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Toxicology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What drug is the leading cause of preventable illness and death?

A

Tobacco

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2
Q

Which of the following are more likely to use tobacco?
What are the other three that are not listed?
A) Unemployed
B) College Grad
C) Uneducated (no high school diploma)
D) B and A
E) A and C

A

E) A and C

-Unemployed, Uneducated, Uninsured, Poor, Men

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3
Q

Which of the following drugs are the number one psychoactive drugs?

A) Alcohol
B) Acid
C) Opioids
D) Tobacco

A

A) Alcohol

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4
Q

T/F Alcohol is the number one drug responsible for rapes.

A

True

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5
Q

Which of the following has a higher incidence of drinking alcohol?

A) Higher educated Person
B) Blacks
C) High school graduate only
D) Native American

A

A) Higher Educated person

the more education corresponded with more alcohol use.

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6
Q

What is considered drug abuse? ( 3 definitions)

A

1) Using a drug for something else other than the medical effects.
2) Under age drinking, smoking.
3) Use of a legal drug to point of hazardous effects.

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7
Q

The dose that is required to keep blood levels high enough in order to maintain the effect of the drug is known as what?

A) Maximum dose
B) Therapeutic dose
C) Maintenance dose
D) Loading dose

A

C) Maintenance dose

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8
Q

The dose that is customarily used to get a desired effect is known as what?

A) Low dose
B) Maintenance dose
C) Therapeutic dose
D) Loading dose

A

C) Therapeutic dose

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9
Q

What drugs teratogenic effect causes facial, cartilage, and CNS defects?

A) Carbamazepine(tegretol)
B) Synthetic Estrogen
C) Warfarin (Coumadin)
D) Depakote

A

C) Warfarin (Coumadin)

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10
Q

What drug may cause craniofacial and fingernail deformities?

A) Carbamazepine (tegretol)
B) Synthetic Estrogen
C) Warfarin (Coumadin)
D) Lithium

A

A) Carbamazepine (tegretol)

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11
Q

What is the teratogenic effect of taking phenytoin (Dilantin)?

A) Craniofacial deformity
B) CNS defects
C) Growth Retardation
D) Cardiac defects
E) A and C
F) B and C
A

E) A (craniofacial defect and C (Growth retardation)

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12
Q

What does idiosyncrasy mean?

A

Unusual, unique or unexpected response from a drug due to altered metabolism.

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13
Q

What does paradoxical mean?

A

Opposite effect than what was expected.

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14
Q

Name the 3 most common organs effected by direct toxicity.

A

1) Live
2) Kidney
3) Lungs

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15
Q

With a blood test which of the following would you expect to be elevated?

A) Aspartate Transaminase (AST) 
B) Alanine Transaminase (ALT)
C) Bilirubin
D) Albumin
E) A,B,C
F) A,C,D
A

E) A, B, C (AST, ALT, Bili)

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16
Q

What would you detect in the blood of a person with kidney damage?

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

Creatinine

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17
Q

T/F To detect lung damage there is a biochemical test that can be used.

A

False

FEV is the only way.

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18
Q

What phase does teratogenesis have the highest risk of occurring?

A

Organogenesis phase (18-55 days)

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19
Q

what type of -genesis interacts with the DNA and can add, delete, or substitute bases?

A) Muta
B) Clasto
C) Aneu

A

A) Mutagenesis

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20
Q

What does clastogenesis mean?

A

Chromosomal damage

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21
Q

What does aneugenesis mean?

A

Acquisition or loss of an entire chromosome.

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22
Q

What are the 3 unrestrained cell replication in carcinogenesis?

A

1) Initiation
2) Promotion
3) Progression

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23
Q

Initiation for carcinogenesis is when ___ occurs.

A

DNA mutation

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24
Q

Explain what promotion means in carcinogenesis?

A

Altered gene expression and regulation.

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25
Q

Progression is described as what?

A

When another mutation leads to proliferation of initiated cells.

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26
Q

What is the pharmaceutic phase?

A

Disintegration and dissolution of the dosage form.

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27
Q

What is the pharmacokinetic phase?

A

What the body does with the drug.

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28
Q

ADME stands for what in the pharmacokinetic phase?

A

A- Absorption
D- Distribution
M- Metabolism
E- Excretion

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29
Q

What type of absorption is the most common way drugs get absorbed?

A

Passive diffusion

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30
Q

If your patient needs to excrete acidic drugs what would you give them? why?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

To make their urine alkaline

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31
Q

Your patient has an acidic urine. What type of drugs will be excreted? What did they take to make their urine acidic?

A

Basic drugs

Vitamin C or Ammonium Chloride

32
Q

What type of oral medication has a faster absorption rate?

A) Lipid Soluble
B) Capsules
C) Coated Tablets
D) Enteric Coated Tablets

A

A) Lipid soluble

33
Q

T/F Food will speed up absorption.

A

False, It will slow it down.

34
Q

What are the 3 major sites of absorption?

A

1) GI tract
2) Lungs
3) Skin

35
Q

What are the 4 sites of absorption for parenteral?

A

1) Intravenous
2) Intramuscular
3) Intraperitoneal
4) Subcutaneous

36
Q

What is the average bioavailability of most oral medications?

A

20 -40% reaches the bloodstream (Bioavailability)

37
Q

What type of drugs can pass through the blood brain barrier?

A

Lipid soluble

38
Q

What enzyme do we need for metabolism?

A

Cytochrome P450

39
Q

An increase is DMMS that results in faster rate of drug metabolism and shorter duration of drug action is known as?

A) Enzyme Initiation
B) Enzyme Induction
C) Enzyme proliferation
D) Enzyme inhibition

A

B) Enzyme Induction

40
Q

Enzyme inhibition causes a ___ In duration and intensity of the drugs?

A

Increase

41
Q

After oral administration of drugs where does it go first? How does this effect the bioavailability?

A

Portal circulation

Liver metabolizes a lot before releasing to body. Thus DECREASES Bioavailability.

42
Q

Name the four minor ways to excrete drugs.

A

1) Sweat
2) Saliva
3) Semen
4) Tears

43
Q

What is pharmacodynamic phase?

A

The actions of the drug on living tissue. Affected by form of dug or route of administration.

44
Q

What percent of the population is on at least 4 prescriptions?

A

40%

45
Q

What diet should patient on Monoamine Oxidase inhibitors (MAIOs) avoid?

A

Wisconsin diet

-cheese, sausage, alcohol, chocolate, banana, wine.

46
Q

What are the seven vaccines that carry Aluminum? (4H, 2P, D)

A 
DTaP/TDap
Polio
HPV
HEP A and B
Hib
PCV
47
Q

What vaccines do children need to receive 3 times before age six?

A

Hib
HepB
Rotavirus

48
Q

What vaccines do children need to receive 2 times before the age of six.

A

Hep A

Variclla

49
Q

What three states do not allow religious exemptions from vaccines?

A

California,
Mississippi
West Virginia

50
Q

Who are the only people allowed to sign off on a medical exemption from vaccines?

A) DC
B) DPT
C) DO
D) MD
E) A and C
F) C and D
A

F) C and D

51
Q

The DTaP vaccine has been associated with what disorders?

A

Asthma, SIDs

52
Q

What vaccine was grown on infected kidneys of monkeys and may or may not have been the cause of HIV?

A

Polio vaccine

53
Q

What was the virus found in the oral polio vaccine that may have mutated to HIV and carried cancer risks with it?

A

SV-40 (SIV)

54
Q

What disorders are linked to the pneumococcal vaccine?

A

Diabetes

55
Q

How are pneumococcal infections likely to develop?

A

as a comorbidity

56
Q

Which vaccine has a strong backing of pediatricians and family practitioners saying their patients don’t need the vaccine for their infants?

A) Hib
B) PCV
C) Hep B
D) Hep A

A

C) Hep B

57
Q

Which vaccine increases the risk of the child contracting the actual disease the first week after vaccination?

A) Hib
B) PCV
D) Hep B
C) Hep A

A

A) Hib

58
Q

T/F The rotavirus is common in the United states and that’s why we need the vaccine.

A

False, only in places with poor water I.e. AFRICA, ASIA

59
Q

What can congenital rubella syndrome lead to in pregnant women?

A

Spontaneous abortions.

60
Q

What are some risks with taking a Gardasil vaccine (HPV)?

A

Blood clots
Heart disease
GBS

61
Q

T/F Gardasil vaccine 100% will prevent cervical cancer.

A

False

62
Q

What two types of exemptions are under attack by mandatory vaccination proponents?

A

Religious

Philosophical

63
Q

___ Doses of ___ vaccines are given to kids by age 6.

A

49, 14

64
Q

What are the 4 vaccines given to 7-18 year olds and their number of doses?

A

TDaP—1
MCV—- 1
HPV—– 3
Influenza—— annually

65
Q

How many doses of polio or PCV is needed for a child under 6?

A

4 doses

66
Q

What does the supplement St. John’s Wort effect and how?

A

Decreases blood concentration of drugs,

Via inducing CPY450 enzyme

67
Q

T/F Half of the American adult population take supplements.

A

True

68
Q

What drug does vitamin K counteract with?

A

Coumadin (Warfarin)

-Blood thinner

69
Q

T/F Foods like garlic and grape seeds help the effects of drugs by inhibiting the CYP.

A

FALSE— They induce the CYP

70
Q 
What fruit should you avoid if you take warfarin?
A) apple
B) grapefruit juice
C) cranberry juice
D) Grapes
A

C) Cranberry Juice

71
Q 
What vegetable is safe to eat while on warfarin?
A) Spinach
B) Carrots
C) Avocados
D) Tomatoes
A

B) Carrots

72
Q

Match the drug with drug reactions:

1) Warfarin
2) ACE Inhibitors
3) Antihistamines

A) NSAIDS
B) Potassium
C) Tranquilizers
D) Quinolones
E) High Blood pressure medication
A

1) A, D
2) B
3) E, C

73
Q

Passive diffusion of volatile metabolites from the blood occurs in what tissue?

A) Lungs
B) GI tract
C) Breast Milk
D) Skin

A

A) Lungs

GI— Weak bases

Breast Milk—Fat soluble compounds

74
Q

What are the major sources of excretion?

A 
Bile
GI
Urine
Lungs
Breast Milk
75
Q

What does the half-life mean for a drug?

A

time it takes for the blood/plasma drug concentration to drop 50% of original level.

76
Q

Competitive antagonism is described as _____ and an example would be morphine and ____.

A

Agonist and antagonist compete for the same receptor.

Naloxone

Toxicology (2 decks)

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