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NURP 422 - ex 2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q 
Allergy to Sulfonamides there will be a cross sensitivity to:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. All of the above
A

D. All off the above

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2
Q

Common side effect of using a penicillin product for strep throat in a patient with mononucleosis is:

A

A maculopapular rash

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3
Q

Which is the best med for a pt with liver dysfunction that has an infection that is best treated with a macrolide?

A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
B. Telithromycin (Ketek)
C. Erythromycin (E-mycin)
D. None of the above

A

A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)

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4
Q 
Which med is used to treat Trichomonas as well as BV?
A. Doxycycline 
B. Azithromycin 
C. Metronidazole 
D. Ciprofloxacin
A

C. Metronidazole

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5
Q

Pt has a prolonged QT interval which medications should be avoided?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Azithromycin
C. Fluconazole
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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6
Q

Sulfonamide mechanism of action

A. Inhibits folic acid synthesis
B. Enhance folic acid synthesis
C. Inhibits protein synthesis
D. Inhibits cellular replication of DNA

A

A. Inhibits folic acid synthesis

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7
Q

Calcium channel blockers help control blood pressure because it:

A. Decreases the amount of calcium inside the cell
B. Reduces stroke volume
C. Increases the activity of the Na+/K+/ATPase pump directly
D. Decreases heart rate

A

A. Decreases the amount of calcium inside the cell

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8
Q

When comparing ACEs and ARBs what holds true between the two (they do similarly)

A

Contribute to some retention of K+

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9
Q

Chronic administration of beta blockers to treat hypertension may contribute to:

A. Reduction in peripheral resistance
B. Vasoconstriction of coronary arteries due to beta stimulation
C. Reduction of the circulation of norepinephrine
D. Reduction of angiotensin II production

A

A. Reduction in peripheral resistance

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10
Q

Penicillin, beta-lactam, cephalosporin, monobactam and carbapenems mechanism of action

A

Inhibition of cell growth by interference with cell wall synthesis by binding to and inactivating the penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)

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11
Q

Use caution with this abx with patient that have fluid or sodium restrictions

A

Penicillin class

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12
Q

Adverse Events:
Maculopapular rash and urticaria
GI upset
Renal dysfunction high doses can cause seizures and encephalopathy

A

Penicillin class

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13
Q

Used for surgical prophylaxis, UTI, pneumococcal respiratory infections, gram + skin infections

A

1st generation Cephalosporins

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14
Q

Used to treat caPNA, respiratory tract infection, skin infections

A

2nd generation Cephalosporins

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15
Q

Abx for bacterial meningitis

A

3rd generation Cephalosporins

Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

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16
Q

Abx for nosocomial infections

A

4th generation
Ceftazidime (Fortaz)
Cefepime (maxipime)

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17
Q

Ceftaroline fosamil (Teflaro) covers ….

A

MRSA

The only cephalosporin that covers

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18
Q

Aztreonam (Azactam) a mobibactam is considered safer than what abx class

A

Aminoglycosides

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19
Q

Aztreonam (monobactams) has a cross allergy specifically with what abx

A

3rd generation cephalosporin -Ceftazidime

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20
Q

Abx used to treat CNS infections because it has a lower risk of causing seizures

A

Meropenem

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21
Q

Well known effect of carbapenems….

A

Neurotoxicity cause seizure activity

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22
Q

Are fluoroquinolones bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bactericidal

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23
Q

Fluoroquinolones cover gram positive and are known for treating….

A

S. pneumonia, ie caPNA

Streptococcus

24
Q

Agent of choice for UTI coverage…

A

Fluoroquinolones

25
Q

Abx that is best used for haPNA, nosocomial PNA

A

Cipro (Ciprofloxacin) or Levofloxacin (levaquin)

26
Q

Abx used for meningococcal prophylaxis

A

Ciprofloxacin

27
Q

Adverse events of fluoroquinolones

A

Prolonged QT interval
Tendon rupture
Tendonitis
Peripheral neuropathy

28
Q

Fluoroquinolones Dx/Dx interactions

A 
Inhibitor of P-450=increasing the effect of other meds such as:
Theophylline 
Warfarin 
Tizanidine
Propranolol

Corticosteroids will increase risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture

Hyper/hypoglycemic with insulin’s

29
Q

Macrolides (-omycin)

Mechanism of action

A

Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit

30
Q

Abx that covers Chlamydia, mycoplasma, legionella, rickettsia, mycobacteria, and spirochetes

A

Macrolides (-omycin)

31
Q

Macrolides (-omycin)

Gram?

A

+/-

32
Q

Telithromycin has limited uses due to its….

A

Hepatotoxicity

Known for liver and hepatic failure

33
Q

Extremely high doses of IV erythromycin and oral Clarithromycin have been associated with….

A

Ototoxicity

34
Q

Macrolides (-omycin) caution when given with other meds as it can

A

Prolong QT interval

35
Q

Aminoglycosides (-mycin) major draw back

A

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

36
Q

Abx class used to treat TB

A

Aminoglycosides (-mycin)

Specifically streptomycin

37
Q

Aminoglycosides (-mycin)

What do you need to monitor?

A

BUN
Creatinine
Serum levels

38
Q

Risk of ototoxicity increases when aminoglycosides (-mycin) are administered with….

A

High dose loop diuretics, high-dose macrolide antibiotics or vancomycin

39
Q

tetracyclines (-cycline) posses activity against ….

A

Gram +/- and atypical organisms

40
Q

Should tetracyclines be taken on a full or empty stomach?

A

Empty

41
Q

What abx is used to treat SIADH?

A

Tetracycline - demeclocycline

42
Q

Adverse events with tetracyclines

A 
Frequent side effects:
Anorexia
Nausea
Vomiting 
Epigastric distress
Photosensitivity

Hepatotoxicity is rare

Discolors bones such as teeth

43
Q

Dairy products impair absorption
Phenytoin and carbamazepine, cyp inducers decrease half life
Change the efficacy of birth control
Food decreases absorption
Administer 1 hour before or after antacids, iron, cholestyramine and sucralfate as the can chelate

What class?

A

Tetracyclines

44
Q

Only active against gram +

A

Glycopeptides (Vanco)
Macrolides (Erythromycin, Clarithromycin)
Fusidic acid
Nitrofurantoin

45
Q

Bacteriostatic

A 
Sulphonamides
Trimethoprim 
Tetracyclines 
Macrolides (erythromycin, Clarithromycin)
tetracyclines 
Chloramphenicol 
Lyncosamides (Clindamycin)
46
Q

Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) is used to treat what disease?

A

Ulcerative colitis

47
Q

Magenide (sulfamylon) and silver sulfadiazine (silvadene) are used to treat what?

A

Topical agents used to treat burns

48
Q

Combination of choice in treating UTI, P. jiroveci (PCP), toxoplasmosis….

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (bactrim)

49
Q

What abx class can cause hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency?

A

Sulfonamides

50
Q

Sulfonamides potentiate the effect of….

A

Warfarin
Phenytoin
Hypoglycemic agents
Methotrexate

51
Q

Due to its poor bioavailability this abx can be given orally to treat c.diff

A

Vancomycin

52
Q

Drug of choice for MRSA

A

Vanco

53
Q

What abx is usually used to treat Neutropenic fever, endocarditis, meningitis

A

Vanco

54
Q

Oxazolidinones (Linezolid) is used to treat ….

A

MRSA
Penicillin-resistant streptococci
VRE

55
Q

Oxazolidinones (linezolid) mechanism of action….

A

Bind to the 50S ribosomes distrupting bacterial protein synthesis

56
Q

What labs should be monitored while giving linezolid, especially if it is given longer than 2 weeks?

A

CBC as it can cause anemia, leukopenia and pancytopenia

NURP 422 - ex 2 (3 decks)

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