EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Planning

A

Setting goals and deciding how to achieve them (action plan)

Dealing with uncertainty by formulating future courses of actions to achieve specified results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Business plan

A

A written document that defines the firm’s objectives, strategy, and measures of success. Includes the business model.

Should determine the structure of a company. EX) an agile start-up should choose a flexible structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Business model

A

Describes the firm’s position, operations, competitive advantage, marketing strategy, method of financing, and expected revenues and expenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Strategy

A

The large scale action plan that sets the direction for an organization.

It is a “best guess” at how to achieve long-term prosperity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Strategic management

A

The use of managers from all parts of the organization to formulate and implement strategies and strategic goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cost of planning

A

Is time consuming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Benefits of planning

A

Provides direction and momentum. (without a plan, managers focus too much on the present and forget to predict future opportunities)

Planning encourages innovation and creativity

Planning develops and maintains a competitive advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What makes a plan fail

A

Information overload

Bad group dynamics

Faulty assumptions about the future

Poor judgement about the organization’s capacity

Having a detailed plan, but no strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mission statement

A

Expresses the organization’s reason for operating.

Is written by the BOD and top management.

Outlines the goods and services and org. will provide and its reason for providing them.

Answers the question: why do you operate?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vision statement

A

Expresses what the organization envisions itself becoming.

States what an org. wishes to become and the actions needed to get there.

Answers the question: what is your future goal?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 types of planning:

A

Strategic, Tactical, Operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Strategic planning

A

Done by top managers.

Determine what the org.’s long-term goals are and the overall direction of the organization.

Top managers must be future oriented, understand the market environment, and be comfortable with uncertainty and competition.

Most firms don’t strategically plan until they encounter a crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tactical planning

A

Done by middle managers or product-line managers.

Determine what contributions their departments can make with their given resources.

Managers must implement strategic plans and supervise operational managers. They must often make decisions without a detailed procedure developed by top management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Operational planning

A

Done by first-line managers or team leaders.

Determine how to accomplish specific tasks with their given resources.

These managers must supervise the daily tasks of non-managerial employees. Decisions at this level are routine and well-defined by middle managers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Goals (objectives)

A

Specific commitments to achieve a measurable result within a stated period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Means-end chain

A

Describes the hierarchy of organizational goals (operational, tactical, strategic) - the means are the lower end goals and the ends are the higher level goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 types of goals:

A

Strategic, tactical, operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Strategic goals

A

Set by and for top management.

Focuses on objectives for the org. as a whole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tactical goals

A

Set by and for middle managers.

Focuses on the actions needed to achieve strategic goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Operational goals

A

Set by and for first-line managers.

Are concerned with short-term matters associated with realizing tactical goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Action plan

A

Defines the course of action needed to achieve a stated goal. Is the basis for an operating plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Operating plan

A

Defines how a business will be conducted and identifies clear targets such as revenue, cash flow, and market share.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Standing plans

A

Plans developed for activities that occur repeatedly over a period of time.

Rules, procedures, policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rule

A

A standing plan that states a specific required action, with no room for interpretation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Procedure

A

A standing plan that outlines the response to a particular problem or situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Policy

A

A standing plan that outlines the general response to a designated problem or situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Single use plans

A

Plans developed for activities that are not likely to be repeated in the future.

Projects and programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Project

A

A single-use plan that includes a smaller range of tasks or activities than a program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Program

A

A single-use plan that includes a range of projects or activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Deadlines

A

Are a strong motivator that help people prioritize tasks and provide feedback about finished work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Planning/control cycle

A

Is a continuous feedback loop for each level of planning. Includes 2 planning & 2 controlling steps:

1: Make the plan
2: Carry it out

1: Control the direction (compare results with plan)
2: Control the direction (take corrective action) - either correct deviations or edit/revise the current plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who is the leading expert on competitive strategy?

A

Michael Porter (from Harvard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Strategic positioning

A

Attempts to achieve sustainable competitive advantage by preserving what is distinct about a company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3 principles of strategic positioning

A

Create a unique and valuable position

Use competitive tradeoffs (by pursuing one strategy, you implicitly choose not to pursue another)

Create a “fit” among activities (your strategies should align with an organization’s activities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3 sources of strategic positiong

A

Serving the FEW needs of MANY customers

Serving the BROAD needs of a FEW customers

Serving the BROAD needs of MANY customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Difference between small and large firms

A

Small firms focus on personal connections and customer loyalty.

Large firms focus on making customers “captive” by selling them a device and then selling them content (ex: amazon sells kindles and books)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

5 steps of strategic management process:

A

(DADIM)

Determine a mission and vision

Assess the current reality

Develop the grand strategy

Implement the grand strategy

Maintain strategic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Characteristics of an effective mission statement:

A

Identifies:

Customers
Major products and services
Geographical areas it serves
Technology used by the org.
Commitment to economic objectives
Basic beliefs, aspirations, and values
Public responsibility 
Attitude towards employees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Characteristics of an effective vision statement:

A
Is appropriate for the org. and time
Sets high standards and ideals
Clarifies direction and purpose
Encourages commitment 
Inspires enthusiasm
Easily understood
Reflect uniqueness and comptencies
Is ambitious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Current reality assessment (organizational assessment)

A

Evaluate the firm at its present state and identify how it could be improved to achieve the organization’s mission

Forecasting & benchmarking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Grand strategy

A

Identifies how the org. will accomplish the mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Strategy formulation

A

The process of choosing the best strategy or altering several strategies to fit the organization’s needs.

Is very time consuming

Conducted using Porter’s 5 forces and strategies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Strategy implementation

A

W/out good implementation, the strategy is ineffective.

Must eliminate roadblocks, such as organizational culture and employee resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Strategic control

A

Monitor the execution of the strategy and make adjustments if necessary.

Use a feedback look to continuously reformulate plans, rethink policies, and take corrective action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Environmental scanning

A

Carefully monitoring an organization’s internal and external environments to detect opportunities and threats

One technique: SWOT analysis (situational analysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Forecast

A

A vision or projection of the future

2 types:
Trend analysis
Contingency planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Trend analysis

A

Is a hypothetical extension of a past series of events into the future

EX) using historical sales data to project future sales
*if the historical data is wrong, the prediction will also be wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Contingency planning (scenario planning)

A

Is the creation of alternative hypothetical, but equally likely, future conditions (ex: economic conditions, budget levels, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Benchmarking

A

Comparing the firm’s performance with that of other successful orgs in the industry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Porter’s 5 forces model

A

Threat of new entry

Supplier’s bargaining power (the more concentrated the industry, the greater the bargaining power of suppliers)

Buyer’s bargaining power (the more substitutes a good has, the greater the bargaining power of buyers)

Threat of substitutes (the internet has increased this threat)

Competitive rivalry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

3 types of grand strategies

A

Growth strategy
Stability strategy
Defensive strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Stability strategy

A

Focuses on making little to no changes in the business

Used when an org. can’t handle rapid growth or needs a period of stability in order to quality control its growth.

How to implement:

  • Use a no-change strategy
  • Use a little-change strategy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Defensive strategy (retrenchment strategy)

A

Focuses on reducing the organization’s efforts. Often used to try to “save” a business.”

How to implement:

  • Reduce costs (ex: halt hiring)
  • Liquidate assets
  • End certain production
  • Sell of entire departments or subsidiaries
  • Declare bankruptcy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Growth strategy

A

Focuses on expanding a certain aspect of the business.

EX: number of employees, number of customers, market share, etc.

How to implement:

  • Improve products
  • Introduce new products
  • Increase marketing
  • Expand vertically (get new distributors/manufacturers)
  • Expand horizontally (get new retailers)
  • Merge w/ another company
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Porter’s 4 competitive strategies:

A

Cost-leadership
Differentiation
Cost-focus
Focused-differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cost-leadership strategy

A

Targets a wide market.
Aims to have the lowest price of competitors by reducing internal costs.
Focus on research, development, and cost-efficient marketing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Differentiation strategy

A

Targets a wide market.
Aims to offer a product that is unique and superior to those of competitors.
Focus on research, development, customer service, and marketing.

**may create brands to differentiate their products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cost-focus strategy

A

Targets a narrow market.
Aims to have the lowest price of competitors by reducing internal costs.
Usually sell these low-end products in discount stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Focused-differentiation

A

Targets a narrow market.
Aims to offer a product that is unique and superior to those of competitors.
Usually used for luxury or niche goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Single-product strategy

A

When a company makes and sells only 1 product within its market.

Benefits: can focus on one product, scout competition, upgrade production, and eliminate defects

Downfall: competition or a twist of fate can ruin the entire business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Diversification strategy

A

When a company operates several businesses to spread out the risk.

Benefits:

  • An org. can spread out its admin costs and avoid duplication of costs.
  • An org. can achieve synergy (when the value of these businesses is greater together than they would be apart)

Unrelated diversification: when an org. operates several unrelated businesses under 1 ownership

Related diversification: when an org. operates several related businesses under 1 ownership

62
Q

BCG Matrix

A

Used to evaluate businesses based on their market growth rate and market share.

Stars
Cash cows
Question marks
Dogs

63
Q

Stars

A

High market growth and high market share

64
Q

Cash cows

A

Low market growth but high market share

**finance stars and question marks

65
Q

Question marks

A

High market growth but low market share

**usually new ventures

66
Q

Dog

A

Low market growth and low market share

**should be sold or gotten rid of

67
Q

How to properly execute a strategy:

A

Use questions, analysis, and follow-through to align people with goals and achieve promised results.

**managers should take a hands-on role in this process and immerse themselves in the details of the business

68
Q

3 core processes of execution:

A
People (focus on jobs ppl can do in the future)
Strategy 
Operations (should provide a path that describes short-term objectives of each activity)
69
Q

7 habits of good managers:

A
Personally engage with people and the business.
Be realistic.
Focus on clear priorities.
Emphasize accountability and follow-up.
Reward top performers.
Provide good feedback.
Be authentic, self-aware, and humble.
70
Q

2 types of decision making models:

A

System 1: is automatic and intuitive

System 2: is deliberate and analytical

71
Q

The curse of knowledge

A

The phenomenon that people with greater knowledge and expertise often find it difficult to see things from a less-informed person’s point of view.

EX) an engineer developing a phone that has complex functions that customers don’t understand

72
Q

Rational decision making model (classical model)

A

Describes how managers SHOULD make decisions, not how they ACTUALLY make decisions.

Assumes that managers will make the most favorable and logical decisions.

Is prescriptive, not descriptive.

73
Q

4 steps to rational decision making:

A
  • Identify the problem or opportunity (requires a diagnosis, which is analyzing the underlying causes)
  • Generate alternatives (creative solutions)
  • Evaluate alternatives & pick one (look at cost, quality, ethicality, feasibility, and effectiveness)
  • Implement the solution and evaluate it
  • Managers must carefully plan
  • Employees can be resistant
  • If unexpected errors occur, you can wit them out, adjust the plan, or start over
74
Q

Faulty assumptions of rational decision making:

A

Managers have complete information

Managers can separate emotions from analysis

Managers can make the best decisions for the org. (they often have competing loyalties)

75
Q

Non-rational decision making model:

A

Explains how managers ACTUALLY make decisions.

Assumes that decision making is uncertain and risky.

Is descriptive, not prescriptive.

76
Q

2 types of non-rational decision making models:

A

Satisficing model: managers seek alternatives until they find one that is satisfactory, not necessarily optimal
Herbert Simon

Intuition model: managers use intuition (a choice without the use of conscious thought or logical inference) to make quick decisions with limited resources

  • *Types of intuition:
  • Holistic hunches - based on expertise
  • Automated experience - based on feelings
77
Q

Bounded rationality

A

The ability of decision makers to be rational is limited by numerous constraints:

  • info overload
  • complexity
  • time
  • money
78
Q

Decision-making style

A

How an individual perceives and responds to information

79
Q

Value orientation

A

Refers to whether a person focuses on either people and social concerns or tasks and technical concerns when faced with decision making

80
Q

4 decision-making styles:

A

Low tolerance for ambiguity:

Directive style:
Efficient, practical, systematic, logical, action-oriented, and decisive (focus on facts about the short run and exercises power and control)

Behavioral style:
Is people-oriented, avoids conflict, shows concern for others, likes suggestions, but is wishy-washy.

High tolerance for ambiguity:

Analytical style:
Considers a lot of info and alternatives. Takes more time. Responds well to new situations.

Conceptual style:
Uses a broad perspective, looks at many options, focuses on the long term. Takes risks, is creative, uses intuition, but is indecisive.

81
Q

4 ineffective reactions to decision making:

A

Relaxed avoidance (takes no action because they believe there will be no neg. consequences)

Relaxed change (opts for the 1st available alternative that involves low risk)

Defensive avoidance (when you can’t find a good solution so they put it off and deny responsibility)

Panic (when you can’t deal with a problem sensibly)

82
Q

Deciding to decide

A

When a manager decides they MUST take some course of action

83
Q

Decision making biases (based on Heuristics, which are strategies that simplify decision making)

A

Availability bias - using info that is readily available from memory to make judgements

Representative bias - the tendency to generalize from a small sample or single event

Confirmation bias - when a person seeks info that supports his/her point of view and discounts other data

Sunk cost bias - when managers see all the money they’ve already put into a project and say it’s too costly to simply abandon it

Anchoring adjustment bias - the tendency to make decisions based on an initial figure

Overconfidence bias - when people have more subjective confidence in their decision making than their objective accuracy

Hindsight bias - when people view past events as more predictable than they really were

Framing bias - when people are influenced by the way a problem is presented

Escalation of commitment bias - when a person increases their commitment to a project, despite negative info

84
Q

Prospect theory

A

People dislike taking losses more than they dislike losing potential gains

This is the reason why ppl enter the lottery

85
Q

Organizational/corporate culture

A

A system of shared beliefs and values that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members.

Can provide organizational identity and competitive advantage.

86
Q

Organizational structure

A

A system of task and reporting relationships that coordinate and motivate an organization’s members so they can work together the achieve goals

87
Q

Person-org fit

A

The extent that corporate culture fits with your own personality

A good fit is important for high levels of performance

88
Q

4 kinds of organizational culture

A

Clan culture

  • Has an internal focus
  • Values flexibility, cohesion, job satisfaction, collaboration, employee development, and commitment
  • Fosters happier/more committed employees

Adhocracy culture

  • Has an external focus
  • Values flexibility, adaptivity, creativity
  • Usually present in innovative/start-up companies

Market culture

  • Has a strong external focus
  • Values stability, control, profit, productivity, results
  • Doesn’t value job satisfaction and employee dev.
  • Employees who work hard are rewarded
  • Usually produces the best results

Hierarchy culture

  • Has an internal focus
  • Values stability, control, efficiency, effectiveness
89
Q

3 layers of organizational culture:

A

Observable artifacts

  • Include physical manifestations of culture
  • How employees dress, how managers act, how the office is decorated

Espoused values

  • The explicitly stated norms and values PREFERRED by the org.
  • Enacted values are the values and norms ACTUALLY exhibited by the org.

Basic assumptions
-Unobservable core values that are taken for granted and hard to change

90
Q

How culture is transmitted to employees

A

Symbols: objects, acts, qualities, or events that convey meaning

Stories: narratives based on true events to emphasize a particular view

Hero: a person who embodies the values of an org.

Rites & rituals: the activities and ceremonies that celebrate important occasions in the org.

91
Q

Organization

A

A system of consciously coordinated activities or forces of 2 or more people

92
Q

3 types of organizations:

A

For-profit
-formed to make money

Nonprofit
-formed to offer services to certain clients

Mutual-benefit
-voluntary collectives used to advance the members’ interests

93
Q

Organizational chart

A

A box-and-lines illustration that shows the formal lines of authority and the organization’s official positions or work specializations

Vertical hierarchy of authority
-By looking up and down the chart, you can see the chain of command and official communication network

Horizontal specialization
-By looking left to right on the chart, you can see the different jobs and work specializations

94
Q

Edgar Schein’s 4 common elements of an org.

A

A common purpose - unifies employees

Coordinated effort

Division of labor - discrete tasks for specialists

A hierarchy of authority - multiple-tiered hierarchy is best
**unity of command: employees should only have to report to 1 manager to avoid conflicting priorities

95
Q

Other common elements of an org.

A

Span of control - the # of ppl reporting to a manager

  • *Tall orgs have many levels with narrow spans of control
  • *Wide orgs have few levels with wide spans of control (becoming more popular)

Authority - the rights inherent to a management position

  • *Accountability - employees are obligated to report to their superiors
  • *Responsibility - employees are obligated to complete assigned tasks
  • *Delegation

Centralization of authority

  • *centralized authority - high level managers make the decisions and prevents duplication of efforts
  • *decentralized authority - decisions are made by middle/supervisory level managers and is more efficient
96
Q

Line vs Staff positions

A

Line managers - have the authority to make decisions and usually ppl report to them (solid vertical line)

Staff personnel - provide advice, recommendations, and research to line managers (dotted horizontal line)

97
Q

Organizational design (3 types)

A

Traditional designs (vertical management hierarchy)
Horizontal designs
Designs that open boundaries between orgs

98
Q

4 types of traditional organizational designs

A

Simple structure

  • Centralized authority, flat hierarchy, few rules, low work specialization
  • Used in small mom-and-pop firms

Functional structure
-People with similar specialties are put in formal groups (such as departments with individual VPs)

Divisional structure

  • People with diverse specialties are put in formal groups based on similar products, regions, customers, etc.
  • *product divisions
  • *customer divisions
  • *geographic divisions

Matrix structure

  • Combines functional and divisional chains of command (both vertical and horizontal)
  • *employees report to 2 bosses (functional and project manager)
  • *violates concept of “unity of command”
99
Q

Horizontal organizational design

A

Is a team-based design used to break down internal boundaries and improve collaboration

EX: cross-functional teams

100
Q

Organizational designs that open boundaries between orgs

A

Boundaryless orgs are fluid, highly adaptive, and linked by information technology

They come together to collaborate on common tasks

Have become more common with increasing technology

Hollow structure (network structure):
-Uses information technology to link a central core to independent outside firms by computer connections

Modular structure:
-A firm which assembles product chunks provided bu outside contractors

Virtual structure:
-When firms create a “company outside a company” to respond to an attractive (temporary) market by creating a virtual organization

101
Q

Link between strategy, culture, and structure

A

Organizational culture and structure should be based on the strategy the org. hopes to implement.

Culture and structure should evolve as strategy evolves

102
Q

Human resource management

A

Planning, attracting, developing, and retaining an effective workforce

An org’s people are its most important resource

103
Q

Strategic human resources management process

A
Determine the mission and vision
Determine the grand strategy
Come up with a strategic plan
Determine what HRs are needed
Recruit and select people
Engage in orientation, training, and development
Appraise employee performance
104
Q

Human capital

A

the economic or productive potential of an employee

105
Q

Knowledge workers

A

Their work involves generating or interpreting info, not manual labor

106
Q

Social capital

A

The economic or productive potential of strong and trusting relationships

107
Q

How to understand current employee needs

A

Job analysis - determines the basic elements of a job by observing and analyzing the job

Job description - summarizes what a job entails

Job specification - describes the qualifications needed to have a specific job

108
Q

Human resource inventory

A

Used to identify employees for promotion from within

Lists employees in order based on name, education, training, languages, etc.

109
Q

Recruitment of employees

A

The process of locating and attracting employees

Internal recruiting:

  • recruiting ppl who already work in an org. by putting up job postings (put on bulletin boards, newsletters, and the intranet)
  • *Is cheap, guarantees a familiar employee, and shows that hard work is rewarded
  • *It limits the pool of candidates, employees believe seniority guarantees them a promotion, and it does not remove the vacancy

External recruiting:

  • attracting applicants from outside the org
  • can advertise in newspapers, employment agencies, job-placement offices, and word of mouth
  • *brings fresh ideas into the org.
  • *is more expensive, time consuming, and risky

It’s important to give a realistic job preview to potential candidates so they don’t end up quitting

110
Q

Selection process

A

Screening job applicants to hire the best candidate

Background information
-looking at the application and resume of a candidate

Interviewing

  • unstructured interview: asking probing questions to find out about the candidates personality
  • structured interview: sticking to a script of questions
  • situational interview: the interviewer uses hypothetical situations to test the candidate’s abilities
  • behavioral-description interview: explores what an applicant has actually done in the past

Employment tests

  • includes all procedures used in the selection process
  • ability tests: test the physical, mental, and clerical abilities of an applicant
  • performance tests: assess the applicant’s performance on an actual given task
  • personality tests
  • integrity tests

All tests should be both reliable and valid.

111
Q

Types of compensations and benefits:

A

Wages and salaries
Incentives (bonuses, stock options, commissions)
Benefits (non-monetary forms of compensation: holidays, health insurance, retirement plans, etc)

112
Q

Onboarding

A

Doing everything possible to make a new employee feel welcome

113
Q

Orientation

A

The process of helping a newcomer fit smoothly into a job and organization

By the end, employees should know:

  • Their job routine
  • The mission and operations of their job
  • The work rules and employee benefits
114
Q

Training and development

A

Training: educating technical and operational employees how to better do their CURRENT jobs

Development: educating professionals and managers in the skills they need to their jobs in the FUTURE

115
Q

Performance appraisal

A

Assessing an employee’s performance and providing the employee with feedback

**usually ineffective and based on if your employer likes you or not

The info is gathered from subordinates, peers, clients, customers, and the employee being appraised

116
Q

Performance management

A

The continuous cycle of improving job performance through goal setting, feedback, coaching, and rewards

  • define performance
  • measure and evaluate performance
  • review performance
  • provide consequences
117
Q

Objective appraisals (results appraisals)

A

Appraisals based on facts and are often numeric

Attempts to empower employees

EX) level of sales, customer complaints filed, etc.

118
Q

Subjective appraisals

A

Appraisals based on a manager’s perceptions of an employee (traits and behaviors)

BARS - behaviorally anchored rating scale
**rated based on specific behaviors

119
Q

360 degree assessment

A

When an employee is appraised by supervisors, peers, subordinates, and even clients

Must be anonymous

120
Q

Forced ranking performance review system

A

Involves ranking all employees against one another and putting them on a bell curve. Bad employees must improve and good employees are rewarded. Can discourage teamwork.

121
Q

Formal vs informal appraisals

A

Formal appraisals: are conducted at specific times throughout the year and are based on specific measures

Informal appraisals: are conducted randomly and have less rigorous assessments (keep employees on their toes)

122
Q

Employee replacement

A

The broad term that refers to firing, promoting, transferring, or disciplining employees

123
Q

Transferring employees

A

When you move an employee to a job with similar responsibilities

Done when:

  • the org. needs their skills elsewhere
  • the org. wants to broaden the employee’s skills
  • the org. wants to retain the employee’s motivation and interest by giving them new challenges
  • employee problems need to be resolved
124
Q

Disciplining employees

A

Temporarily removing them from their job

125
Q

Demoting employees

A

Permanently moving an employee to a lower level job (with lower pay and responsibilities)

126
Q

Dismissing employees

A

Layoffs: is dismissed but may be rehired
Downsized: is permanently dismissed, but not due to their performance
Fired: permanently dismissed due to performance

127
Q

Employment at will

A

States that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason

128
Q

5 steps to dismissing employees:

A
Give them time to improve
Don't delay
Document the reasons for the dismissal
Be aware that this is hard for them
Help them find a new job
129
Q

NLRB (national labor relations board)

A

States that employees can have unions and engage in “collective bargaining” (negotiations between management and employees)

130
Q

Fair labor standards act of 1938

A

Banned child labor and established minimum living standards for workers

131
Q

Occupational safety and health act of 1970 (OSHA)

A

A body of laws that protect workers from bad working conditions

132
Q

Equal employment opportunity commission (EEOC)

A

Enforces anti-discrimination

133
Q

Types of workplace discrimination

A

Adverse impact - when a practice or procedure negatively impacts a protected class of people

Disparate treatment - when an org. intentionally treats people from a protected group differently

134
Q

Affirmative action

A

Focuses on achieving equal opportunity within an org.

Techniques:

  • Active recruitment
  • Minority hiring goals
  • Elimination of prejudicial interview questions
135
Q

Types of sexual harassment

A

Quid pro quo: when a person’s job is in jeopardy if they don’t give into sexual demands

Hostile environment: when an intimidating or offensive work environment is created.

136
Q

Bullies are mostly:

A

Charming and successful male executives

137
Q

Types of supertrends:

A

Segmentation of niche products
(offering a wide variety of products to specific groups)

Targets products with shorter time to market
(constantly trying to be the first person to put something on the market)

Radical innovation
(traditional orgs can’t take full advantage of disruptive technology)

Effects of China and India
(have cheaper labor and offshoring is becoming more common)

Knowledge as a competitive advantage
(these “data workers” are becoming more useful employees)

138
Q

Reactive vs proactive change

A

Reactive change - making changes in response to problems or opportunities as they arise

Proactive change - carefully thought-out changes made in anticipation of possible or expected problems and opportunities

139
Q

External forces for change

A
Demographic changes
Changes in the market
Technological advancements
Social and political pressures
Shareholder and customer demands
140
Q

Internal forces for change

A

Problems with employees

Behavior of managers

141
Q

Types of change:

A

Adaptive change - the reintroduction of familiar practices

Innovative change - the introduction of a practice that is new to the org

Radically innovative change - the introduction of a practice that is new to the industry

142
Q

Lewin’s change model

A

States that change occurs in 3 steps:

Unfreezing - managers encourage employees to give up the old ways of doing things

Changing - managers give employees the tools needed to change (benchmarking, mentors, experts, training)

Refreezing - changes are integrated into normal routines

143
Q

Benchmarking

A

Comparing an org’s progress to that of a high performing org.

144
Q

Kotter’s 8 steps for leading organizational change

A
Create a sense of urgency
Create a guiding coalition
Develop a vision and strategy
Communicate the change vision
Empower broad-based action
Generate short-term wins
Consolidate gains and produce more changes
Anchor new approaches in the culture 

**he believes that successful change is a result of good leadership, not good management

145
Q

Invention

A

The process of creating something new

146
Q

Innovation

A

The process of coming up with new ideas and turning them into useful applications

The most innovative firms are not afraid of failure

Innovation cannot be systematized

147
Q

Creativity

A

Developing something new or unique

148
Q

Product vs process innovation

A

Product innovation - changing a current product or introducing a new one

Process innovation - changing the way a product is conceived, manufactured, or disseminated

149
Q

Core vs transformational innovation

A

Core innovation is the modification of existing products for existing customers

Transformational innovation is the creation or replacement of new products to create new markets

150
Q

How to foster innovation

A

Create a culture that celebrates failure

Assign the right people and devote the right amount of time, money, energy, and focus to innovation

Reward top-performing innovators