Exam 1 Flashcards
Value
The expected future free cash flows discounted at the opportunity cost of capital.
Value is not necessarily equal to price; can be though. Value is what you get, price is what you pay
Value is how much something is worth to you, but it isn’t really subjective since it is “the” expected future cash flow and “the” opportunity cost of capital
Opportunity cost of capital: the expected return on independent with similar risk
How to calculate UFCF
UFCF = EBIAT + depreciation – capex – investment in NWC (ΔNWC)
When NWC is a percent of sales, ΔNWC = % (sales in yr t+1 - sales in yr t)
Also, ΔNWC = Δrequired cash + Δnon-cash working capital
And Levered free cash flows = UFCF - Interest * (1-Tax)
UFCF go to all claim holders while FCF just to equity holders
Opportunity cost of capital
Need the following 2 things to determine opportunity cost of capital:
1. The return required for simply waiting (often referred to as the time value of money)
2. The return required to compensate for any exposure to risk
Many theories on relationship between risk and return; more risk rewarded by higher expected returns. Most popular theory: CAPM.
Cost of capital is a function of the investment, not the investor. Use the company you’re evaluating’s cost of capital
CAPM
ri = rf + Beta * MRP
rf should be the spot rate. Can use short term (truly risk free, match life of investment) or long term (match life of company)
rm should be a diverse portfolio
Beta is the expected percent change in the excess return of a security for a 1% change in the excess return of the market portfolio. Beta of risk free = 0 bc doesn’t change w market, Beta of the market = 1
Beta = Covariance (ri, rm) / Variance (rm)
Also use a regression estimation to calculate levered Beta
We can compare only unlevered Betas, since levered Betas depend on capital structure. So we get the levered, unlever it, then relever it w new company
See the equations on the sheet to do this
Interest Tax Shield
= Interest * tax
Discount it by the cost of debt when you have a dollar amount of debt; discount by the unlevered cost of capital when it is a % (I.e. constant capital structure rather than dollar amount)
WACC Valuation Method
Average return the firm must pay to its investors on an after tax basis; the cost of capital for the free cash flows generated by the firm’s assets
The WACC approach is most useful when the leverage ratio is fixed over time. Tax shields are as risky as cash flows in this case (rua)
If stable D/V, then WACC stable. If not, WACC should change each year.
WACC assumes interest fully deductible and no NOLs
WACC = re *E/V + rd * D/V * (1-T)
Using WACC for Valuation:
1. Estimate UFCF in each year
2. Compute rwacc
3. Discount unlevered free cash flows at rwacc —> this is the value of the levered firm, VL
4. Subtract value of debt to get equity —> E = VL-D
Examples:
- True or false: We calculated our WACC two years ago. We have not changed our capital structure since then. Similarly, our equity beta has not changed. Therefore, we can use the same weighted average cost of capital as a hurdle rate to evaluate potential projects in the same line of business
- Firm B is publicly traded but division D is not. Is it useful to know Firm B’s beta?
- Division D has many competitors. Are the competitors’ betas relevant?
- FALSE —> Tax rate may change, rf may change, Beta D may change, rm may change. WACC is annual, when evaluating, you really should change WACC every year
- Maybe. If in same business, yes. Even if same business though, could be different capital structures. So, we compare unlevered betas to control for this and then re-lever
- Yes, but again need unlevered
Takeaways with WACC
- Discount factor: Every asset has to be discounted by its own risk adjusted discount factor with its own beta and its own capital structure
- Comparable firms: If no beta for asset, then identify pure players that are publicly traded, unlever each beta, average all unlevered betas as a proxy for Beta U. Then lever up using the asset’s capital structure to get to BETA E
- Divisional hurdle ratesL: If no comparables for division D, then:
Determine BETAU for other divisions
Firm B’s BETAU is a weighted average of divisional BETAU’s. You can reverse engineer BETAU of division D
Find competitors of other division Beta, get BetaU of firm and BetaU of firm less division D.
For example, divisions A-C and we know their Beta U’s and we know the firm’s BetaU, then we can do a weighted average to get the Beta U of D
What happens if we use Firm B’s BETAU for division D?
Overvalue riskier divisions, undervalue less risky divisions - Conflicts of interest:
If a firm is levered then:
Conflict of interest between existing creditors and shareholders
Shareholders maximize incumbent shareholder value not firm value
Shareholders may dislike positive NPV projects that transfers value from them to existing creditors (underinvestment problem)
Example: True or false: If firm A pays less than value of division D then shareholders of firm A are better off due to the acquisition as long as manager’s interests are fully aligned with those of the shareholders?
—> Generally true. Pay less, get more. Make sure consider the costs, make sure no negative synergies
What if firm A isn’t all equity? Shifting value from debt to equity holders—> underinvestment problem
APV
WACC assumes constant debt ratio; APV is best when debt ratio is changing over time and have debt values rather than ratio. Good for LBOs as a result of that, since have debt levels
PV of interest tax shields is incorporated directly and not by adjusting discount rate
We find VL by calculating VU directly and then adding PV of ITS
For a levered firm, APV treats tax shields and other potential side effects of leverage as separate cash flows. WACC approach adjusts discount rate rather than CF
Steps:
1. Estimate UFCF (same as with WACC)
2. Discount UFCF @ rU. This gives Vu.
3. Estimate ITS for each future period: ITSt = τ rDDt-1
4. Discount ITS using rD to get PV(ITS).
5. VL = VU + PV(ITS)
6. E=VL–D
When using this on the exam, add the following 4 things:
1. PV of the ITS at rd
2. PV of the UFCF in the years valued at rua
Then we get the terminal value of the unlevered firm using the next year’s cash flow and dividing by rua - g
Do the same for levered firm with rwacc
The subtract these two values
The difference is the TV of the ITS
3. PV of the TV ITS at rd
4. PV of the TV unlevered at rua
Subtracting debt to get equity value, subtract the PV of the debt stream discounted at rd (if par bond, I.e. interest rate = discount rate, then just subtract face value)
If creditors are paid above/below the market interest rate, what happens to the creditors, overall firm, and shareholders?
- If creditors are paid above market interest rate, then:
There is a transfer of value from shareholders to the creditors
Each extra dollar paid to the creditor:
A. Makes creditors $1 better off
B. Makes overall firm $τ better off
C. Makes shareholders $(1- τ) worse off - If creditors are paid below market interest rate
Then there is a transfer of value from creditors to shareholders
Each dollar of interest savings:
A. Makes creditors $1 worse off
B. Makes overall firm $τ worse off
C. Makes shareholders $(1- τ) better off
WACC vs APV
WACC:
Tax shield benefits in discount rate, D/V constant, use with typical project
APV:
Tax shield benefits added to CF - not in discount rate, need debt amounts rather than D/V, can handle side effects like interest not fully deductible or NOLs
Multiples
Law of one price - 2 identical cash flow streams should have the same price
Valuation by multiples is quick and convenient, can be used as a sanity check to compare vs DCF
If differs from DCF, look for reasons why. Do DCFs of comparable companies and revisit DCF and see if we learn
First find a set of comparable companies (firms with similar cash flow characteristics: similar risk, brand position, market share, age and expected growth rates)
Next, average comparables’ multiples and multiply that by the analogous statistic for your enterprise
Steps:
Step 1 - Choose bases (measure of performance) for multiples
Step 2 - Choose comparable firms: should depend on the type of multiple
Step 3 – Average/median bases across comparable firms
Step 4 - Project bases for the valued firm
Step 5 - Value the firm
Picking Comparable Firms for Multiples
We want comparable based on:
Industry, technology, and size
Capital structure
Growth potential
Operating margins
Exclude firms in the process of a major restructuring or other strategic changes
Tradeoff of too many firms (less likely to be comparable) and too little firms (we cannot average out the idiosyncratic noise)
Problem with earnings is if negative. Firms are heterogenous so P/E ratios are incomparable (accounting methods, risk characteristics and capital structures, growth opportunities, some firms may have assets that can impact P/E ratio)
Cash flow to equity
Estimate cash flows to the equity of the levered firm
Dividend = UFCF - (1-T)*rDt-1 - [Dt-1 - Dt] –> dividend = UFCF in the year - after tax interest expense - reduction in debt from last year to this year
Then discount dividends at the levered cost of capital, re
High growth firms have higher multiples
Higher leverage/risk –> higher re–> lower multiples
Reinvestment: lower reinvestment (high payout) –> higher PE ratio
EBITDA Multiple
Enterprise Value / EBITDA
EV = E + D - Cash (or excess cash)
Usually, book value fine proxy for value of debt
Excess cash subtracted to get core enterprise value
Adjust EBITDA for odd events such as large sale to non-recurring customer or extraordinary write-off
Immune to leverage
EBITDA is crude proxy for cash flows
EBITDA = UFCF + Taxes + CapEx + Δ NWC
EBITDA will overstate free cash flow
EBITDA is less volatile than free cash flow
CapEx and ∆NWC are discretionary & vary with business cycle
EBITDA measures earnings of existing assets, not new investments
Differences in growth opportunities is important
EBITDA multiples are useful for mature firms whose value comes mainly from existing assets
Why not just use a free cash flow multiple?
Free cash flow is volatile and sometimes negative
Premium Paid Approach
Used in analyzing the “fairness” of a takeover bid.
The premium being offered is compared to the premiums paid in the most recently completed acquisitions to determine the “fairness”
Average premium (over pre-merger price) paid to target shareholders, based on 4256 takeovers, is 38
Problems:
The value of synergies will differ across acquisitions
There is a serious selection bias when only the premiums for completed transactions are considered. If anything, these are more likely to be those transactions in which the bidder has overpaid
Pre-announcement price may already be high in anticipation of a takeover
Merger
A merger is a transaction that combines two or more firms into a new firm (we’ll focus on 1 acquirer and 1 target case)
Shareholders of the combining firms often remain as joint owners of the combined entity. New entity may be formed subsuming the merged firms
Acquisition
An acquisition is the outright purchase of the assets or stock of one firm by another
The acquired firm becomes a subsidiary of the acquirer
The acquired firm’s shareholders generally cease to be owners
Horizontal and Vertical
Horizontal:
Target and acquirer are in the same industry (Exxon and Mobile). Antitrust issues
Vertical:
Target’s industry buys from or sells to acquirer’s industry
Firms are in different stages of the production process (ex: airline company buys a travel agency, Luxottica: Italian glasses supplier enters US and buys Sunglass Hut and Raymond and force to do deal or won’t be in distribution channel)
Major benefit of vertical integration is coordination (ex: oil companies)
Merger Wave and Why
A clustering in time of successful takeover bids at the industry- or economy wide level
Occur in periods of:
Economic recovery (high and sustained growth)—> have capital/cash to invest
Rapid credit expansion - low or declining interest rates
Booming stock markets —> overvalued stock —> buy another less-overvalued company
Firms tend to use stock as an acquisition currency
Industrial and technological shocks—> other companies want a piece. Merger waves cluster within industries
Regulatory changes
M&A waves end with collapse of stock markets
Why in waves?
Occurs in waves because of deal frenzy, herd behavior, envious CEOs
Information asymmetry: overvalued bidders use their stock
But target shouldn’t accept stock at these times
Uncertainty about synergies is correlated with overall uncertainty in the market
In an overvalued market, companies tend to overestimate the synergies, and hence, more willing to accept equity offers
Many of the same technological developments and economic activity that leads to expansions and bull markets also motivate the managers to reshuffle assets through mergers and acquisitions
Competition by new entrants and consolidation (ex: new technologies or deregulation make an industry shift necessary)
Corporate Buyers (Strategics) v. Private Equity
PE deals don’t get the benefit of synergies, but tend to have greater efficiency and focus on exit strategies
PE backed M&A has ranged from 20-30% of total M&A
Basic Merger Facts
Generally friendly (negotiated transaction between management and directors of two firms)
Requires the approval of both management teams/boards before stockholders vote
Can be structured so they are not taxable events for target stockholders unless they sell the bidder’s stock:
Taxable Event: Usually when payment is in cash, sellers of shares pay tax on capital gains
Tax-Free Event: Occurs when there is sufficient “continuity of interest” by the selling shareholders; which requires that most shareholders exchange their shares in return for the buyer’s stock. No capital gains taxes are paid
—> Taxable is cash transaction and tax-free is stock-for-stock
Term Sheet: Summary of price and method of payment; consideration paid to target shareholders can be very complex
Hostile Merger
Management of target firm does not recommend bid to shareholders
Acquirer gains majority stake through:
Negotiated transaction with large shareholder
Tender offer where you bypass management and make offer directly to shareholders
Creeping tender where you use open market operations to slowly acquire controlling stake
Often done for cash so that it can happen as quick as possible, this is most liquid. Don’t deal with other bidders. But, taxable events for target shareholder since in cash
Strong incentive for the bidding firm to complete the acquisition quickly to reduce probability that a competing bidder will come along.
Generally higher premium in hostile takeover
Tender Offers
Generally unfriendly. Bidder goes directly to the stockholders to buy their stock, votes, etc
Often done for cash —> taxable events for target shareholders
Process:
Start with public announcement following a 14d filing with the SEC
Filing must specify the consideration offered to the shares of the target firm, the objective of the merger (acquisition), and the timeline of events
The target management has 10 days to respond to the offer via a 14d-9 filing
Motivation for Mergers
Operating Synergies, financial synergies, shady motivations, questionable motives (diversification, lower cost of debt, higher EPS)
Operating Synergies
Lower costs
Economies of scale
Economies of scope (a proportionate saving gained by producing two or more distinct goods, when the cost of doing so is less than that of producing each separately; ex: soft drinks and snack foods)
Economies of vertical integration. Ex: buy your suppler
Revenue enhancement (ex: Delta and Northwest—> more customers)
Note that cost reduction synergies are easier to achieve because just getting rid of duplicates. Can fire people. For revenue synergies, need to achieve what you believe
Financial Synergies
Tax shields are due to higher debt capacity (stepping up the basis to create tax shields)
Using NOLs of the target (this is different from tax shield point) —> new rule where only can carry forward NOL rather than also carry backward
Lower financial distress (lower cost of capital?)
Acquiring expertise, combining complementary resources
Buying undervalued or inefficiently operated assets
Gaining market power or entry to new markets (monopoly gains)
Limiting an increase in market power of competitors
Diversification (aka risk reduction and increasing debt capacity)
Agency problems:
Incentive conflicts
Acquisitions as a control device (a way to remove bad managers)
Empire building/managerial entrenchment, excess cash: share repurchases vs. acquisitions, and hubris: managers believe they can beat the odds
It is difficult, but important, to estimate the values of these. Always ask yourself whether it is necessary to merge to capture the efficiency/pricing gains. Are other contracting methods better than paying a premium to buy control?
Synergy Gains: Horizontal Mergers
Firms producing similar products in similar markets (same industry)
Antitrust Division of the Justice Department & Federal Trade Commission worry about horizontal mergers
Monopoly pricing makes consumers worse off
Efficiency-increasing mergers make consumers better off: more output at lower prices
Horizontal mergers can yield economies of scale in R&D, purchasing, production, etc
Synergy Gains: Vertical Mergers
Upstream firms buys a downstream firm, or vice versa
Are there efficiency gains from internal rather than external contracting?
Control over suppliers may reduce costs
Over integration can cause the opposite effect
Vertical mergers can yield better commitment and coordination of production process
Synergy Gains: Congolmerate Mergers
Complementary mergers where you combine resources (ex: one firm has innovative product, other has great distribution and marketing)
Ex: big pharma firms (that have key drugs coming off patent) going after small firms with promising drugs
Do diversifying mergers create value?
1. Possible efficiencies in management, some centralized service, process, tech, infrastructure, purchasing, or distribution
2. Evidence: acquirers in diversifying mergers had negative abnormal returns (-2%) in the 80s. In the 90s, about 0%. Acquirers in related businesses: returns of +2% on average
Problem is diversifying mergers aren’t a good justification as you can just diversify your portfolio yourself
Shady Motivations
Basic idea is transferring value from other stakeholders to the shareholders
Targets of expropriation include:
1. Government: by reducing the slice of firm value they get in taxes
Through increase leverage (LBOs) or counting one firm’s loss against other firm’s profits
2. Existing bondholders: use merger to increase leverage, reducing existing bonds’ value
With more leverage, more risky, r goes up, PV down, lower value of bond
3. Employees: use merger to force layoffs or wage reductions that existing manager is unwilling to make
4. Consumers: increased market power is good for shareholders, but bad for customers. Antitrust law set to prevent it
Questionable Motives
- Diversification:
Absent “costly financial distress,” diversification at the corporate level doesn’t add value
Firms have other ways to reduce the risk of financial distress (hedging, change in leverage…)
Basic idea is that the stockholders can individually diversify, don’t need the firm to - Lower cost of debt
More diversified cash flows can lower the bond yields (bond prices will go up)
Yet this can actually hurt equity holders
Equity holders’ default option becomes less valuable —> redistribution of value from equity to debt
Yet, if there are costs of financial distress, lowering probability of default may also benefit equity holders - Higher earnings per share
Higher EPS may mechanically result from acquisition of a firm with a lower P/E ratio
This by itself won’t add value!
How to See if Merger Created Value at the Time
Need to measure abnormal returns around the announcement
Typically, one day window to multiple weeks around the announcement
Abnormal return is spread between raw return and benchmark (S&P 500). Use CAPM
See if stock is rising because market rose or if abnormal rise because of the company, so we look at abnormal return rather than just the stock straight up
Ex: Motorola jumped 56% and Google fell 1%. Google equity beta is 1.23, S&P went up 2.2%. Based on CAPM, Google normal daily return is market * equity beta = 1.23*2.2% = 2.71%. So, abnormal return of -1 - 2.71 = -3.71%
GOOG shareholders unhappy with the merger, don’t agree with the explanation and large acquisition premium — seen with how much Motorola shares increased
Problem with this method: immediate reaction/over reaction
Run Ups
We see target stock returns start going up before the announcement date then way up on announcement date
Initial takeover bids are typically preceded by substantial target stock price run-ups
Leaks, speculation based in peers being taken over results in this
Positive correlation with takeover premium because:
- Initiation of a takeover bid results in rival bidders, bid each other up
- Runup may be informative about the target standalone/combined value (synergies). Runups may signal the expected value of the merger and/or whether the market expect the deal will be completed
- Target resistance (shareholders may think the value of their company is greater than the price. Managers don’t want to lose their jobs after the merger (note that this may lead to lower premium if the managers secure a position in the merged company
Why do mergers fail?
Pay too much
Due diligence failures: only 30% of bidders pleased with their due diligence
Poor management of integration process
Strategy underlying the merger is inappropriate - evaluate
—> Acquirers overpay, winner’s curse, merger hubris or empire building. Once attractive target is identified, competitors join the bid
Ex: AOL and Time Warner. Problems with culture and plans didn’t align, they split up