfere with:
a) chyme formation.
b) the ability to chew.
c) the ability to regulate blood glucose levels.
d) fat digestion.
d) fat digestion.
127
37) “Heartburn” is typically:
a) caused by acidic stomach contents leaking back through the pyloric sphincter.
b) more common in men and those who are underweight.
c) caused when the stomach bulges through the diaphragm.
d) All of the choices are true.
a) caused by acidic stomach contents leaking back through the pyloric sphincter.
128
38) The most common cause of ulcers is:
a) chronic use of the pain reliever Tylenol.
b) eating large amounts of acidic foods such as peppers and tomatoes.
c) a bacterial infection.
d) stress.
c) a bacterial infection.
129
39) Inflammation of the small intestinal mucosa reduces the ability of the intestine to absorb water or nutrients causing:
a) constipation.
b) diarrhea.
c) gastroesophageal reflux disease.
d) gallstones.
b) diarrhea.
130
40) Which statement about Helicobacter pylori is true?
a) These microorganisms are killed by the low pH of the stomach secretions.
b) Dr. B. J. Marshall developed gastric inflammation after he drank a culture of H. pylori.
c) H. pylori causes irritable bowel syndrome.
d) H. pylori only causes ulcers if the stomach is already inflamed from stress.
b) Dr. B. J. Marshall developed gastric inflammation after he drank a culture of H. pylori.
131
41) ___________ is when all essential nutrients are given directly into the blood stream.
a) Enteral feeding
b) Tube feeding
c) Total parenteral nutrition
d) Force feeding
c) Total parenteral nutrition
132
42) During \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the digestive system can absorb whole intact proteins.
a) infancy
b) aging adulthood
c) adulthood
d) childhood
a) infancy
133
43) Which nutrient(s) are absorbed into the lymphatic system before entering the blood?
a) Fat
b) Water
c) Water-soluble vitamins
d) Glucose
a) Fat
134
44) After water soluble nutrients are absorbed in the intestine, they are carried to the __________ via the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a) kidneys; capillaries
b) liver; hepatic portal vein
c) gall bladder; bile duct
d) pancreas; lacteals
b) liver; hepatic portal vein
135
45) The hepatic portal circulation carries nutrients from the small intestine to the:
a) brain.
b) kidneys.
c) stomach.
d) liver.
d) liver.
136
46) The _____________ regulates the movement of molecules in and out of cells.
a) cytoplasm
b) mitochondria
c) cell membrane
d) cell wall
c) cell membrane
137
47) The sum of the chemical reactions that occur inside body cells is collectively referred to as:
a) digestion.
b) absorption.
c) metabolism.
d) hydrolysis.
c) metabolism.
138
52) ________ are protein molecules that accelerate the rate of chemical reactions.
a) Hormones
b) Chylomicrons
c) Enzymes
d) Buffers
c) Enzymes
139
53) The function of sphincters in the digestive tract is:
a) to coordinate muscular contractions that propel food forward.
b) to regulate the flow of food.
c) to control the release of bile.
d) to regulate enzymatic reactions.
b) to regulate the flow of food.
140
54) As chyme moves out of the stomach, it passes through the:
a) gastroesophageal sphincter.
b) cecum.
c) pyloric sphincter.
d) cardiac sphincter.
c) pyloric sphincter.
141
55) Probiotics are:
a) an example of total parenteral nutrition.
b) substances that promote the growth of beneficial intestinal bacteria.
c) are used to prevent bacterial overgrowth in the stomach.
d) beneficial bacteria added to foods.
d) beneficial bacteria added to foods.
142
56) The end-products of carbohydrate catabolism includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) water.
b) carbon dioxide.
c) energy (ATP).
d) urea.
d) urea.
