Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURP 423 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

First line treatment for hyperthyroidism

A

Radioactive iodine (recommended for patients > 40)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Second line treatment for hyperthyroidism

A

Antithyroid Drugs (PTU & methimazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Third line treatment for hyperthyroidism

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First line treatment for hypothyroidism

A

Only treatment is replacement of thyroid hormone – levothyroxine (Synthroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lab values for hyperthyroidism

A

TSH - decreased

Free T4 - increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lab values for hypothyroidism

A

TSH - increased

Free T4 - decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

Radioactive iodine contraindicated and in lactation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the blood test to check vitamin D level?

A

25-hydroxyvitamin D (25OHD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What level indicates vitamin D deficiency?

A

< 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What level indicates vitamin D toxicity?

A

< 150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Signs of vitamin D toxicity

A

anorexia, weight loss, polyuria, arrhythmias, increased calcium level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

People at risk for inadequate vitamin D absoprtion

A

gastric bypass, IBD, liver disease, cystic fibrosis, celiac, Crohn’s, ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do you need to monitor when treating a hyperthyroid patient with PTU?

A

Monitor CBC during first 3 months of therapy to avoid fatal agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What S&S should a patient taking PTU report?

A

Sore throat and fever

Obtain CBC and stop drug if WBC is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment for hypothryoidism

A

Synthroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the parathyroid do?

A

Regulates calcium and phosphate metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes pernicious anemia?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment of pernicious anemia

A

Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What condition increases the risk of pernicious anemia?

A

Gastric bypass surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do you check and when after start of treatment for iron deficiency anemia

A

CBC, HGB, HCT

2 weeks after start of therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy

A

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lab test to monitor Heparin

A

PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lab to monitor coumadin

A

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What thrombolytic agent would you use for someone with renal failure?

A

Coumadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Antidote for heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is OLDCART

A 
Onset
Location
Duration
Characteristics
Aggravating factors
Alleviating factors
Treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Two biggest side effects from narcotics

A

Respiratory depression & constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treatment of choice for neuropathic pain?

A

gabapentin/neurontin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What vital sign should you monitor with use of narcotics

A

Respiratory rate & BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the use for marijuana?

A

Nausea and vomiting in patients receiving chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which form of marijuana has no CNS side effects?

A

CBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is safest pain reliever?

A

Tylenol (but it is not an anti-inflammatory)

33
Q

What is a burst of steroids?

A

Steroid use for 5 days (greater than that, taper off)

34
Q

First line tx for RA

A

Methotrexate and folic acid

35
Q

What are drug/drug interactions for NSAIDs and what would you monitor?

A

ACE/ARB

Monitor for bleeding, GI, decreased kidney fx – GI bleed and renal failure

36
Q

What effects do steroids have on bone health?

A

Can cause osteoporosis

Give calcium & vit d

37
Q

Teaching for biophosphates?

A

Take medicine while sitting up and drink a full glass of water

38
Q

First line treatment of OA

A

Tylenol

39
Q

MOA of tylenol

A

Inhibits COX which results in decreased prostaglandin synthesis

40
Q

Recommended dose of tylenol

A

4 grams/day

Chronic alcohol 1800-2000 mg/day

41
Q

When is celebrex contraindicated?

A

allergy to sulfonamides

42
Q

When is tramadol contraindicated?

A

Hx of seizures – lowers seizure threshold

43
Q

How should you stop tramadol?

A

Taper medication dose d/t potential to induce serotonin syndrome

44
Q

MOA of capsaicin

A

depletion of substance P

45
Q

When is maximum effect seen with capsaicin

A

2-4 weeks

46
Q

When are intra-articular steroids useful?

A

When an effusion is present and there are clear signs of local inflammation

47
Q

What is safest for OA patients with renal failure?

A

Capsaicin (no absolute contraindications with this med)

48
Q

Most common AE of corticosteroids?

A

cataracts, glaucoma, glucose intolerance, osteoporosis (effect calcium absorption)

49
Q

Contraindications to methotrexate

A

Pregnancy, breastfeeding, leukopenia

50
Q

Labs to be monitored during methotrexate therapy

A

CBC q4weeks

BUN, creatinine, LFTs q3 months

51
Q

TNFI (tumor necrosis factor inhibitors)

A

End in -mab

52
Q

When is golimumab (Simponi) indicated?

A

Only in combination with methotrexate

53
Q

When will patient see response to TNFI?

A

Within days to weeks

54
Q

What test should you do before started TNFI?

A

tuberculin skin test or interferon gamma release assay

55
Q

Labs to monitor with TNFI

A

CBC and LFTs

56
Q

With what medication should you avoid live vaccines

A

TNFIs

57
Q

What do steroids put patient at risk for?

A

Obesity and infection

58
Q

First line treatment for chronic gout

A

Xanthin oxidase inhibitors (allopurinol)

59
Q

When will serum urate levels begin to drop with allopurinol

A

2 weeks

60
Q

How often should serum urate levels be checked

A

q2-5 weeks

61
Q

Common AE of allopurinol

A

GI (take with food), rash, arthralgias

62
Q

MOA of allopurinol

A

Decrease uric acid levels by selectively inhibiting xanthine oxidase

63
Q

First line treatment for acute gout

A

Short courses of NSAIDs, corticosteroids, or colchicine

64
Q

MOA of colchicine

A

Inhibits activation, degranulation, and migration of neutrophils to the area of a gout attack

65
Q

SE of colchicine

A

GI (diarrhea most commonly)

66
Q

Ditropan SE

A

QT prolongation and risk for torsades de pointes

67
Q

Alpha-adrenergic blockers (flomax) MOA

A

relax smooth muscle of prostate and bladder neck without interfering with bladder contractility, decreasing bladder resistance to urinary outflow

68
Q

5-a-reductase inhibitors MOA

A

specifically blocking 5-a-reductase (enzyme that activates testosterone in prostate) and impairs growth of prostate

69
Q

What med to give prosthetic valve

A

Warfarin

70
Q

What med to give for biological valve

A

aspirin

71
Q

What is the difference in OA vs RA

A

RA-inflammatory markers, symmetric

OA-non-inflammatory, asymmetric

72
Q

Serum urate to dx gout

A

> 6.8

73
Q

What other med should be taken with longterm use of NSAIDs?

A

PPI or H2 blocker

74
Q

Adjuvant pain meds

A

Gabapentin and tramadol

75
Q

What med affects PSA?

A

5-AR (should reduce up to 50%)

76
Q

BBW for NSAIDs

A

Potential for CV events and GI bleeding

77
Q

First line tx UTI in pregnancy

A

Nitrofurantoin (1st and 2nd trimesters)

78
Q

MOA opioids

A

Bind to opioid receptors in CNS (mu, kappa, delta) with analgesic effect primarily with mu

NURP 423 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions