Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is most likely true of a protein that cotransports glucose and sodium ions into the intestinal cells of an animal?
A.) Glucose entering the cell down its concentration gradient provides energy for uptake of sodium ions against the electrochemical gradient.
B.) Sodium ions can move down their electrochemical gradient through the cotransporter whether or not glucose is present outside the cell.
C.) A substance that blocks sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein will also block the transport of glucose
D.) Sodium and glucose compete for the same binding site in the cotransporter.

A

C.) A substance that blocks sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein will also block the transport of glucose

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2
Q

A sodium-potassium pump _____.
A.) move three sodium ions out of a cell and two potassium ions into a cell while consuming an ATP for each cycle
B.) move three sodium ions out of a cell and two potassium ions into a cell and generates an ATP in each cycle
C.) moves three potassium ions out of a cell and two sodium ions into a cell while consuming 2 ATP in each cycle
D.) moves three potassium ions out of a cell and two sodium ions into a cell while producing an ATP for each cycle

A

A.) move three sodium ions out of a cell and two potassium ions into a cell while consuming an ATP for each cycle

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3
Q

The force driving simple diffusion is _____, while the energy source for active transport is _____.
A.) the concentration gradient; ATP
B.) phosphorylated protein carriers; ATP
C.) transmembrane pumps; electron transport
D.) the concentration gradient; ADP

A

A.) the concentration gradient; ATP

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4
Q

Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep a membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?
A.) The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids.
B.) The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, preventing adjacent lipids from packing tightly.
C.) Unsaturated fatty acids are more polar than saturated fatty acids.
D.) Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content and, therefore, more cholesterol in membranes.

A

B.) The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, preventing adjacent lipids from packing tightly.

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5
Q

Some regions of the plasma membrane, called lipid rafts, have a higher concentration of cholesterol molecules. At higher temperatures, these regions _____.
A.) have higher rates of lateral diffusion of lipids and proteins into and out of these regions
B.) detach from the plasma membrane and clog arteries
C.) are more fluid than the surrounding membrane
D.) are less fluid than the surrounding membrane

A

D.) are less fluid than the surrounding membrane

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6
Q
The voltage across a membrane is called the \_\_\_\_\_.
A.)  membrane potential 
  B.) chemical gradient 
C.)  osmotic potential 
D.)  electrochemical gradient
A

A.) membrane potential

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7
Q

Which of these are NOT embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer at all?
A.) transmembrane proteins
B.) integral proteins
C.) All of these are embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer.
D.) peripheral proteins

A

D.) peripheral proteins

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8
Q
What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?
  A.)small and hydrophobic 
B.)  ionic 
C.)  large and hydrophobic 
D.)  large polar
A

A.)small and hydrophobic

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9
Q

Cell membranes are asymmetrical. Which of the following statements is the most likely explanation for the membrane’s asymmetrical nature?
A.)Since the cell membrane forms a border between one cell and another in tightly packed tissues such as epithelium, the membrane must be asymmetrical
B.) Proteins only function on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane, which results in the membrane’s asymmetrical nature.
C.) Since cell membranes communicate signals from one organism to another, the cell membranes must be asymmetrical.
D.) The two sides of a cell membrane face different environments and carry out different functions.

A

D.) The two sides of a cell membrane face different environments and carry out different functions.

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10
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes selective permeability?
A.) An input of energy is required for transport.
B.) There must be a concentration gradient for molecules to pass through a membrane.
C.) Only certain molecules can cross a cell membrane.
D.) Lipid-soluble molecules pass through a membrane.

A

C.) Only certain molecules can cross a cell membrane.

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11
Q
Ions diffuse across membranes through specific ion channels down \_\_\_\_\_.
A.)  the electrical gradients 
B.)  their concentration gradients 
C.)  their electrochemical gradients 
D.)  their chemical gradients
A

C.) their electrochemical gradients

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12
Q

Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every domain of organisms: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. What does this most probably mean?
A.)Cells of each domain evolved proton pumps independently when oceans became more acidic.
B.) Proton gradients across a membrane were used by cells that were the common ancestor of all three domains of life.
C.) Proton pumps are necessary to all cell membranes.
D.) The high concentration of protons in the ancient atmosphere must have necessitated a pump mechanism.

A

B.) Proton gradients across a membrane were used by cells that were the common ancestor of all three domains of life.

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13
Q

Lysosomes maintain a pH of approximately 4.5-4.7, which is more acidic than the cytosol of the cell. Which of these is most likely responsible for maintaining the low pH of lysosomes?
A.) osmosis
B.) a proton pump that pumps H+ into the lysosome
C.) passive diffusion
D.) a proton pump that pumps H+ out of the lysosome

A

B.) a proton pump that pumps H+ into the lysosome

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14
Q
White blood cells engulf bacteria using \_\_\_\_\_.
 A.) receptor-mediated exocytosis 
B.)  osmosis 
C.)  passive diffusion 
D.)  phagocytosis
A

D.) phagocytosis

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15
Q

Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes?
A.) Lipids and proteins repulse each other in the membrane.
B.) There are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane.
C.) The interior of the membrane is filled with liquid water.
D.) Hydrophilic portions of the lipids are in the interior of the membrane.

A

B.) There are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane.

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16
Q

The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it _____.
A.) is used to drive the transport of other molecules against a concentration gradient
B.) pumps equal quantities of Na+ and K+ across the membrane
C.) contributes to the membrane potential
D.) ionizes sodium and potassium atoms

A

C.) contributes to the membrane potential

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17
Q

For a protein to be an integral membrane protein, it would have to be _____.
A.)hydrophobic
B.) hydrophilic
C.) amphipathic, with at least one hydrophobic region
D.) exposed on only one surface of the membrane

A

C.) amphipathic, with at least one hydrophobic region

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18
Q

Which of the following would increase the electrochemical gradient across a membrane?
A.) both a proton pump and a potassium channel
B.) a potassium channel
C.) a sucrose-proton cotransporter
D.) a proton pump

A

D.) a proton pump

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19
Q

Which of the following membrane activities requires energy from ATP?
A.) movement of carbon dioxide out of a paramecium
B.) movement of glucose molecules into a bacterial cell from a medium containing a higher concentration of glucose than inside the cell
C.) movement of Na+ ions from a lower concentration in a mammalian cell to a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid
D.) facilitated diffusion of chloride ions across the membrane through a chloride channel

A

C.) movement of Na+ ions from a lower concentration in a mammalian cell to a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid

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20
Q

Which of the following is true of osmosis?
A.) In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute concentration to areas of higher solute concentration.
B.) Osmosis is an energy-demanding or “active” process.
C.) In osmosis, solutes move across a membrane from areas of lower water concentration to areas of higher water concentration.
D.) Osmosis only takes place in red blood cells.

A

A.) In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute concentration to areas of higher solute concentration.

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21
Q
In the process of transcription, \_\_\_\_\_.
A.) RNA is synthesized 
B.)  proteins are synthesized 
C.)  mRNA attaches to ribosomes 
 D.) DNA is replicated
A

A.) RNA is synthesized

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22
Q

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?
A.) DNA was the first genetic material.
B.) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
C.) Different organisms have different types of amino acids.
D.) The same codons in different organisms translate into different amino acids.

A

B.) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.

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23
Q
In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein?
A.)  primase 
B.)  RNA polymerase I 
C.)  RNA polymerase III 
 D.) RNA polymerase II
A

D.) RNA polymerase II

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24
Q

Once researchers identified DNA as the unit of inheritance, they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. What is the mechanism of information transfer in eukarotes?
A.) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.
B.) DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis.
C.) Proteins transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.
D.) Transfer RNA takes information from DNA directly to a ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.

A

A.) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.

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25
Q

What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of a tRNA molecule?
A.) hydrogen bonding between base pairs
B.)van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms
C.) ionic bonding between phosphates
D.) peptide bonding between amino acids

A

A.) hydrogen bonding between base pairs

26
Q

Which one of the following statements about RNA processing is true?
A.) A primary transcript is often much shorter than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus.
B.) RNA splicing can be catalyzed by tRNA.
C.) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing.
D.) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus.

A

C.) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing.

27
Q

Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the _____.
A.) binding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs
B.) binding of the anticodon to small subunit of the ribosome
C.) attachment of amino acids to rRNAs
D.) binding of ribosomes to mRNA

A

A.) binding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs

28
Q

What must occur before a newly made polypeptide is secreted from a cell?
A.) Its signal sequence must be cleaved off before the polypeptide can enter the ER.
B.) It must be translated by a ribosome that remains free within the cytosol.
C.) Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi.
D.) Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane, where it causes exocytosis.

A

C.) Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi.

29
Q

Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?
A.) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon
B.) a deletion of a codon
C.) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon
D.) a deletion of two nucleotides

A

D.) a deletion of two nucleotides

30
Q
A lack of which molecule would result in a cell's inability to "turn off" genes?
 A.) operon 
 B.) corepressor 
 C.) promoter 
  D.) inducer
A

B.) corepressor

31
Q

A cell is considered to be differentiated when it _____.
A.) produces proteins specific to a particular cell type
B.) appears to be different from the surrounding cells
C.) replicates by the process of mitosis
D.) loses connections to the surrounding cells

A

A.) produces proteins specific to a particular cell type

32
Q

For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?
A.) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
B.) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
C.) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
D.) A corepressor must be present.

A

C.) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.

33
Q

A mutation that inactivates a regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in _____.
A.) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator
B.) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator
C.) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure
D.) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator

A

D.) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator

34
Q

A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture.

One of her colleagues suggested she try increased methylation of C nucleotides in the DNA of promoters of a mammalian system. Which of the following results would she most likely see?

A.) inactivation of the selected genes
B.) activation of histone tails for enzymatic function
C.) higher levels of transcription of certain genes
D.) decreased chromatin condensation

A

A.) inactivation of the selected genes

35
Q

The primary difference between enhancers and promoter-proximal elements is that enhancers _____.
A.) are DNA sequences; promoter-proximal elements are proteins
B.) are transcription factors; promoter-proximal elements are DNA sequences
C.) are at considerable distances from the promoter; promoter-proximal elements are close to the promoter
D.) enhance transcription; promoter-proximal elements inhibit transcription

A

C.) are at considerable distances from the promoter; promoter-proximal elements are close to the promoter

36
Q

A researcher introduces double-stranded RNA into a culture of mammalian cells and can identify its location or that of its smaller subsections experimentally, using a fluorescent probe.

When she finds that the introduced strand separates into single-stranded RNAs, what other evidence of this single-stranded RNA piece’s activity can she find?

A.) The amount of miRNA is multiplied by its replication.
B.) The amount of miRNA is multiplid by its replication.
C.)She can measure the degradation rate of the remaining single strand.
D.) The rate of accumulation of the polypeptide encoded by the target mRNA is reduced.

A

D.) The rate of accumulation of the polypeptide encoded by the target mRNA is reduced.

37
Q
Among the newly discovered small noncoding RNAs, one type reestablishes methylation patterns during gamete formation and blocks expression of some transposons. These are known as \_\_\_\_\_.
 A.) snRNA 
B.)  siRNA 
  C.) miRNA 
 D.) piRNA
A

D.) piRNA

38
Q

Post-translational modifications of proteins may include the _____.
A.) addition of a poly-A tail
B.) removal of introns
C.) addition of a 5’ cap
D.) addition of carbohydrates to form a glycoprotein

A

D.) addition of carbohydrates to form a glycoprotein

39
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 are considered to be tumor-suppressor genes because _____.
A.) they block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens
B.) the normal genes make estrogen receptors
C.) their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage
D.)the mutant forms of either one of these prevent breast cancer

A

C.) their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage

40
Q

Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
A.) a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence
B.) a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein
C.) a mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA
D.) a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene

A

B.) a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein

41
Q

Which of the following statements is true of linkage?
A.) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
B.) All of the traits that Mendel studied—seed color, pod shape, flower color, and others—are due to genes linked on the same chromosome.
C.) All of the traits that Mendel studied—seed color, pod shape, flower color, and others—are due to genes linked on the same chromosome.
D.) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 100%.

A

A.) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.

42
Q

In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?
A.) tortoiseshell females; black males
B.) tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males
C.) orange females; black males
D.) black females; orange males

A

A.) tortoiseshell females; black males

43
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is inherited as a recessive allele of an X-linked gene in humans. A woman whose father suffered from G6PD marries a normal man.

(a) What proportion of their sons is expected to be G6PD?
(b) If the husband was not normal but was G6PD deficient, would you change your answer in part (a)?

A.) (a) 1/2; (b) yes
B.) (a) zero; (b) no
C.) (a) 1/2; (b) no
D.) (a) 100%; (b) no

A

C.) (a) 1/2; (b) no

44
Q
In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme that is much like the typical XY scheme seen in humans and many other organisms, except that the system is reversed: Males are ZZ (similar to XX in humans) and females are ZW (similar to XY in humans). A lethal recessive allele that causes death of the embryo occurs on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
A.)  3:1 male to female 
B.)  2:1 male to female 
 C.) 1:2 male to female 
D.)  1:1 male to female
A

B.) 2:1 male to female

45
Q
Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
  A.) 16% 
B.)  58% 
C.)   8% 
D.)  42%
A

C.) 8%

46
Q

Within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine. This arrangement _____.
A.) permits complementary base pairing
B.) determines the type of protein produced
C.) allows variable width of the double helix
D.) determines the tertiary structure of a DNA molecule

A

A.) permits complementary base pairing

47
Q

A new DNA strand elongates only in the to direction because _____.
A.) DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3’ end
B.) replication must progress toward the replication fork
C.) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3; end
D.) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5’ end of the template

A

A.) DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3’ end

48
Q

At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork:

      5'  C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C  3'

An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence?

A.) 5’ G C C U A G G 3’
B.) 5’ A C G T T A G G 3’
C.) 5’ G C C T A G G 3’
D.) 5’ A C G U U A G G 3’

A

D.) 5’ A C G U U A G G 3’

49
Q
Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
A.)  primase 
B.)  single-strand DNA binding proteins 
C.)  ligase 
D.)  DNA polymerase
A

B.) single-strand DNA binding proteins

50
Q
DNA is synthesized through a process known as \_\_\_\_\_.
 A.) translation 
 B.) conservative replication 
C.)semiconservative replication 
  D.) transcription
A

C.)semiconservative replication

51
Q

Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of the following reasons?
A.) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.
B.) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.
C.) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
D.) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

A

D.) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

52
Q

Telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells?
A.) cells in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
B.) only eukaryotic cells
C.) only prokaryotic cells
D.) only during meiosis

A

B.) only eukaryotic cells

53
Q
DNA contains the template needed to copy itself, but it has no catalytic activity in cells. What catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides in the DNA polymer being formed?
  A.) ATP 
B.)  DNA polymerase 
C.)  deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates 
 D.) ribozymes
A

B.) DNA polymerase

54
Q

Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase?
A.) a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous
B.) an inability to produce Okazaki fragments
C.) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes
D.) an inability to repair thymine dimers

A

C.) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes

55
Q

What is a major difference between eukaryotic DNA replication and prokaryotic DNA replication?
A.) DNA polymerases of prokaryotes can add nucleotides to both and ends of DNA strands, while those of eukaryotes function only in the 5’ → 3’ direction.
B.) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication.
C.) DNA replication in prokaryotic cells is conservative. DNA replication in eukaryotic cells is semi-conservative.
D.) Prokaryotic replication does not require a primer.

A

B.) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication.

56
Q

In E. coli, to repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act?
Correct!
A.) nuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
B.) nuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase
C.) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
D.) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase

A

A.) nuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase

57
Q

In a healthy cell, the rate of DNA repair is equal to the rate of DNA mutation. When the rate of repair lags behind the rate of mutation, what is a possible fate of the cell?
A.) DNA synthesis will continue by a new mechanism.
B.) RNA may be used instead of DNA as inheritance material.
C.) The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell.
D.) The cell will become embryonic.

A

C.) The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell.

58
Q

Researchers found E. coli that had mutation rates one hundred times higher than normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these results?
A.) The single-stranded binding proteins were malfunctioning.
B.) There were one or more mismatches in the RNA primer.
C.) The DNA polymerase was unable to add bases to the end of the growing nucleic acid chain.
D.) The proofreading mechanism of DNA polymerase was not working properly.

A

D.) The proofreading mechanism of DNA polymerase was not working properly.

59
Q

Which of the following represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin?
A.) nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber
B.) looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome
Correct!
C.) nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain
D.) 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain

A

C.) nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain

60
Q

If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect?
A.) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
B.) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.
C.) There would be an increase in the amount of “satellite” DNA produced during centrifugation.
D.)The cell’s DNA couldn’t be packed into its nucleus.

A

D.)The cell’s DNA couldn’t be packed into its nucleus.