Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is private equity

A

Investment strategy that involves the purchase of equity or equity linked securities in a company
Investment is made thru a negotiated process. Hostile buyouts are rare
Sophisticated investors with financial and operating expertise
Goal is to acquire undervalued or promising assets and realize profits 3-5 years after the acquisition

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2
Q

Fund of funds

A

You make investments in PE shops that then invest in other PE shops. Allows you to enter the PE world if you don’t have money to do so.
Fund that invests in other funds

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3
Q

LBO

A
  1. Acquisition of a company where a PE firm uses cash, equity, and debt to fund the purchase price
  2. PE firm injects equity into a new shell company which borrows debt and simultaneously acquires the target
  3. PE firm contributes capital, operating and financial expertise, strategic insight, contacts and management talent
  4. Mgmt ownership increases, creating higher incentives to improve operations & deliver results
  5. Debt is repaid by the operating cash flows or by the sale of non-core assets of the acquired business
  6. LBO is similar to buying and renting out a house - the rent cash flows to pay down the mortgage debt

Power of leverage: allows for a higher return to the equity holder

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4
Q

PE Fund Structure

A

A PE Fund is a pool of raised capital committed by investors to be invested over the course of a number of years
Limited partners (LP): consist of pension funds, insurance companies, fund of funds, high net-worth investors, family offices, endowments, foundations, sovereign wealth funds, etc
They provide capital and a 2% fee to the private equity fund (the general partner (GP))
The GP then has a fund which uses the capital from the different LPs and invests in different deals
Generally about 10 investments in a fund and 5-7 year life for the fund
LP will only be required to invest capital once an investment occurs.

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5
Q

Three ways to generate returns for LBO

A
  1. Operational improvement and growth (grow EBITDA)
  2. Purchase/exit multiple expansion
  3. Use of leverage

Generally there is a hurdle rate of 8% - require at least an 8% return for the deal

More recently, deals have been getting value due to operational improvement. Used to be mainly from leverage in the 1980s and multiple expansion in the 1990s. Now is earnings growth

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6
Q

What does the GP do?

Exit opportunities

A
  1. Select investments: obtain access to high quality deal flow, sort and evaluate large amount of info
  2. Due diligence and structuring: business, accounting, and legal diligence. Structuring the transaction
  3. Monitoring investments: providing strategic, operational, and financial assistance to portfolio companies
  4. Exiting investments:
    A. Sale: Financial (another PE firm) or strategic (someone in the industry, will pay a premium for the synergies. For financial, which is sponsor to sponsor (PE to PE), look at transaction comps and get rid of corporations who pay a premium. Low valuation.
    For strategic, aka corporate, look at transaction comps, incorporate synergies, and high valuations
    B. IPO: multi stage in that don’t dump all equity at the IPO but have multiple exit at IPO –> look at public/trading comps. Medium valuation
    C. Dividend Recapitalization (partial exit). Process of borrowing money to issue a special dividend to owners or shareholders allowing them more recover of investment and allowing to increase IRR
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7
Q

Timeline of Fund Cash Flow for LPs and J-Curve Effect

A
  1. In the early years, PE funds tend to show low or negative returns due to management fees and early identification of underperforming assets and the subsequent write down
  2. Investment gains usually come in the later years, as the companies mature and with the help of the GP, increase in value
  3. The effect of this timing on the fund’s interim returns are drawn as the J-Curve effect. This plots time on X axis and returns on Y axis. see it starts at zero, goes down at first and then up higher than began to a positive return

Year 1: LP make the fund commitment
Years 1-6: capital is called from LPs as needed. Typically funds are invested over 4-6 years
Years 3-10: fund will make distributions to LPs as investments are realized. Expected hold period for an investment can typically be 3-7 years

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8
Q

What makes a good LBO candidate

A
  1. Predictable, steady cash flows to service debt
  2. History of (of potential to have) consistent profitability
  3. Availability of (or potential to produce) excess cash
  4. Easily separable assets or businesses
  5. Strong management team
  6. Strong brands and market position: good companies are expensive but if you pay and can grow company then it is worth it
  7. Industry with barriers to entry
  8. Little danger from disruptive changes (technology, regulatory, etc)
  9. Visible/feasible exit strategy (IPO or M&A)
  10. Scope for operational improvements
  11. Trading below intrinsic value
  12. Low capex needs bc high capex means more cash outflow
  13. Assets to secure debt as collateral
  14. Low cost of debt

–> Capital structure before isn’t important because you start fresh when you come in

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9
Q

Sources and Uses Table

A

Uses are the things that you will use after the transaction. This includes repaying the old debt, fees, any immediate investments, and how much you paid for the equity

Sources are how the money is raised. This comes from the new debt, as well as both management and sponsor equity.
Sources should = uses

Ex: Say we have a deal where there is an EBITDa of 20 and a multiple of 5. So purchase for 100 and have senior debt for 50, mezzanine debt for 20, equity for 35 (fees of 5%). Repaying old debt that was 20.

Total sources:
New senior debt: 50
New mezzanine: 20
New equity: 35

Total uses:
Repay old debt: 20
Acquiring equity: 80
Expenses: 5

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10
Q

Sources of Funds

A
  1. Equity:
    New equity injection from PE fund (LPs)
    Potential equity contribution from existing management (incentive alignment when CEO is a shareholder)
    Potential continuing equity investment by existing shareholders (rollover)
    Equity from a strategic partner
    Co-investment by a limited partner (multiple funds, don’t pay fees)
2. Debt: 
Bank debt (senior debt)
High yield debt (subordinated debt)
Generally you prefer to pay down the high yield debt first since higher interest rate, but contract may require you to pay down senior debt. You borrow against the junior debt in case you need to raise more debt (need to pay senior debt and don't have enough cash to do so, so draw more of the subordinated debt)
  1. Mezzanine structures: can be structured to be more “debt-like” or more “equity-like” depending on the situation

Senior debt usually amortizes over the years while mezzanine debt doesn’t

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11
Q

Bank Debt

A

Aka leveraged loans
•Senior secured (most senior debt) (1st or 2nd lien)
•Matures before other debt classes, amortizing
•Structured at the operating company level
•Typically callable/prepayable at par
•Often floating rate (e.g., LIBOR+)*
•Quarterly interest payments
•Privately held: Do not need public disclosures
•Underwritten via syndication
•Significant financial covenants (unless “cov-lite”)
–> This includes interest coverage ratio, debt to ebitda ratio. Make sure can meet certain standards. Cov-lite lacks these covenants
•Process: Diligence, commitment, launch, syndicate, fund
•Revolving Credit Facilities vs. Term loans: security for ability to take out cash flows
Revolvers allow multiple drawings for working capital and general corporate needs (if need more debt, do so against the revolvers)
Term loans funded at closing
Term A: bank, 5 year term, 1st lien
Terms B,C,D: looser covenants. 5-8 year terms. More cov-lite with lower interest rate, debt lenders competing to give money. Less standards

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12
Q

High yield debt

A

Junk bonds
Generally credit rating BBB-or worse
•Usually subordinated and/or unsecured
•“Bullet” maturity after full bank debt amortization (maturity of 8-10 years)
•Structured at the operating company level
•Usually not callable at par in early years, typically the first 1-5years
•Interest rate is fixed: Semi-annual interest payments
•Greater leverage capacity
•Sometimes public: Public filing requirements
•Process: Diligence, document, road-show, price and fund
Investors in high-yield debt: pension bonds, insurance companies, mutual funds

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13
Q

Mezzanine debt

A

Subordinated to bank debt and high yield bonds
•Flexible, typically floating interest rate
•Often structured at the holding company level
•Typically matures after bonds
•Non-amortizing, “bullet” maturity typically after 10 years (no mandatory principle payments, interest is paid only)
•Cash & PIK coupon payment further enhanced with equity warrants “equity kicker”
•PIK component can “eat” into equity (PIK Toggle provides an option to pay interest either in kind or in cash)
•Fully private, no public reporting requirement
•Process: Private negotiation with single or small number of parties

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14
Q

Summary: Sources of funds

A
  1. Bank debt (30-60% of the sources): expected returns are 4-8%. Low financing costs, lowest default risk. Floating rate, callable instrument. Covenants
  2. Yield yield debt (0-15%): expected returns are 8-14%. Typically fixed rate loan, prepayable penalties for first few years, limited flexibility in raising additional debt
  3. Quassi Equity (0-15%): expected returns 15-20%. Downside protection like debt with upside potential like equity
  4. Common equity (20-50%): expected return 20-40%. Riskiest security in capital structure and no downside protection. Private market equity is financial sponsor and public market equity is common shareholder
    - -> riskier has higher expected return
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15
Q

Anatomy of a deal

A
  1. Formal review (review every opportunity and screen possible companies)
  2. Initial due diligence & initial offer: explore the deal and develop detailed financial case. Assess competitive edge in the process and/or post-deal and identify partner
  3. Extensive due diligence: conduct thorough commercial and financial due diligence and evaluate management team.
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16
Q

How can PE firms generate value?

A
  1. Pre-acqusition:
    Identify investment theses (why do you want to own the business); identify parts of the investment thesis that are in PE’s control; extensive company and industry due diligence; disciplined approach to purchase price focusing on below market multiples
  2. Senior management. Compensation: individuals do what they are incentived to do
  3. Improve business operations. Trend: in house operations group
  4. Financial management. Managing working capital, managing expenses, managing the balance sheet (capital structure, timing of refinancing, dividends)
  5. Optimize exit. Understand industry M&A activity and trends, position company with strategic or market buyers, evaluate potential for an IPO, sale to a strategic or out of the box opportunities
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17
Q

Assets Under Management (AUM) and Dry Powder

A

Assets under management = dry powder + unrealized value of assets
Dry powder is uncalled capital commitments
Unrealized value of assets is the current estimated value of the portfolio
Trend is higher AUM recently but not really a problem since deal activity is higher as well so there is a place to put the AUM

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18
Q

Trends in PE

A

Sellers market now - high prices
Lot of capital being raised recently
Lot of AUM and increasing a lot
Dry powder up
This is all okay since global deal activity also up
Size of deals not as large as in 06 and 07 before recession
Holding period shifting more toward 3-5 years. Still is just slightly majority more than 5 years.
Multiples increasing
Exit values increasing. Most sales are to strategics who will pay premiums. Some to other GPs and others IPOs
Upper quartertile PE funds are consistently the best. Bottom quartile doing worse than S&P 500
Performance is therefore persistent in that the top funds outperform the rest on a consistent basis
More different types and more frequent investing in PE as LPs

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19
Q

Fund vintage

A

Fund vintage:
The vintage year is the year in which the first influx of investment capital is delivered to a fund
It is important bc the vintage year helps determine the nature of the business cycle in which the fund entered
Fund vintage is a key attribute in secondary transactions

20
Q
Multiple example
Two comparable publicly trade firms:
A: V1 = $3B and EBITDA1 = $250M
B: V1 = $2B and EBITDA1 = $200M
Determine the multiple for each company and how to get EV. Our EBITDA is 100M
A
EV/EBITDA multiple 
Firm A: 3000/250 = 12
Firm B: 2000/200 = 10
Average = 11
Our EBITDA = 100 * EV/EBITDA of 11 = $1,100M.
This is the EV
EV = Value - excess cash
Subtract debt to get the equity value
21
Q

Valuation in LBOs

A

PE hold portfolio companies for 5 years on average
Multiples at entry to calibrate price they are paying relative to broader industry or sector averages (this is what the industry currently pays)
PE sponsors forecast cash flows for a number of years, usually 5, and then use multiples approach to find the exit value (multiples at exit). This multiple is harder to get as need to project it
You need to consider which multiple base to use, what is reasonable, does the exit type matter, how do we get the right comparable firms, why do similar firms have different multiples
We should compare our multiples to multiples of similar firms and make sure in line with the other companies. If your DCF multiple implied multiple is different from market multiples, maybe reconsider your DCF or otherwise be able to justify why so different

22
Q

EBITDA margin and multiples

Would 10% or 20% margin have a higher multiple?

A

EBITDA margin = EBITDA/revenue
Higher means less costs. High margin is generally good
Generally 20% would have higher multiple as less risky, could be 10% if we think growth opportunities
It depends on what we think of the company

23
Q

How multiples relate to DCF

A

Total enterprise value (TEV) of a company = PV of future cash flows that the investor expects it to produce in the future periods (EV = Equity + net debt)
A multiple is intended to be a multiple that, when applied to the relevant profit measure of the business, can be to (short-hand) estimate a company’s TEV

TEV = NPV of future cash flows = sum of the future cash flows discounted by r = UFCF/(r-g) = 1/(r-g) * UFCF = (1/(r-g) * M) * EBITDA where M is a constant

TEV = (1/(r-g)) * constant * EBITDA
r is the discount rate of the company’s cash flows, varies with risk free rate and risk associated w cash flows of the business
g is the expected growth rate for the business, which depends on underlying macro, industry growth, and company-specific initiatives
constant is the estimated conversion rate of profits (whatever metric used) into an estimate of cash flows
EBITDA is a key profit metric that can be reliably estimated (and compared among competitors) that drives valuation

24
Q

Multiples approach: steps

A
  1. Choose comparable companies. Should depend on the type of multiple. Want similar industry, capital structure, growth potential, operating margins, business plan. Exclude firms in process of major restructuring or other strategic changes
    Note that too many firms means less likely to be comparable but too little firms means we cannot average out the idiosyncratic noise
  2. Choose bases (measure of performance) for multiples
  3. Average across comparable firms. Median generally better as mean is too high bc of outliers
  4. Project bases for the valued firm
  5. Value the firm
25
Q

Different types of multiple

A

PE multiple: relates earnings per share with share price
EBITDA multiple: related EBITDA with core operating value. Before D&A bc non-cash
Sales multiple
Non-financial multiple (value per user, value per subscriber…)
Premium paid approach: used in analyzing fairness of a takeover bid. Premium being offered is compared to the premiums paid in the most recently completed acquisitions to determine the fairness

26
Q

PE multiple and how it is related to DCF method

A

One of the most popular methods of valuation
Where n is the # of comparable firms, eps I is the earnings per share of firm I, and Pi is the share price of firm I:
P = eps * (1/n * sum from I = 1 to n of Pi/epsi)
Price = earnings per share * the average price/EPS

Cash flow to equity approach:
Step 1: estimate the cash flows to the equity of the levered firm:
Dividend = UFCFt - (1-T) * rd * Dt-1 - [Dt-1 - Dt]
This = UFCF in year t - after tax interest expense - reduction in debt

Step 2: discount dividends at the levered cost of capital, re to get the value of the levered equity, E

P0 = E = sum of dt/(1+re)^t where d is the dividends
If we assume constant growth, g, then P0 = d1/(re-g)
Earnings per share times number of shares vs total free cash flow to levered equity

Suppose firm’s dividend is fraction of earnings
b is the payout ratio so dt = beps1
P0 = b
eps1/(re-g)
Given constant growth, P0= b*eps0 * (1+g) / (re-g)
So, earnings multiple P0/eps0 = b(1+g)/(re-g)

High growth firms have higher multiples
Higher leverage and risk –> higher re –> lower multiples ‘
EBITDA multiples similarly relate firm value to EBITDA

27
Q

EBITDA

A

Crude proxy for cash flows
EBITDA = UFCF + Taxes + CapEx + change in NWC
EBITDA will overstate free cash flow and is less volatile than free cash flow. Capex and delta NWS are discretionary and vary with business cycle
EBITDA measures earnings of existing assets not new investments. Differences in growth opportunities is important and EBITDA multiples are useful for mature firms whose value comes mainly from existing assets
Adjust EBITDa for odd events such as large sale to a non-recurring customer or extraordinary write-off
Immune to leverage. Pro-forma adjustments

28
Q

How to choose the base

A
  1. EBITDA: easy to track + often forecasted. Doesn’t account for capital intensity
  2. EBITDAR (EBITDA before rent): normalizes for property ownership and doesn’t account for capital intensity
  3. EBITDA - Capex: account for current capital intensity. Capex can be lumpy
  4. EBITA (EBITDA after depreciation): accounts for normalized capital intensity. Not always available, rarely estimated

Point here is there is no perfect solution. Use what offers the best comparison across the companies

29
Q

What Matters and How to Measure?

A
  1. Growth: forecast vs. historical.
  2. Cash flow conversion. Capex vs EBITDA
  3. Volatility: volatility of earnings growth
  4. Stability/defensibility: earnings margin,. Return on capital (EBITDA-capex)/(Net PPE + NWC)

EBITDA * Mentry = TEV
TEV - D0 = E0
IRR = (Eexit/Eentry)^1/t - 1
TEV = EBITDA * Mexit - D5 = E5

Money on money = Eexit/Eentry
TEV = UFCF/(r-g) = 1/(r-g) * c * EBITDA5

30
Q

Path

A

Consider what the business will look like in the future, what public companies might it look like, which companies to choose, what are the right bases, and what is the right multiple range for the target at exit

31
Q

How are PE funds structured

A

Private limited partnerships
Individual managers are the GP
10 year life for the partnerships with +1+1 extension
4-6 year investment period
1-2% annual management fee on the invested capital
Profits are split 80-20 after reaching hurdle return level for LPs
LPs need to fund within 2-3 weeks of capital call on a pro-rate basis (legally binding) drawdown notice
Penalties for failure to fund by LPs
IRRs depend on when money is transferred by LPs

Relationships between LP and GP are important. During recession typically not a lot of acquisitions by GP bc GP doesn’t get money from LP. Don’t want to go after the LP and get the money bc need future relationship

PE fund is at the middle. PE principle –> general partner –> PE fund
GP will get 80% of profits. Puts in 1% of the capital
LPs put in 99% of the equity.
PE fund gives management fee to the management company. PE principal are members of the management company
PE fund has multiple portfolio companies

32
Q

Management Fees

A

Purpose is to cover salaries, leases, travel, and admin expenses
During investment period: 2% of committed capital. In rare cases, fee is charged only on invested capital
Following end of the investment period, 2% of the invested capital
No mgmt fee after original termination date

33
Q

Other Fees

A
  1. Carried interest: goal is to pay for performances. Typically 20% of profits net of all expenses. Portfolio vs. deal by deal
  2. Transaction fee: could be 1-2% of the deal value
  3. Monitoring fee: portfolio company pays GP. Management services agreement. Usually a fraction of revenue or EBITDA
  4. Trend: GPs are under pressure. GPs started to share these fees with their LPs
34
Q

Distribution Waterfall

A

Proceeds are distributed first to the LPs recovering all investments made including management fees
Preferred return: preferred return on capital and costs compounded annually “hurdle rate” (8% annually)
GP catch-up
Fast: GP receives all additional profits until their share reaches 20%
Slow: GP receives a larger fraction, say 50% of all additional profits until GPs share of profits reaches 20%
Manager and investors split the remaining profits 20-80

35
Q

Waterfall example:
Investment in at end of year 1: $100
Return of capital at end of year 5: $120

A

LPs receive their capital back: $100–> $20 left
LPs receive their other costs: 5 years of management fee = $10, so there is $10 left

Do LPs receive their preferred return?
They pay $2 mgmt fee in year 0, $2 + $100 in year 1, $2 in years 2-4, and $120 in year 5

–> 2(1+8%)^5 + 102 * (1.08)^4 + 2(1.08)^3 + 2(1.08)^2 + 2*(1.08) - 110
Note this is putting everything in PV at year 5. The 110 is the minimum return –> capital (100) and fees (10)
The preferred return adds up to $38.73 (143.73-110)
But $38.73>10, so LPs receive the entire $120

36
Q

Example 2:

Return of capital at end of year 5 = $150 now

A

LPs receive capital back - $100–> $50 left
LPs receive other costs (mgmt fee of $10, so $40 left)
Do LPs get preferred return?
2(1+8%)^5 + 102 * (1.08)^4 + 2(1.08)^3 + 2(1.08)^2 + 2*(1.08) - 110 = $38.73. There is now $1.27 left (40-38.73)
GP catches up: GP needs $9.68 (25% of $28.73) (in order to catch up the GP needs to get one quarter of what the LPs get). But $9.68>$1.27, so GP gets $1.27 and LPs receive $148.73

37
Q

Example 3:

Return of capital at end of year 5 = $200 now

A

LPs receive capital back - $100–> $100 left
LPs receive other costs (mgmt fee of $10, so $90 left)
Do LPs get preferred return?
2(1+8%)^5 + 102 * (1.08)^4 + 2(1.08)^3 + 2(1.08)^2 + 2*(1.08) - 110 = $38.73. There is now $51.27 left (90-38.73)
GP catches up: GP receives $9.68 (25% of $28.73) (in order to catch up the GP needs to get one quarter of what the LPs get).
There is now $41.60 left
LPs get 80% and GPs get 20% of the $41.60
So, GP gets $9.68 + 20% of 41.60 = $18 total
LPs get $148.73 + 80% of 41.60 = 182

38
Q

Whole fund vs deal-by-deal distribution model

A

2 ways funds calculate distributions
Whole fund model: manager doesn’t;’t get carry until investors get capital and preferred return
Deal-by-deal model: distributions calculated on a deal by deal basis, which means carry can precede full investor capital return

39
Q

American vs European waterfall

A

European Waterfall: Requires the return of all contributed capital (including costs) to LPs before distribution of any preferred or carried interest

American Waterfall: Requires the return of all capital contributed capital for “realized” investments only before distribution of any preferred or
carried interest.

40
Q

Carried Interest Clawback

A

• If (a) GP receives more than 20% of cumulative net profits, or (b) LPs are not fully paid the preferred return, then GP must return any over- distributed carried interest to the partnership
• Clawbacks can happen even with European waterfall
• Partners with equity interest in the GP can guarantee the clawback obligation
• Reserve a portion of the carry in the escrow is another partial solution.
o Negotiation item
• Tax complications:
o Deferring carried interest create an unfunded tax liability for the GP
o GPs may not be able to return gross carried interest they have received because of the tax they have paid
▪In practice, many GPs only return after tax carried interest resulting in some tax benefit for future years

41
Q

Covenants

A

• Investment focus
o limits investment in asset classes other than private portfolio companies (e.g., public companies, other PE partnerships)
o limits investment in sector other than the fund’s defined specialization
• Investment size
o limits size of a single investment
o Reinvestments of profits is often permitted but restricted
• Co-investments across funds
o require approval by LPs for co-investment by earlier fund, or by third-party
o sometimes, there is a requirement that the earlier fund will invest simultaneously at the same valuation
• Co-investments by GPs themselves
o require LPs’ approval, restrict investment size, timing, terms, or require GP investments to be proportional to LPs investments
• More covenants:
o Future fundraising activities are not allowed till sufficient amount of investment is made for the current fund
o Sale of GP interests is not easily allowed
o Inclusion of new GPs is restricted
o “Key person provision”: if a key person dies or withdraws from the team, LPs reserve the right to suspend contributions or terminate the fund
o LPs can terminate the fund or remove GP
▪ “without cause”: Requires (super)majority of investors

42
Q

Big Picture with LBO Modeling

A

Calculate IRR.
If PE sponsor invests E0 in period 0, and receives only one payoff, a payment En in period n, then IRR = (En/E0)^(1/n) - 1
To solve for IRR, you need E0 and Et where Et is the equity value at the exit year
At the time of entry, you know E0 and D0
At time of exit, EV = EBITDAt * M, where M is the multiple
Et = EVt - Dt, where D is the net debt
In order to find the net debt in each year, need to find the free cash flow for debt pay down which = UFCF - (interest expense * (1-T))
Or, it = (EBIT - Interest Expense)*(1-T) + Depreciation - Capex - Investment in NWC

43
Q

LBO Modeling

A
  1. Entry assumptions: purchase price (earnings metric, entry multiple)
  2. Transaction funding (revolver, senior debt, subordinated debt, mezzanine…)
  3. Create sources and uses
    Sources lists how the transaction will be financed (sources: debt borrowed + equity needed)
    Uses lists the capital uses (uses: outstanding debt value + outstanding equity value + premium paid + transaction cost)
    –> Don’t forget transaction cost
    Remember that sources = uses
  4. Financial projections: project out financial statements (usually 5 years) and determine how much debt is paid down each year. Adjust the BS for new debt and equity
  5. Exit assumptions: exit multiple and time horizon
  6. Other things to consider: management roll-over equity and mgmt incentive option pool
44
Q

Things to note from practice exam LBO

A

Q1: for sources side, make sure to differentiate from sponsor equity and management equity if the mgmt team is involved
Fees are on the total transaction, includes the amount you use to pay down debt
Q2: Getting to UFCF and then subtract after tax interest expense, which is interest * debt at beginning of the year (end of previous year). Don’t forget to subtract tax
Note that change in working capital is the diff in woking capital year to year. If you get WC3 and WC 2, then change in yr 3 = WC3-WC2
Q3: Use multiple to get TEV and then subtract debt to get equity value
Q4: IRR formula provided on the eq sheet. (En/E0)^1/n - 1
Q5: Consider how would be different if we had diff debit structure - wouldn’t always be the same way
Q6: Required rate of return is re
Since capital structure changes, re changes as well. Need to un-lever the levered beta with old capital structure and then re-lever with the new one
The new CS is in the year you’re looking at. So if it asks for the end of 2015, you use the E2015 number and the D2015 number, which is calculated as: EBITDA * M = TEV 2015. Then subtract D 2015 to get E2015
So then re-lever with this new capital structure and get re that way
Q7: In part 6, the discount rate (re,2015) is calculated based on the expected debt and equity levels as of end of 2015. To calculate the equity value at 2014, one needs to use the discount rate (re,2014) which is a function of the expected debt and equity values in 2014.
E2014= E2015 / (1+re,2014)
E2013= E2014 / (1+re,2013)
Discount rate will decrease every year as D/E falls
So, if you use the wrong discount rate (re, 2015), then you will be overstating the NPV as the discount rate declines each year

45
Q

LBO Model from Class

A
  1. Get entry payment–> EBITDA * entry multiple - TEV then subtract repaid debt = amount paid for equity then subtract net book value of equity (doesn’t include AP) and you get goodwill
    Then take transaction fees as a % of value and multiply it by the total EV and then add this fees to the total EV
  2. Create sources and uses
    Sources are the new debt and the equity (plug)
    Uses are the debt repayment, purchase of the equity (amount paid for equity) and the fees
    Note that sources = uses = the total from above (EBITDA * multiple) + fees
  3. Adjust the balance sheet with the new items we made. Add the goodwill and add the new debt and subtract old debt. Note new shareholders equity = sponsor equity on the sources - the fees and expenses
  4. Project income statement, balance sheet, statement of cash flows, and debt schedule
    Note that the debt balance on the BS is at the end of the year. The free cash flow (UFCF - after tax interest) is the amount that can pay down debt in that year. Note that since interest rate is calculated based on previous year’s debt (debt at begin of the year), no circularity
  5. Valuation:
    Valuing it in each year:
    A. Get EBITDA in each year
    B. Multiply EBITDA * multiple and then you have your total value in each year
    C. Subtract amount of debt that is on the BS in each year (debt at end of yr)
    D. Mgmt options:
    i. Value of mgmt options is 5% of the equity value in each year.
    ii. Cash from exercise of options is 5% of original equity investment
    iii. Subtract value of mgmt options - cash from exercise = mgmt gains on options
    E. Add cash from exercise to the equity value.
    F. IRR for total equity is then based on this new equity in each year compared to the original
    G. Equity to sponsor takes this equity value and you subtract the value of mgmt options (5% of equity value) - note this is already after adding the cash from exercise, so you really are just subtracting the mgmt gains on the options from the total value - debt
    H. Calculate IRR to the sponsor based on the equity to the sponsor
  6. Value bridge
    Look at how the change in EBITDA after multiplying by the multiple, net debt, fees, options, and sponsor equity all change after doing the deal