Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

True/False: The Costal Cage provides the bony framework for protection of organs and vessels.

Ribs provide the structural integrity for respiration, but multiple rib fractures can lead to loss of rib function.

A

True

*paradoxical movement during lung inflation and deflation

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2
Q

Expansion of the costal cage during inhalation leads to _____ pressure within the thorax. This pulls in air, lymph, and venous drainage into the thoracic cavity and enhances flow.

A

Negative pressure

*sympathetic chain ganglia run along costovertebral joints – stimulated by motion

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3
Q
  1. True ribs are ribs ______. THey articulate directly to the sternum via the costal cartilage.
  2. False ribs are ribs _____. They articulate indirectly via the cartilage of the superior rib. They share costal cartilage.
  3. Floating ribs _____. have no connection to the sternum.
A
  1. True ribs
    - -synovial (except R1)
  2. False ribs
    - -synovial joint
  3. Floating ribs
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4
Q

The Costovertebral joint is formed by the head of the rib. The head has two articular facets:

  1. Superior costal facet which articulates with ______
  2. Inferior facet which articulates with
A
  1. Superior costal
    - -articulates with vertebrae above
  2. Inferior facet
    - -articulates with numerically corresponding vertebrae
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5
Q
  1. The ______ make up the most prominent posterior portion of the rib
  2. The ____ is not located on the 1st or 12th rib. It is short on the 2nd and shallow on the 11th.
A
  1. rib angles
  2. Costal groove
    * vein, artery, nerve
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6
Q

Atypical ribs are

A

1, 2, 10, 11, 12

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7
Q

Typical ribs have a head (w/ 2 articular facets), neck, tubercle, angle and shaft. List the typical ribs

A

All but 1, 2, 10, 11, 12

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8
Q

The shortest rib. It has a site for attachment of the anterior and middle scalenes. It is atypical because it only articulates with T1 and lacks an angle or a groove

A

Rib 1

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9
Q

Is a small atypical rib that has attachment sites for Serratus and Posterior scalene.

It has a large tuberosity on the shaft for the serratus anterior, but no non-articular tuburcle

A

Rib 2

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10
Q

________ is caused by Cervical Rib/Spasm of scalenus anterior muscle that compresses the subclavian artery and brachial plexus leading to ischemia and nerve pressure symptoms of the upper limb

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

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11
Q
  1. Rib 10 articulates only with _____
  2. Rib 11 has a single articular facet, but no ____ and no ____
  3. Rib 12 has a single articular facet with no neck, no tubercle, no angle, and no costal groove. It is tapered.
A
  1. T10

2. no neck, no tubercle

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12
Q

True/False: The ribs protect the organs, provide attachment sites for respiratory muscles, and support postural mechanics.

They are connected to the upper extremity by the clavicle

A

True

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13
Q

Most commonly caused by trauma (e.g. motor vehicle accidents, assault, sports, CPR, etc.)

Clinical presentation includes focal tenderness, crepitus and ecchymosis.

A

Rib fracture

*cancer, stress fractures

Complications:
–pneumothorax, flail chest, pneumonia, etc.

NOTE: start w/ X-ray; CT is gold standard

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14
Q

Inhalation involves the External Intercostals, Interchondral intercostals, and what accessory muscles?

A
  1. sternocleidomastoid
    - -elevates sternum
  2. Scalenes
    - -elevate upper ribs

*diaphragm: descends; elevates lower ribs

Pec minor
Serratus ant.
Latissimus dorsi

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15
Q

Exhalation occurs by passive recoil. However, forced expiration occurs by what muscles?

A

extrachondral internal intercostals and abdominals

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16
Q

The Diaphragm is the musculotendinous boundary between the negative pressure thoracic cavity and the positive pressure abdominal cavity.

It is innervated and supplied by

A
Phrenic nerve (C3-C5)
Phrenic artery

*attaches to lower 6 ribs

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17
Q

Principle muscles of inhalation They originate on ribs 1-11 but insert on ribs 2-12.

They are responsible for elevation of the ribs and bending them open (expanding transverse dimensions of the thoracic cavity).

A

External Intercostals (elevate ribs; enlarge rib cage) and Intercatilaginous portion of Internal Intercostals (elevate ribs)

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18
Q

The diaphragm is divided intoperipheral andcentral attachments.

There are 3 Peripheral Attachments:

  1. Lumbar vertebrae and arcuate ligaments.
  2. ______ of ribs 7-12.
  3. _____ of the sternum.
A
  1. Costal cartilages of ribs 7-12

3. Xiphoid process

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19
Q

The Central attachments of the diaphragm are the R and L crura which arise from L1-L3 and their IVD’s.

The muscle fibers of the diaphragm combine to form a ______

A

central tendon

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20
Q

Accessory muscles involved in inhalation include the Scalenes and Sternocleidomastoid.

The Scalenes originate from C2-7 and insert on ribs ______.

The SCM originates on the manubrium and medial clavicle. It inserts onto the mastoid process and aids in ____

A

Scalenes: Ribs 1 and 2

SCM:
–insert: mastoid process
–lifts/elevates sternum
in addition to head sidebending towards/rotating away

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21
Q

Accessory muscles involved in inhalation include the Pectoralis Minor and Serratus Anterior

  1. The Pec minor originates on ribs ______ and inserts on the coracoid process. It acts to stabilize the scapula and rases ribs in inspiration.
  2. The serratus anterior originates on ribs ____. It inserts on the ant. medial border of the scapula. It functions to pull the scapula forward as well as lift ribs (when the shoulder girdle is fixed)
A

Pec minor: ribs 3-5

  • -stabilize scapula
  • -raises ribs in inspiration

Serratus anterior: ribs 1-9

  • -pull scapula forward
  • -lift ribs (girdle is fixed)
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22
Q

This is an accessory muscle to inhalation.

It originates at T7-L5, the Iliac crest and on Ribs 8-12.

It inserts on the floor of bicipital groove of humerus after spiraling around teres major

It functions in: extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm, but its Costal attachment helps with deep inspiration.

A

Latissimus dorsi

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23
Q

True/False: Exhalation is usually quiet and passive. However, in active (forced exhalation) it involves the extrachondral internal intercostals and abdominal muscles.

A

True

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24
Q

During inhalation, the diameter increases in both the AP and transverse plane.

Anteriorly, there is upward motion of the _____ and _____. Posteriorly, there is caudal motion of the _____, and Laterally, there is upward and lateral motion of the ribs.

A
  1. Anterior
    - -upward motion of ribs and sternum
  2. POsterior
    - -caudal motion of ribs
  3. Laterally:
    - -upward and lateral rib motion
  • extension of spine
  • external rotation of extremities
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25
Q

During exhalation, there is decreased diameter of the AP and transverse plane.

Anteriorly, there is _____ motion of the sternum and ribs. Posteriorly, there is ____ motion of the ribs. Laterally, there is downard and medial motion of the ribs.

A
  1. Anterior
    - -downward motion
  2. Posterior
    - -upward motion
  3. Lateral
    - -downward and medial
  • Flexion of spine
  • Internal rotation of extremities
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26
Q

Pump Motion ribs are associated with _____ motion. They increase the A-P diameter and are dominant in the ____ ribs.

A

Anterior motion

  • dominant in upper ribs 1-5
  • palpated on ant. chest wall
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27
Q

Bucket motion ribs are associated with ____ motion. They increase transverse dimension and are dominant in _____ ribs.

A

Lateral motion

  • lower ribs 6-10
  • palpate on lateral chest wall
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28
Q

Ribs 11-12 are referred to as Caliper ribs. They have unique motion along a horizontal plane.

They are involved in _____ articulation only because they are single faceted with no tubercle, angle or groove

A

Costovertebral articulation only

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29
Q

When diagnosis Ribs, take into account

a. sources of chest pain (cardiac, GI)
b. review musculoskeletal syndromes
c. check vitals, history, physical
d. fix thoracics first

A

Answer: all of the above

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30
Q

Musculoskeletal chest pain is insidious, persistent and exacerbated by breathing and motion. It is NOT associated with systemic signs.

True/False: Attempting to reproduce the patients pain will be informative regarding diagnosis.

A

True

**Table Slide 36
Costal Cage Mechanics

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31
Q

Screening ribs steps:

  1. General inhalation/exhalation motion
  2. Check for tissue texture changes and tenderness
  3. Assess statically and dynamically
  4. Compare sides and look for asymmetry
    - —–Anterior, superior, inferior, lateral
  5. Segmentally test each rib while they take deep breaths – Try to assess which ribs are not moving fully into inhalation or exhalation.
A

Finger placement:

  1. Rib 1
    - –Fingers placed supraclavicular fossa
    - –May need to move traps out of way
  2. Ribs 2-5 - pump
    - –Mid clavicular line
    - –Along superior anterior aspect of rib
  3. Ribs 6-10 - bucket
    - –Mid axillary line
    - –Along lateral aspect of rib.
  4. Ribs 11-12 – caliper
    - –Patient prone
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32
Q

An_______ rib is caught in inhaled position (stuck up). It looks higher (anterior/lateral/cephalad) than the other side.

As the patient inhales, the rib may move superiorly, laterally or anteriorly, but as they exhale the rib will not go down as well.

A

Inhaled rib

  • may be predominately pump rib (anterior) or bucket rib
  • not spring as easily

Name: Side that is inhaled and Rib #’s
(e.g. Ribs 1-4 inhaled on Left)

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33
Q

The key rib for Inhalation dysfunctions is the ______ rib. The interspace below will be wider. The key rib must be treated first

*common to find group inhalation on the left

A

Bottom RIb

*BITE
(Bottom, Inhaled)

DX: Trace ribs down until find rib w/ normal exhalation. The rib just above that is the key rib

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34
Q

An ______ rib is caught in exhaled position (down; caudad, medial and posterior).

The rib will enter easily into exhalation, but will not move into inhalation.

A

Exhaled rib

  • spring easily
  • pump or bucket

Name: Side that cannot come into full inhalation; Exhaled dysfunction (e.g. Ribs 3-6 exhaled on the right)

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35
Q

Indications for Cervical Manipulation include:

a. pain & stiffness in neck
torticollis
b. tension headache
c. pseudomigraine
d. dizziness/vertigo symptoms
e. symptoms in upper extremity
flexion/extension injury (whiplash)
f. Viscerosomatic reflexes from chronic head, neck, nose, sinuses or throat inflammation
A

Answer: All of the above

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36
Q

Typical Cervical Vertebrae are C3-C7.

Which of the following are features of typical cervical vertebrae?

a. No typical transverse processes (ant/post. tubercles)
b. transverse foramen for vertebral artery (C2-C6)
c. grooving of transverse process for cervical nerves

A

Answer: all of the above

  • articular pillars b/t superior and inferior articular facets
  • bifid spinous process
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37
Q

C2-7 articulations include:

a. synovial joints
b. articular pillars
c. superior articular facets that face up and back
d. 45 degree orientation (to transverse plane)
e. lack transverse processes

A

Answer: A-D

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38
Q

______ joints are found in the cervical region (posterior/lateral) corner of the vertebral body.

They act as guide rails for flexion-extension, and limit lateral translatory motion.

A

Uncovertebral joints (Luschka)

  • Uncal processes elevate in childhood
  • Joint develops secondarily (age 8-10)
  • Initially functional advantage preventing disk herniation
  • Later may be site for degeneration
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39
Q

Typical Cervical Mechanics Follow Type _____ Mechanics: non-neutral.

*Use lateral translation

A

Type II

  • flexion/extension
  • sidebending and rotation = same side

C2-C4: rotation
C5-C7: sidebending

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40
Q

Flexed Cervical Dysfunction:

Name the dysfunction for what it WILL do.

If it cannot extend or translate to the right, but CAN flex and translate to the left, then what is the dysfunction?

A

FSrRr

Tx: What it won’t do (Sidebend Left; Rotate Left)

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41
Q

For cervicals (C2-7), translation to the Left induces _____ sidebending. Translation to the right induces _____ sidebending.

A

Left translation: Right sidebending

Right translation: Left sidebending

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42
Q

Desribe screening of Cervical Spine

A
  1. Screen for restriction (via translation) in neutral at each segment by palpating the articular pillars
  2. Semi flex the patient’s neck and screen
  3. Repeat with the neck extended
  4. Give positional diagnosis

Ex: If dec. Left translation in Flexion, then it is Extended, SLRL (because it can translate to the right; Extension)

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43
Q

Describe Tx of the Cervicals

A
  1. Flex or Extend the head until the motion is felt at the segment
  2. Sidebend and rotate in the same direction to the barrier (patient pushes against hand)
  3. Repeat 3-5 times
  4. Re-check

*Do not lift patients head off the table (let chin drop to chest)

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44
Q

An extended dysfunction of the Cervicals means that the patient does not like to go into ______.

Treatment will involve what it won’t do.

A

Flexion

*prefers to stay in extension

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45
Q

When screening cervicals, How would you diagnose and treat a patient who fails to go into flexion and has difficulty translating to the right?

A

DX: ESRr

*they translate to the Left with ease, so SRr

Tx: FSRl

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46
Q

Atypical cervicals include

  1. C1 (atlas) - ring like, kidney shaped bone lacking a spinous process or body
  2. C2 (axis) - odontoid process (dens) that projects superiorly from the body.

The Atlanto-axial (AA) joint refers to 4 articulations between C1 and C2. What are these articulations?

A
  • 2 lateral AA joints
  • 2 median AA joints
  • Inferior atlas facets are convex
  • superior articular facets of axis are slightly convex
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47
Q

AA motion is primarily ______. Rotation and sidebending occur in the ______ directions.

50-60% of neck rotation occurs at the AA. Atlas rotates on the axis with pivot around the dens.

A

Primarily Rotation
Rotation and Sidebending occur in Opposite directions

NOTE: movement other than rotation is limited by anteriorly located odontoid process (dens) of axis

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48
Q

Describe Evaluation of the AA joint

A
  1. Flex cervical spine to 45 degrees
  2. Rotate head to left and right
  3. Assess Range of Motion and freedom or resistance
    (compare degree of restriction)
  4. Name by the direction it WILL go
    (e. g. If it WILL rotate right, but NOTE Left: AA Rotated Right)
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49
Q

Describe Treatment of AA joint

A
  1. Restrict motion of C2-7 by flexing patient’s neck at least 45 degrees
  2. Rotate patient’s head to the barrier
  3. Perform ME by having the patient rotate their head back to the midline (3-5 times)
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50
Q

Atlanto-axial subluxation: Caution must be taken for HVLA with patient suffering from what ailments?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis or Down’s syndrome

*weakness of AA ligaments

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51
Q

The Occipito-atlantal joint (OA) joint articulates between the superior articular facets of the atlas and the 2 occipital condyles. THe joint is spherical, gliding on articular surfaces of the atlas.

Describe movment of the condyles to the facets

A

condyles: convex, diverge posterior

articular facets: concave

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52
Q

Primary motion of the OA joint is ______. It involves occipital motion on the atlas that is limited by muscular and ligamentous attachments.

Small amounts of sidebending and rotation may occur. This happens in ____ directions.

A

Primary motion: Nodding (flexion/extension)
Limited motion: 20-25 degrees (flexion/extension); 8 degrees lateral bending/side bending

Sidebending and rotation: OPPOSITE directions (Type I)

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53
Q

Evaluation of the OA involves palpation of cervical tissue over the OA in the suboccipital region (looking for TART).

Describe OA evaluation.

Remember: TYPE I MECHANICS (sidebending and rotation are OPPOSITE)

A
  1. Lie patient supine, physician forearms resting on table
  2. Screen for restriction w/ OA in neutral. Cradle head in hands (palms at base of occiput)
  3. Translate the OA in neutral
  4. Semi-flex patient’s neck and test w/ translation
  5. Repeat w/ extension
  6. Give positional diagnosis
    (e. g. If OA does NOT translate Left, and is worse in Flexion – It translates Right and is thus: ESLRr)

NOTE: slide fingers downward from the Inion to suboccipital region, then laterally to sulcus

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54
Q

If the OA does NOT translate Left and is WORSE in FLEXION, what is the DX?

A

Extended, Sidebent L, Rotate R

*TYPE I

TX: Flexed, Sidebent R, Rotate L

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55
Q

Describe Tx of the OA joint if the Patient is Dx: OA FSrRl

A

Tx: ESlRr

  1. Position the patients head at the restrictive barrier
    (localize motion to the segment being treated)
  2. Apply a counterforce with opposite hand to create gentle isometric contraction
  3. After 1-2 seconds relaxation, take up the slack in all 3 directions
  4. Perform muscle energy 3-5 times
  5. Re-check
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56
Q

OA motion:

  1. Flexion of the occiput on the atlas results in _____ glide of occiput on atlantal facets.
  2. Extension of the occiput on the atlas results in _____ glide of the occiput on the atlantal facets
  3. Rotation/Sidebending results in the Left occipital condyle sliding _____ and the right occipital condyle sliding ____
A
  1. anterior glide of occiput on atlantal facets
  2. posterior glide of occiput on atlantal facets
  3. Left occipital condyle slide uphill (superior/posteriorly)
  4. Right occipital condyle slides downhill (inferiorly/anteriorly)
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57
Q

The complex of the OA and AA is known as the suboccipital articulation.

THe range of motion makes it function as a universal ____ joint. It is considered the final compensator of the spine by which the body adjusts to dysfunctions below.

A

Swivel joint

*NOTE: articulation of C3-C3 common area of chronic dysfunction due to tremendous stress being below final compensator and above remainder of spine

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58
Q

________ test involves compression of the head in neutral, extension w/ sidebending towards, and extension with sidebending away.

Positive test reproduced patients symptoms (pain in neck and arm along the nerve root)

A

Spurling’s test

*indicateds nerve root compression (cervical radiculopathy)

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59
Q

True/False: The Cervical Spine is the Most mobile region of the Spine. Combined ROM is:

Flexion/Extension: 145 degrees
Axial rotation: 180
Lateral flexion: 90

It has lower intrinsic stability and is vulnerable to excessive dynamic loading (injuries). Restriction often results in compensatory mobility elsewhere.

A

True

NOTE: vertebral artery especially vulnerable w/ neck rotation and extension

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60
Q

“Impairment of a central nerve root, usually causing radiating pain, numbness, tingling, or muscle weakness that corresponds with a specific nerve root”

Includes:

  1. Lumbar herniated discs
  2. Lumbar spinal stenosis
  3. Lumbar neuroforaminal impingement
A

Lumbar radiculopathy

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61
Q

“Pain, numbness, tingling in the distribution of the sciatic nerve, radiating down the posterior or lateral aspect of the leg, usually to the foot or ankle.”

A

Sciatica

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62
Q

Common postural Problems: True/False

  1. Anterior pelvic tilt is associated with a number of conditions including: pelvic cross syndrome (tight hip flexors), weak hip extensors and hamstrings and sacroiliac disfunction.
  2. Exaggerated posterior pelvic tilt w/ buttocks tucked in is associated w/ spondylolisthesis.
A

True

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63
Q

_______ is a lumbar radiculopathy characterized by weakening of the fibrous outer wall of the disc. The nucleus pulposes pushes outward, but does NOT rupture through.

It generally does not protrude far enough to compress on a nerve, but can progress to a herniated disc.

A

Bulging disc

> 90 deg of the total circumfrence of the disc and does not extend beyond the boundaries of the annulus fibrosus

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64
Q

A herniated disc is a lumbar radiculopathy characterized by rupture of disc material beyond the annulus fibrosus.

It can be subdivided into two types:

  1. ________: rupture of disc material in which the base is broader than the dome. Generally does NOT extend above or below disc spaces.
  2. _______: rupture of a disc where the dome is wider than the base “dumbell”. This can extend above or below the disc space.
    * nerve root compression can occur
A
  1. Protrusion
  2. Extrusion

*NOTE: can produce a “free fragment” that can migrate out of the disc space

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65
Q

_______ describes herniation of the nucleus pulposes through cartilaginous and boney end plant on the body of adjacent vertebrae

A

Shmorl’s nodes

*lumbar

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66
Q

________ is a that can refer to one or more of the following:

  1. Narrowing of intraspinal (central) canal
  2. Narrowing of lateral recess
  3. Narrowing of the neural foramen

It can lead to lumbar radiculopathy (causing mechanical compression, inflammation, or ishemia of the nerve roots)

A

Lumbar spinal stenosis

  • can be congenital or acquired
  • usually age 60 or older
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67
Q

The following clinical presentation best describes what disorder?

  1. Neurogenic (or psuedo) claudication
  2. Symptoms (usually pain) exacerbated with walking, standing and/or maintaining certain postures, and relieved by sitting or lying
  3. Symptomatic when active
  4. Look for a patient with discomfort, sensory loss, and/or weakness in the legs that reflects the involvement of the spine nerve roots (see previous slides on this)
A

Lumbar spinal stenosis

Neurogenic (pseudo) claudication (Hallmark of lumbar spinal stenosis)

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68
Q

Arthritis of the spine. It is seen radiographically as disc space narrowing and arthritic changes of the facet joint

A

Spondylosis

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69
Q

“A fracture of the pars interarticularis where the vertebral body and the posterior elements protecting the nerves are joined.”

This fracture looks like a “scotty dog” with a broken neck.

A

Spondylolysis

  • unilateral or bilateral defect
  • “fatigue fracture” or acute overload on the joint and vertebrae

*athletes/overuse injuries

**Almost always at the 5th lumbar vertebrae (85 – 95% of the time)

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70
Q

There are different types of spondylolisthesis:

  1. ______: anterior displacement of a vertebral body relative to the one below.
  2. _____: posterior displacement of the vertebral body relative to the one below
  3. ______: anteriorlisthesis secondary to spondylolysis
A
  1. Anteriolisthesis
  2. Retrolisthesis
  3. Spondylolisthesis
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71
Q

Dysplastic type of spondylolisthesis (1 - 25% anterior slippage)

It is often due to congenital rounding of S1 vertebrae.
The more rounded, the greater the risk of slippage.

A

Type I spondylolisthesis

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72
Q

Isthmic type of spondylolisthesis (26 - 50% anterior slippage) . This is the MOST COMMON TYPE seen in athletes .

  1. Type II A: usually from that a stress fracture causing bilateral spondylolysis and with the anterior slippage.
  2. Type II B: repetitive fracture – healing causes the pars interarticularis to be elongated and then pretty much the same as above for II A

Rarely, rarely acute trauma can lead to this too

A

Type II spondylolisthesis

Type IIA: stress fracture; bilateral sponyloslysis w/ ant. slip
Type IIB: repetitive fracture; elongated pars articularis; ant. slip

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73
Q

Degenerative type of spondylolisthesis (51 – 75% anterior slippage).

It is NOT necessarily due to a fracture or insufficiency of the pars interarticularis. It is typically a segmental instability (usually L4 -5) that leads to such a fracture and significant anterior slippage

Classic patient for this is a female > 40 yo with super bad arthritis

A

Type III spondylolisthesis

*segmental instability leading to fracture and ant. slip

NOTE: Arthritis will destroy the contour of the facet joint leading to poor motion of the spine and chronic breakdown of the ligamentum flavum

*surgery sometimes

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74
Q

Traumatic type of Spondylolisthesis (76 – 100% slippage).

This is normally caused by high impact trauma, and leads to injury and fracture to way more than just the pars interarticularis.

A

Type IV spondylolisthesis

Lots of bony and ligamentous structures injured with this
This one is almost always surgical

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75
Q

Grading of spondylolisthesis is based on the Myerding classification. This categorizes spondylolisthesis lesions according to what percentage of the cephalad vertebral body extends beyond the anterior border of the caudal vertebra.

Explain grades 1-4.

A

Grade I: 1-25% slip
Grade II: 26-50% slip
Grade III: 51-75% slip
Grade IV: 76-100% slip

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76
Q

This is due to autoimmunity and the inflammatory process (HLA-B27 problem).

It is commonly diagnosed in men under 40 yo who present with back pain, morning stiffness that improves with exercise and pain at night.

These patients have terrible spinal mobility = Bamboo spine (vertebral fusion)

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

Problems may occur w/ the skeletal system, or others (Ex. Uveitis, inflammatory bowel problems, cardiovascular and pulmonary issues) and the long term issues associated with these

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77
Q

________ occurs from massive nerve compression due to herniation of multiple (Sometimes just one) intervertebral discs and spinal cord compression

Clinical presentation includes:
1. Pain 1st, then motor and sensory problems
“Saddle anesthesia”

  1. Bilateral leg weakness in multiple root distributions (L3 – S1 typically)
  2. Bowel, bladder, and/or erectile dysfunction (S2 – 4 typically)
A

Cauda Equina Syndrome

*NEUROLOGICAL EMERGENCY
The earlier this is diagnosed and treated, the better the long term outcome from this

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78
Q
  1. _______ curve refers to the outward curve of the thoracic spine (at ribs)
  2. _____ curve refers to the inward curve of the lumbar spine (above butt)
  3. _____ curve refers to sideways curve of the spine and is always abnormal
A
  1. Kyphosis (excessive: sherumann’s)
  2. Lordosis (excessive: Swayback)
  3. Scoliosis
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79
Q

Types of Neural tube defects:

  1. _______: completely open brain and spinal cord
  2. ______: Open brain, lack of skull vault
  3. _____: herniation of mennges and brain
  4. _____: occipital skull and spine defects w/ extreme retroflexion of head
A
  1. cranioraschischis
  2. anencephaly
  3. encepalocele
  4. iniencephaly
80
Q

Types of neural tube defects:

  1. _____: closed asymptomatic NTD in which some of the vertebrae are not completely closed
  2. ____: deficiency of at least 2 vertebral arches; covered with lipoma
  3. _____: Protrusion of meninges (filled w/ CSF) through a defect in the skull of spine
  4. _____: open spinal cord w/ meningeal cyst
A
  1. Spina bifida occulta
  2. Closed spinal dysraphism
  3. Meningocele
  4. Myelomeningocele
81
Q

______ is a birth defect in which a baby’s spine doesn’t form normally. Babies with this defect have an opening in their back. The spinal cord and covering around the spinal cord stick out of the opening, forming a sac.

*open , myelomeningocele

A

Spina bifida

82
Q

True/False: Sacral dimples are th emost common cutaneous sign of spinal dysraphism (incomplete closure of the neural tube during early embryogenesis). Atypical normally located above the gluteal cleft.

A

True

NOTE: hemangiomas are also signs of dysraphism

83
Q

Functions of the Lymph system include which of the following?

a. Removes proteins, fluids, and particulates from extracellular spaces
b. Removes inflammatory mediators and fluid from areas of inflammation in timely manner
c. Conserves plasma protein (maintains osmotic balance)
10% of intravascular protein and fluid volume “leaks” into interstitium and then into lymphatics; lymphatic vessels return it to venous circulation
d. Defense against disease—recirculation of lymphocytes estimated 40X/day for “immune surveillance”

A

Anwer: all of the above

84
Q

Lymphatic circulation occurs via lymph channels. What are the contents of these channels?

a. Capillaries
b. Pre-collector vessels (superficial & deep)
c. Collecting vessels
d. Lymph nodes and spleen
e. Right lymphatic duct
f. Thoracic duct into venous circulation

NOTE: No tight junctions between cells, but endothelial cells overlap so substances can’t go backwards

A

Answer: all of the above

The lymphatic-blood-interstitium cycle can occur up to 40x/day!

NOTE: lymphatic fluid forced out of arterial part of capillary bed when net hydrostatic pressure > than osmotic pressure
–fluid enters venous side (reabsorption)

85
Q

True/False: Valves of lymphatic vessels ensure unidirectional flow

A

True

*lymphangions (lymph hearts) b/t valves cyclically contract to pump lymph

86
Q

True/False: Lymph nodes strain out particulates and pathogens and undego Ag processing. Macrophages and lymphocytes are involved.

All lymph passes thorugh at least one node before joining circulation.

A

True

*gets concentrated

87
Q

Deep diaphragmatic breathing facilitates movement of the lymph through the bloodstream. Lymphatics in the diaphragm form a specialized system that drain fluid from the peritoneal cavity and returns it to the vascular system.

What does it pass through?

A

parasternal lymph

*thoracic duct and cisternal chyli

**FINISH

88
Q

THe _____ is drained by the right lymphatic duct, while the rest is drained by the thoracic duct.

A

RUQ (right lymphatic duct)

Rest (thoracic duct)

89
Q

Superficial lymph channels pierce the _____ tissue to enter deep channels. Lymph nodes present along this course.

A

Pierce the myofascial tissue

90
Q

Deep lymph drainage occurs when lymph is channeled to reach the junction of what veins?

A

Jugular and Subclavian

*fascial planes can restrict flow

91
Q

Lymph movement influences:

a. Fascia
b. Interstitial fluid volume
Interstitial pressure
c. External compression
d. Organ/tissue motion
e. Intrathoracic/intra-abdominal pressure

A

All of the above

a. Fascia—lymph vessels are thin walled so external compression from fascia can impact lymphatic movement
b. Interstitial fluid volume
Interstitial pressure
c. External compression—peripheral muscle contraction increases lymphatic fluid 15-20x
d. Organ/tissue motion—peristalsis, arterial pulses, organ motion
e. Intrathoracic/intra-abdominal pressure

92
Q

This disorder may be primary or secondary:

  1. Primary: occurs from congenital malformations of the lymphatic system
  2. Secondary: from damage to lymphatic system with decreased reabsorption +/- lymphatic fluid transport (ex: from lymph node resection in cancer surgery or fluid overload in CHF)

It results in Pedal edema. Edema is pitting in early stages (tissue fails to rebound), then can become non-pitting as more fibrosis develops

A

Lymphedema

*Secondary: lymphatic vessels compressed

93
Q

This disorder occurs either from hereditary disorder of lipid metabolism (abnormal deposits of adipose cells) or as a secondary disorder that may develop from lymphedema (compression of lymphatic vessels from superficial fascia)

No pedal edema is seen. Edema is non-pitting
Allodynia (hypersensitivity to light touch)

A

Lipidema

*columnar legs

94
Q

Structural anatomic consideration of the thoracic inlet associated with lymph:

  1. Clavicle (SC and AC)
  2. Manubrium and Sternum
  3. Rib 1
  4. T1-2
  5. Myofascial structures of thoracic inlet (Sibson’s fascia)
A

NO idea what I need to know for this

95
Q

Infections or increased fluids in tissues constitute situations where lymphatic techniques may be helpful.

How would lymphatic techniques help in these cases?

A

INfections: Improve circulation and presentation of Ag - faster recovery

Edema and INflammation: improved removal of proteins, cytokines, fluid

Post-Injury, Post-op: improved circulation

96
Q

List absolute contraindications to lymphatic techniques

A

aneuresis (end stage renal disease), necrotizing fasciitis, and lack of consent

97
Q

List relative contraindications to lymphatic techniques

A
  • CHF in patients who can’t tolerate inc. preload
  • severe, unstable COPD
  • -acute unstable asthma
  • -unstable cardiac conditions
  • -chronic infection at risk of reactivation
  • -venous Thromboembolisms
  • -fractures
  • -cancer
98
Q

How do you get rid of edema/impediment to flow?

A
  1. is it fascial, muscular or bony?
    - -overdistension of lymph vessels, but dec. lymphangion contraction?
  2. Maximize motion of diaphragm (stagnation problem)
    (thoracic inlet diaphragm, pelvic diaphragm)
  3. Increase pressure differentials (stagnation problem)
    - -get lymph moving into capillaries
    use: thoracic pump, pedal pump
    - -pedal pump at 2x HR inc. shear stress; inc. NO
  4. Mobilize target tissue (drainage stagnation; volume problems)
    - -effleurage, galbreath, petrissage
99
Q

List the order in which you treat lymphatics

A

Central to Peripheral:

  • thoracic inlet
  • ribs
  • abdominal diaphragm
  • pelvic d…
  • muscles and fascia constricting flow in extremities
100
Q

Example of treatment structure for sinus congestion:

A
  1. thoracic inlet
  2. cervical soft tissue
  3. OA decompression
  4. Sinus tapotement, efluerage
101
Q

Describe the Technique for Thoracic Inlet Release (Lymphatics)

A
  1. Patient may be seated or Supine
  2. Gently place honds on patient’s shoulders close to the cervicothoracic juntion (thumbs behind neck, fingers on sternum)
  3. Apply enough pressure to engage the skin and underlying fascia

a. inferiorly and superiorly
b. laterally and medially
c. clockwise and counterclockwise

  1. Stack the three restriction motions into the barrier with the most bind and hold for 30-60 sec until feel relese
  2. Re-check

*page 95 manual

102
Q

Describe Rib Walking (Lymphatics)

page 95 manual

*Practice this technique

A
  1. Stand at head of table w/ patient supine
  2. Make sure the patient is relaxed and breathing normally
  3. Place hands laterally on their chest so that heels are parallel to each other
  4. Apply firm, direct pressure posteriorly and caudally to groups 2-4 ribs
  5. “Walk” and and down the chest 2-4 times alternating pressure
103
Q

Rib raising is useful to increase the range of motion of the costal cage and increase lymphatic drainage.

List the steps in rib raising/Practice this technique

*page 96 manual

A
  1. patient may be supine or sitting up
  2. Place finger pads medial to rib angle
  3. Apply rhythmic upward motion to rib age

***LOOK AT MANUAL

104
Q

Mandibular drainiage is used for lymphatic congestion or infection of the ears, nose or throat. It should not be used w/ people who suffer from TMJ.

List the steps in Mandibular drainage

Page. 97 manual **PRACTICE

A
  1. place finger pads below ear, and along body of mandible
  2. jaw should be relaxed and slightly open
  3. stabilize forehead (turn head towards you)
  4. apply pressure
105
Q

The thoracic pump may be used in cases of lymphatic congestion, fever or infection.

List the steps in the THoracic Pump

*Page 98 Manual/Practice

A

Practice this

106
Q

Practice the Pedal Pump (Page 99 Manual)

A

used for lymphatic congestion

107
Q

What are the components in obtaining a good patient history?

A
  • Why (Why are you Here?)
  • What (what is pain like?
  • Where? (where is it? localized or referred)
  • When (did it begin; duration)
  • Do any motions make pain better or worse?
108
Q

Types of Pain

  1. Cramping, dull, ache = ____
  2. sharp shooting = _____
  3. deep, nagging, dull = ____
  4. sharp, severe = ____
  5. throbbing, diffuse = ____
A
  1. muscle
  2. nerve root
  3. bone
  4. fracture
  5. vascular/visceral
109
Q

What specifics do you need to know for a musculoskeletal complaint?

a. loss of motion (stiffness)
b. swelling
c. localized warmth
d. redness
e. abnormal sensations (crepitance, popping, instability)

A

Answer: all of the above

110
Q

Definitions:

  1. ________: joint pain
  2. ________: inflammation of a joint
  3. _______: inflammation involving the complex sleeve-like ligamentous structure surrounding a joint (made up of ligaments, tendon expansions, and tendon attachments)
  4. ______: palpable or audible crunching or grinding noise made when moving a joint or tendon
A
  1. Arthralgia
  2. Arthritis
  3. Capsulitis
  4. Crepitus
111
Q

Definitions:

  1. _______: inflammation of a tendon
  2. _______: inflammation of a tendon sheath
  3. _______: inflammation of a bursa, which is a potential sac cushioning a bony or tendonous prominence and the skin
  4. _______: inflammation of an epicondyle
A
  1. Tendonitis
  2. Tenosynovitis
  3. Bursitis
  4. Epicondylitis
112
Q

Definitions:

  1. ______: ligamentous injury with overstretching or tearing
  2. _____: injury or overuse of individual muscles or muscle groups
  3. _____: pathological increase in the mobility of a joint
  4. _______: normal variant of joint laxity
A
  1. Sprain
  2. Strain
  3. Instability
  4. Hypermobility
113
Q

Definitions:

  1. _______: congenital or traumatic joint disruption (hip, shoulder, radial head, patella)
  2. _______: partial dislocation of a joint, partial loss of joint surface contact
A
  1. Dislocation

2. Subluxation

114
Q

Principles of a Physical Exam (of the Shoulder)

  1. Check vitals
  2. Evaluate ____ side first.
  3. Active movements first
  4. Painful movements last
    - -warn of exacerbation of symptoms
  5. Isometric movements = in neutral
  6. Sports medicine axiom (check joints above and below sore joint
    * common to have
A
  1. Evaluate Normal side first
  2. Sports medicine axiom:
    - -common to have referred pain
    - -slipped capital femoral epiphysis (notorious for referring pain to knee when problem is in Hip)
115
Q

True/False: When treating shoulder problems, make sure to first rule out cervical involvement

A

True

116
Q

List the shouldert tests based on their descriptions:

  1. Gross motion, Apleys
  2. Glenohumeral instability
  3. Glenohumeral dislocation/subluxation
  4. AC arthritis, shoulder impingement
  5. Rotator cuff tear
  6. bicipital tendonitis
  7. bicipital tendon suluxation
  8. long thoracic nerve injury
A
  1. General motion test
  2. Apprehension test
  3. Sulcus sign
  4. Hawkins test
  5. Drop arm and Empty can test
  6. Speeds test
  7. Yergason
  8. Scapular winging sign
117
Q

Normal range of motion of the knee includes flexion and extension.

Special maneuvers can be performed to test for injuries or tears to the knee. These include:

  1. McMurray’s
  2. Varus stress
  3. Valgus stress
  4. Lachman’s/Anterior drawer testing
  5. Posterior drawer testing
  6. Patella apprehension

Explain these

A
  1. McMurray’s test: meniscal tear
  2. Varus stress: LCL instability
  3. Valgus stress: MCL instability
  4. Lachman’s/Anterior drawer testing: ACL tears
  5. Posterior drawer: PCL tears
  6. Patella apprehension: patellar instability
118
Q

The most common ankle sprains involve in version of the foot with respect to the ankle.

Key ligaments involved are the anterior talofibular (most common) and calcaneoufibular.

How are sprains graded?

A

Sprains are graded I, II, and III
I: slight stretching of ligaments

II: partial tearing of ligaments

III: complete tear of ligaments

119
Q

Ankle Motions:

  1. Plantarflexion
  2. Dorsiflexion
  3. Internal rotation
  4. External rotation (foot is parallel to ground)
  5. Inversion (roughly equivalent to supination)
  6. Eversion (roughly equivalent to pronation)

What are special maneuvers associated with the ankle?

A
  1. Anterior drawer sign
    (diruption of ligaments)
  2. Talar tilt test
    (disruption of ligaments)
  3. Thompson test
    (Achilles tendon rupture)
120
Q

When can you use OMM for Joint problems?

A
  • soft tissue sprain or minor injury

* Do not use if fracture, infection or cancer

121
Q

The shoulder is part of the appendicular skeleton.

The appendicular skeleton contains 4 articular surfaces. List them

A
  1. Sternoclavicular
  2. Acromioclavicular
  3. Glenohumeral
  4. Scapulothoracic

*Glenohumeral joint = principal articulation

NOTE: subacromial space (impingement and bursitis)

122
Q

True/False: The shoulder girdle is composed of 3 bones:

  1. Clavicle
  2. Scapula
  3. Proximal humerus
A

True

123
Q

Articular cartilage covers the head of the humerus and face of the glenoid fossa.

  1. The ______ joint is loosely constrained within a thin capsule bounded by surrounding muscles and ligaments.
  2. The______, a ring of fibrous tissue, surrounds the glenoid fossa assisting in stabilization.
A
  1. Glenohumeral joint
  2. Labrum

NOTE: The shoulder’s great mobility is due to the shallow depth of the glenoid and the limited contact between the glenoid and the humeral head.

124
Q

Motion of shoulder is:

  • 2/3 glenohumeral
  • 1/3 scapulothoracic
180˚ flexion
60 ˚ extension, 
180 ˚ abduction
50 ˚ adduction
90 ˚ internal and external rotation

What is the most common somatic dysfunction?

A

Most common somatic dysfunction of the shoulder: limited internal and external rotation

SIDE NOTE: remember to consider cervicals, ribs, and thoracic spine when dealing with shoulder pain

125
Q

Which of the following is a muscle of the shoulder?

a. Trapezius
b. Deltoid
c. Infraspinatus and Suprapinatus
d. Teres Minor and Teres major

A

Answer: B-D

also: subscapularis, Triceps brachii (long head) and Omohyoid

126
Q

Muscles of the Rotator Cuff are:

  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Teres Minor
  4. Subscapularis

All are innervated by C5-C6. Describe the function of the Supraspinatus.

A
  • -abduction (w/ deltoid)
  • -stabilize glenohumeral
  • -supraspinous fossa to greater tubercle of humerus

*most commonly torn

127
Q

Muscles of the Rotator Cuff are:

  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Teres Minor
  4. Subscapularis

All are innervated by C5-C6.

The infraspinatus is responsible for what movement?

A

External rotation
(with teres minor)

—infraspinatus process to greater tubercle of humerus

128
Q

Muscles of the Rotator Cuff are:

  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Teres Minor
  4. Subscapularis

All are innervated by C5-C6.

Teres Minor muscle works with the Infraspinatus muscle to perform what action?

A

External rotation

-lat. border of scapula to greater tubercle of humerus

129
Q

Muscles of the Rotator Cuff are:

  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Teres Minor
  4. Subscapularis

(TISS)

All are innervated by C5-C6.

The subscapularis muscle is responsible for what motion?

A

Internal rotation and adduction

*subscapular fossa to lesser tubercle of humerus and GH capsule

130
Q

Additional Muscles that aid in movement of the upper extremity are the Teres Major and the Latissimus Dorsi.

The Teres major muscle originates from the inferior angle of the scapula. It inserts onto the medial lip of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus. What is its action?

A

Extend, internally rotate, adduct

131
Q

Additional Muscles that aid in movement of the upper extremity are the Teres Major and the Latissimus Dorsi.

THe Lats originate on the spinous processes of the lower thoracic vertebrae and ribs, crest of ilium, inferior angle of scapula. They insert into the intertubercular groove of the humerus. What is their action?

A

Internal rotation and adduction of humerus

*intertubercular groove

132
Q

Additional muscles that aid in movement of the arm are the pectoralis minor and Serratus anterior.

The Pec minor originates on ribs 3-5 and inserts into the coracoid process.

What is its function?

A

stabilizes scapula and raises ribs (inspiration)

133
Q

Additional muscles that aid in movement of the arm are the pectoralis minor and Serratus anterior.

The serratus anterior originates on ribs 1-9. It inserts onto the medial border of the scapula.

What is the function of the Serratus anterior?

A
  • -pull scapular forward
  • -lift ribs (when shoulder girdle is fixed)

Innervation: LOng thoracic nerve (C5-C7)

If damaged: Winged scapula

134
Q

True/False: The upper limb is innervated by ventral rami originating from spinal nerve levels C5–T1. These rami form a network of nerves referred to as the brachial plexus, which extends from the neck into the axilla providing motor and sensory innervation to the upper limb

A

True

NOTE: motor innervation: Musculocutaneous, Ulnar, Median and Radial nerves

135
Q

Sensory innervation of the upper limb is characterized in two ways:

  1. Dermatomes
  2. Cutaneous fields

A _______ is a region of skin that is innervated by one spinal nerve level.

In contrast, a _______ provides sensory innervation from a region of skin and may consist of sensory neurons from more than one spinal nerve level.

A
  1. Dermatome
  2. Cutaneous field/nerve

The brachial plexus provides the pathways for sensory neurons from the skin of the upper limb to the spinal cord.

136
Q

Red Flags during Screening of Upper extremity

  1. Persistent nighttime pain - cancer
  2. Weight loss, fatigue, night sweats, fevers - cancer
  3. Discolored painful distal extremities – vascular compromise
  4. Associated cardiovascular symptoms like shortness of breath, chest heaviness, lightheadedness - MI
  5. Problems with coordination/balance – stroke
  6. Systemic symptoms such as fever, redness, swelling - infection
A
  1. e.g. Septic joint
    - -red, hot swollen and painful
  • ROM severely limited by pain
  • acute infection
  • surgical emergency
137
Q

Review Upper Extremity Tests and Positive Signs

*Slide 29-30 Upper Ex. 1

A

Review it

138
Q

Intrinsic Pathologies of the Upper Extremity

  1. Glenohumeral
    - osteoarthritis
    - impingement
    - rotator cuff tear
    - labral tear
    - dislocation/subluxation
    - adhesive capsulitis
  2. Extraglenohumeral

List the Extraglenohumeral

A

Biceps tendonitis, AC joint pathology, Scapulothoracic bursitis

139
Q

An uncommon cause of shoulder complaint. It occurs from wear and tear leading to degenerative changes as well as joint space narrowing.

  • increasing pain and stiffness
  • remote history of trauma
A

Glenohumeral osteoarthritis

  • females
  • crepitus and loss of ROM
  • Treat w/ OMM, PT, NSAID, injection
140
Q

A common syndrome of the upper extremity involving impingement and compression of structures around the glenohumeral joint.

Compression of tendons and/or bursa may cause pain, and friction rub may occur. This pain is most often worse at night, but is persistent and affects daily activity.

A

Impingement Syndrome

*repeated activity can increase risk
(painting, lifting, swimming, tennis; bone and joint abnormalities)

*can lead to tendinitis, calcific tendinitis, labral tears, etc.

NOTE: patient has normal strength

141
Q

This test may be performed to confirm impingement syndrome of the upper extremity.

The patient actively elevates the arm in the scapular plane. It is a positive test when pain occurs at 60-120 degrees abduction.

Subacromial is diminished, pinching structures under the acromion and coracoacromial ligament.

A

Painful arc

*passive movement will appear painfrul when downward force applied at acromion

142
Q

What is the 1st test to order for impingement syndrome?

A

X-ray

*Tx: NSAIDS, PT, etc.

Athletes may return to play once pain has resolved enough for normal ROM and near normal strength

143
Q

This test may be performed to confirm impingement syndrome of the upper extremity.

While elbow is extended, internally rotate arm so that thumb is facing posterior
Flex shoulder 180 degrees

If positive = pain

A

Neers

144
Q

This test may be performed to confirm impingement syndrome of the upper extremity.

  1. Flex shoulder to 90 degrees and flex elbow.
  2. Internally rotate arm 90 degrees
    + test = pain especially towards end of internal rotation

May be more specific for supraspinous tendon impingement

A

Hawkins Kennedy test

145
Q

Rotator cuff tears are very similar to Impingement however patients tend to be older and there is weakness.
They normally involve a partial or complete tear of one of SITS tendons.

Which is the most commonly torn tendon?

NOTE: presentation will be similar to impingement w/ anterolateral should pain exacerbated by overhead activities.

A

Most common: supraspinatus

  • pain worse at night when sleeping on that side
  • shoulder weakness, loss of active ROM

NOTE: chronic tears: long standing tendinopathy

146
Q

Physcial examination of a rotator cuff tear will not pain and weakness on external rotation test, which may have loss of active ROM.

Passive motion may be full, but crepitance may be noted w/ tenderness on greater tubercle.

What are special shoulder tests? Risk factors? Diagnostics?

A

Tests: Drop arm, Empty can

Diagnosis: X-ray (proximal migration of humeral head); MRI or ultrasound

Tx: individualized

Risk factors: age, degeneration w/ chronic impingement

147
Q

A special test that can be used to confirm rotator cuff injury:

WIth this test, abduct the arm 90 degrees and adduct 15 degrees. Turn the arm so that the thumb is facing the floor. Instruct the patient to resist as an inferior force is applied.

A

Empty Can test

positive = pain
–injury to supraspinatus

148
Q

A test to confirm rotator cuff injuty.

  1. Abduct to 90 degrees and have patient slowly lower.

Any FULL tear of the rotator cuff tendons will cause “drops” as patient lowers arm.

A

Drop Arm test

149
Q

A special test that may be used to confirm rotator cuff injury:

The patient touches superior and inferior aspects of the opposite scapula

+ = decreased ROM
Indicates rotator cuff dysfunction (may or may not have tear)

A

Apley Scratch test

150
Q

These usually occur secondary to trauma (traction, compression, direct blow).

The patient complains of pain with overhead activities and decreased function. It is associated with popping, clicking or catching.

A

Labral tears

*similar to rotator cuff tears

Special tests: not very specific – O’brien’s

DX: Image w/ MRI
Tx: surgery

151
Q

Testing for Labral Injury:

  1. Flex shoulder to 90 degrees
  2. Adduct 10 degrees
    Internally rotate so that thumb is facing down
  3. Have patient resist against inferior force
    + test = pain and indicates labral tear

Externally rotate so that thumb is facing up
Have patient resist against inferior force
+ test = pain is reduced compared to previous position

A

O’Brien’s

152
Q

This injury causes Glenohumeral instability
symptomatic abnormal translation of the humeral head on the glenoid

May be:

  • anterior
  • posterior
  • multi-directional

It is often associated with trauma acutely (anterior), or repetitive microtrauma with laxity (multidirectional with swimmers).

A

SHoulder instability and dislocation

  • pain, weakness, recurrent dislocations
  • Special tests: Apprehension, Sulcus sign
153
Q

A special test for shoulder instability:

  1. The elbow is flexed and the arm abducted to 90 degrees.
  2. Apply slight anterior pressure and slowly externally rotate the shoulder
    + test = apprehension
A

Apprehension test

154
Q

A special test for shoulder instability:

  1. Traction applied to arm in inferior direction

+ = presence of a sulcus lateral to acromion

A

Sulcus sign

155
Q

A disorder of the upper extremity characterized by pain and gradual loss of BOTH active and passive ROM.

It is usually idiopathic, however, mor ecommon in women and diabetics. It may also follow immobilization or prolonged inflammation.

A

Adhesive capsulitis

Dx: X-rays will be negative. MRI maybe

Tx: OMM, persistence, home exercises

156
Q

True/False: In a normal AC joint, the bottom of the acromion should align with the bottom of the distal

A

True

157
Q

Arthritis of this joint presents with breakdown of cartilage but no trauma. Abnormal bony growths (osteophytes) or bone spurs may develop.

The patient will have difficulty reaching their arm across the body (e.g. swing golf club or seat belt).

A

Acromioclavicular joint

Tests: Crossover test

158
Q

This is caused by falling onto the abducted arm with point tenderness over the AC.

There are 6 grades: sprain to complete rupture of both the Ac and CC ligaments.

Exam in a seated position may note swelling and tenderness over the AC joint

A

AC separation

-palpable “stepped” deformity b/t acromion and clavicle = severe injury (dislocation)
(AP view of shoulder confirms)

Special test: Crossover test

159
Q

AC joint pathology may be determined by the crossover test.

In this test, Crossover test the patient forward flexes the affected arm to 90 degrees.

This is followed by ______ across the chest, forcing the acromion into the distal end of the clavicle

+ test = pain

A

adduction across the chest

160
Q

This disorder is caused by isolated inflammation of the proximal biceps tendon.

Risk factors include age and overuse activities, but NOT trauma.

The patient will present with pain over the anterior aspect of the shoulder which radiates down the biceps.

A

Bicept tendonitis

Special tests: Speeds and Yergasons

DX:
-Xrays = often normal

Tx: start w/ NSAIDs, OMM, and ROM exercises. Steroid injections can be considered.

Athlete may return to play once pain has resolved enough for near normal ROM and strength.

161
Q

Special test for Biceps tendonitis.

  1. Extend elbow
  2. Have patient flex elbow against resistance while monitoring at bicipital grove

+ test = snap or pain under thumb near biceps tendon and indicates biceps tendonitis

A

Speed test

162
Q

Special Test for Biceps Tendonitis

  1. Flex elbow to 90 degrees
  2. Have patient supinate arm against resistance while monitoring at bicipital grove.

+ test = snap or pain under thumb near biceps tendon and indicates biceps tendonitis

A

Yergason’s test

163
Q

Syndrome seen in patients that are thin with rolled shoulders, kyphotic, and have poor posture.

It is due to mechanical friction and pressure between the scapula and 2nd and 3rd ribs.

It is aggravated by repetitive motion (ironing), and exhibits pain near scapula

A

Scapulothoracic bursitis
(snapping scapula syndrome)

*Crepitus when shoulder is shrugged.

164
Q

True/False: Neurologic shoulder pain can be due to multiple etiologies such as:

  1. stingers (stretch nerve root)
  2. disc herniation
  3. nerve impingement

Patients may complain of pain radiating into the arm, but may have no history of shoulder trauma, and no loss of ROM.

A

True

normal X-rays

Special Test: Spurling’s

165
Q

Clinical features of cervical herniation:

  1. C5
  2. C6
  3. C&
  4. C8

Slide 57 upper ext. 1

A
  1. C5 - deltoid (weak/absent reflex)
  2. C6 – biceps brachii
    (weak/absent reflex)
    –loss of sensation in thumb
  3. C7 – triceps brachii
    (weak/absent reflex)
    –loss of sensation in digits 2,3
  4. C8 – Interossei (Horner’s syndrome)
    - -loss of sensation in digits 4, 5
166
Q

The elbow joint is composed of the humerus, radius and ulna.

In X-ray it has a coronoid process, anterior fat pad, and bare area of the proximal unla. Whate are these?

A

coronoid process:

Fat pad: important in capitulum fractures
(radial head to lateral distal humerus)

Bare area: divides olecranon and coronoid

167
Q

The elbow joint works in conjunction wiht the shoulder to put the hand in space. It is a hinge joint with flexion/extension

Flexion is accomplished by:

Extension is accomplished by:

A

Flexion: biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis

Extension:

  • passive: gravity
  • active: triceps brachii
168
Q

The carrying angle of the elbow joint is formed by the intersection of two lines:

  1. long. axis of the humerus
  2. line through radial-ulnar joint (proximal and distal)

What is the normal? What are issues?

A

NOrmal:

males: 5-10 degrees
females: 10-15

  1. cubitus valgus: inc. anlge
  2. cubitus varus: dec. angle
169
Q

True/False: A parralelogram effect causes the wrist to compensate for what ulnar deviation occurs. Injuries such as fractures can alter the carrying angle

A

True

170
Q
  1. Supination of the Arm occurs when the radial head is ________
  2. Pronation of the Arm occurs when the radial head is ______
A
  1. Supination: anterior

2. Pronation: posterior

171
Q

If an arm does not supinate well, how is it Dx?

A

Pronation:

Posterior radial head

172
Q

With the elbow joint, Supination/pronation are rotations about a longitudinal axis.
Motion occurs at both proximal and distal radioulnar articulations.

How is motion of the radial head best observed?

A

Elbow flexed at 90 degrees

**taut in supinationon (more powerful)

173
Q

Golfer’s elbow is known as _______

Tennis elbow is known as ______

A

Golfer: medial epicondylitis

Tennis: lateral epicondylitis

174
Q

Thought to be an inflammatory response to overuse of the extensor muscle groups attached to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus but could be due to a degenerative tendinosis or ischemic phenomenon.

*common radial head dysfunction

A

Lateral epicondylitis

  • pain at lat. epicondyle and radiate up into brachioradialis OR down into forearm extensor group
  • worsenes with resistive extension of wrist or shaking hands
175
Q

Lateral epicondylitis involves what muscle groups?

A

FOrearm extensor bundle

*extensors (top of arm)

176
Q

This muscle is usually the damaged muscle in Tennis elbow. It acts to stabilize the wrist when arm is straightened.

When it is overused, microscopic tears weaken the attachment at the lateral epicondyle.

A

Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB)

*muscle rubs over bone ridges – and wears down muscle

177
Q

Commonly known as “Golfer’s Elbow”
Involves irritation of the muscles of the forearm flexor bundle which make the palm flex toward the wrist

This isn’t thought to be due to inflammation, but rather, overuse.

A

Medial epicondylitis

*inc. fibroblast production = scar tissue

**Tendinosis

**Flexor muscles

*travels inner forearm

178
Q

Most common somatic dysfunction at the elbow is radial head and it mimics

A

Tennis elbow

*extensor

179
Q

Caused by cubital tunnel syndrome and olecranon bursitis

A

Extra-articular elbow pain

Cubital tunnel (elbow):

  • -ulnar nerve in ulnar groove
  • digits 4 and 5
  • benediction hand
180
Q

Occurs because of trauma or repetitive pressure over the bursa (resting on elbow)

A

Olecranon bursitis

*ROM not affected (outside joint)

181
Q

____ is a general maneuver for reproducing pain by tapping over an inflamed or impinged nerve

A

Tinel’s sign

*ROM not affected

182
Q

Strain of the _______ membrane of the elbow joint can occur at the time of injury but may persist long after the initial problem has healed

A

Interosseous

Tx: myofascial

183
Q

Which describves the function of the interoseous membrane?

a. symmetry and stability of radio-ulnar motion
b. past injuries may persist in the tension and tenderness of membrane
c. Treat with fascial release

A

all of the above

184
Q

_______ syndrome is a compression of the median nerve at the level of the elbow. It occurs more often in females and presents similar to carpal tunnel syndrome.

A

Pronator terest syndrome

*numness in palm, thumb, forefinger, middle finger

185
Q

The true wrist involves radio-carpal articulations.

It involves what structures?

A

proximal carpals, scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum + articular disc and distal radius

*flex, extend, abduct, adduct

186
Q

Somatic dysfunction of the wrist affects glide between ____ and ___

A

carpals and the radius

187
Q

______ involves compression of the median nerve by the flexor retinaculum.

It presents as pain and parasthesia in the thumb, index and long finger.

A

Carpal Tunnel

*Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests

188
Q

______ involves flexing the wrist to 90 degrees for 1 minute (with dorsums of hands facing one another). Pain or numbness indicates median nerve issues

A

Phalen’s

*reverse phalens = “prayer hands”

189
Q

True/False: OMM on the wrist is helpful by decompressing the entrapment of the distal branches of the median nerve at the wrist and improving the circulation and decrease endotunnel and endoneural edema.

A

True

190
Q

The tunnel of Guyon (ulnar tunnel) is the other tunnel in the wrist and houses the _____. It is formed by the ligament connecting the hook of the hamate and the pisiform bones.

Lateral compression (cyclist’s palsy) may occur, outside of the flexor retinaculum.

A

ulnar artery and ulnar nerve

*ulnar neuritis (compression of intercarpals)

191
Q

_____________ At elbow or wrist- progression of symptoms from numbness, to weakness, to muscle atrophy and contractures

A

Ulnar Nerve Entrapment

*Tinel’s test

192
Q

There are six dorsal wrist compartments

Compartment 1 houses a commonly inflamed tendon complex (DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis). This occurs from repetitive movement of the thumb leading to inflammation of the tendon sheath.

Which muscles are affected?

A

Extensor policis brevis
Abductor pollicis longus

  • pain in dorsolateral wrist
  • video gamers

*Finkelstein’s test

193
Q

There are six dorsal wrist compartments

Compartment 1 houses a commonly inflamed tendon complex (DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis). This occurs from repetitive movement of the thumb leading to inflammation of the tendon sheath.

Which muscles are affected?

A

Extensor policis brevis
Abductor pollicis longus

  • pain in dorsolateral wrist, thumb
  • video gamers
  • Finkelstein’s test
194
Q

Finkelstein test: Flex the thumb and place the wrist in ulnar deviation, which exacerbates the pain. When is this used?

A

DeQuervain’s Tenyosynovitis

195
Q

Dysfunction of the A-1 pulley system locks the finger in extension or flexion.

A

Trigger finger

196
Q

Thickening and gradual shortening of the Flexor tendons in the hand that. Though to have genetic inheritance. Treated with injections or surgery

A

Dupyterent’s contracture