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Surgery > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Grade the luxation: Patella fixed in luxation, manual reduction is not possible, stifle cannot be fully extended

A

Grade 4

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2
Q

DOC to tx VPCs?

A

Lidocaine

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3
Q

The short portion of the tarsal collaterals is taut/relaxed in extention/flexion?

A

Taut in flexion and extension

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4
Q

Describe the appearance of a leg that has caudoventral hip luxation

A

Non-weightbearing

Leg is held abducted and flexed

Stifle internally rotated

Affected limb is longer

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5
Q

Tx for tarsus hyperextension?

A

Coaptation prior to surgery

Partial tarsal arthrodesis at level of injury

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6
Q

Double bladder sign on US = ?

A

Prostatic cyst

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7
Q

How would you differentiate acute gastric dilation from chronic gastric volvulus based on stomach position?

A

AGD = normal position

CGV = slight malposition

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8
Q

Indications for medical management of pyometra?

A

Not systemically ill

Open pyometra

Owner highly motivated and aware of risks

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9
Q

Do mammary tumors affect male and female dogs at the same rate? Male and female cats?

A

Dogs - female > male

Cats - female = male

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10
Q

If you suspect your patient has legg-perthes but the radiographs are normal, what do you do?

A

Repeat in 1 month

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11
Q

Signs associated with vaginal neoplasia?

A

Vulvar mass

Vaginal discharge

Dysuria

Tenesmus

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12
Q

Indications for partial pancreatectomy?

A

Tumor removal

Biopsy of large lesion

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13
Q

Which canine mammary glands are most commonly affected by neoplasia?

A

4th and 5th

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14
Q

What procedure is ideal for large, active dogs with hip dysplasia?

A

THR

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15
Q

When closing the stomach, what is the holding layer?

A

Submucosa

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16
Q

What is the most common vaginal neoplasia?

A

Leiomyoma

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17
Q

What makes up the common calcanean tendon?

A

Gastrocnemius tendons

Combined tendons of the gracillis, semitendinosus, biceps femoris

Superficial digital flexor

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18
Q

The long tarsal collaterals are taut/relaxed when the joint is extended/flexed?

A

Taut when extended

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19
Q

Indications for a chain mastectomy?

A

Multiple masses throughout the chain

Tumors in gland 3 with any COM

Solitary masses anywhere with multiple COM

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20
Q

Indications for TPO?

A

6-8 months old

Distinct “clunk”

Angle of reduction <30 degrees

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21
Q

What is the single most important element of preventing hip dysplasia?

A

Weight management

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22
Q

What breeds are predisposed to GDV?

A

Great dane

St. Bernard

Standard poodle

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23
Q

What layers are incised with a Fredet-Ramstedt Pyloromyotomy?

A

Seromuscular layers

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24
Q

Which ovarian neoplasia can be bilateral?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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25
Q

What type of female reproductive lesions would you use an episiotomy approach?

A

Vestibular

Vaginal

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26
Q

As a result of medial malalignment of the quadriceps, what changes occur that relate to MPL?

A

Medial displacement of tibial tuberosity

Shallow trochlear groove

Hypoplasia of medial condylar ridge

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27
Q

Classify the acquired pyloric stenosis: Muscular hypertrophy

A

Grade 1

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28
Q

What breed is associated with congenital pyloric stenosis?

A

Boston terriers

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29
Q

Tx and approach for fibroadenomatous hyperplasia in cats?

A

OVH/OVE

Flank approach

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30
Q

What sex and breed is associated with mesenteric torsion?

A

Male GSD

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31
Q

What is the degree of rotation with counterclockwise GDV?

A

90

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32
Q

Which lobes of the liver is it ok to use the ligature technique for a complete liver lobectomy?

A

Left lateral

Left medial

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33
Q

Breeds associated with gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

Rough collie

Staff terrier

Belgian shep

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34
Q

What breeds are most affected by patellar luxation?

A

Small/toy breeds

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35
Q

What are the cat specific signs of portosystemic shunts?

A

Ptyalism

Copper colored irises

Aggressive behavior

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36
Q

What factors predispose a dog to GDV?

A

Underweight

Older

Temperament (mean/fearful)

Male

Intact female

Splenectomy?

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37
Q

What margins should you take when removing an intestinal adenocarcinoma or leiomyosarcoma?

A

4-8cm

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38
Q

Indication for Billroth II procedure?

A

When resection of stomach is so proximal to limit end to end anastomosis

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39
Q

What are the early radiographic changes associated with legg-perthes?

A

Radiopacity of lateral femoral head

Focal bony lysis - “motheaten” or “apple core”

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40
Q

What are the most common intestinal neoplasias in cats?

A

Lymphosarcoma

Adenocarcinoma

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41
Q

What percentage of CCL injuries also have meniscal injury?

A

60-70%

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42
Q

What is the most common rectal neoplasia in dogs?

A

Adenomatous polyp

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43
Q

What breeds are associated with intrahepatic portosystemic shunts?

A

Labs

Australian shepherds

Old english sheep dogs

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44
Q

What gait is associated with MPL?

A

Skipping gait

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45
Q

Which part of the CCL is taut in flexion and extension?

A

Craniomedial

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46
Q

What sling do you use for a craniodorsal hip luxation? For how long?

A

Ehmer sling 4-14 days

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47
Q

Beak or apple core appearance of pylorus = ?

A

Congenital pyloric stenosis

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48
Q

Describe the stance of a dog that is in the compensatory stage of hip dysplasia

A

Rear base-wide

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49
Q

Common age of animals affected by carpal laxity syndrome?

A

5-27 weeks

Males

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50
Q

Surgical tx for tarsus OCD?

A

Fragment excision/debridement

Tibiotarsal arthrodesis

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51
Q

When would you do a single layer stomach closure instead of a double later?

A

Pyloric outflow tract

Reduced gastric volume

Thickened gastric wall

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52
Q

Classify the acquired pyloric stenosis: Mucosal hyperplasia + muscular and submucosal inflammation

A

Grade 3

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53
Q

What ratio of small intestine diameter to L% height tells you obstruction vs obstruction?

A

<1.6 = no obstruction

>2 = obstruction

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54
Q

If you are doing a regional mastectomy for a mammary tumor in glands 1 and 2, which glands are you going to remove?

A

1-3

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55
Q

MST for intestinal leiomyosarcoma?

A

1y

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56
Q

What are the most common cecal neoplasias?

A

Leiomyoma

Leiomyosarcoma

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57
Q

Which carpal collateral ligament has a straight and oblique part? Which only has a straight part?

A

Radial = straight and oblique

Ulnar = straight only

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58
Q

Neutering is recommended for what hip condition?

A

Legg-perthes

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59
Q

Advantages/Disadvantages of Fredet-ramstedt Pyloromyotomy?

A

Ad - quick and easy, lumen not opened

Dis - Only for congenital, stenosis may reoccur

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60
Q

When is it indicated to do an emergency gastrostomy for GDV?

A

If unable to decompress by orogastric tube or trocharization and other surgical treatment must be delayed

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61
Q

What is the most common sign of cystic endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Failure to conceive

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62
Q

What phase(s) is it easiest to identify an ovarian remnant?

A

Estrus or diestrus

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63
Q

How does prostaglandin F2a help in the medical management of pyometra?

A

Makes the smooth muscle contract and expell the fluid

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64
Q

Tx for vaginal edema?

A

OHE/OE

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65
Q

Tx for small vs large prostatic cysts?

A

Small/limited attachment = surgical resection

Large/capsular/urethral communication = partial resection and omentalization

Castration with all cysts

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66
Q

Age range for young dogs with hip dysplasia?

A

5-12 months

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67
Q

T/F: Ovarian neoplasias commonly metastasize

A

False

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68
Q

What approach and technique would you use for annular vestibulovaginal stenosis that is intrapelvic?

A

Ventral abdominal + transpelvic approach

Vaginectomy (cervix to urethral opening)

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69
Q

How are glucose and potassium affected with GDV?

A

Both decreased

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70
Q

Best method to dx pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

Cytology

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71
Q

Which is more common, primary or secondary peritonitis?

A

Secondary

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72
Q

What is the most common intestinal malignancy in dogs?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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73
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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74
Q

What is a poor prognostic indicator with single, congenital shunts?

A

Ascites (secondary to portal hypertension)

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75
Q

What is a post-op complication of meniscal release?

A

Long term OA

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76
Q

What antibiotics are best for tx of pyometra?

A

Ampicillin/enrofloxacin

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77
Q

What makes percutaneous tru-cut biopsy better than FNA w/ cytology in terms of diagnosis?

A

Histopathologic evaluation is better than cytology

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78
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of Heineke-Mikulicz Pyloroplasty?

A

Ad - mucosa exposed (biopsy), reoccurrence unlikely

Dis - Lumen opened, not usually effective with acquired stenosis

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79
Q

Surgical tx for recessed vulva?

A

Episioplasty (aka vulvoplasty)

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80
Q

How mant maniscotibial ligaments are there?

A

2

Medial and lateral

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81
Q

If you are doing a regional mastectomy for a mammary tumor in glands 4 and 5, which glands are you going to remove?

A

3-5

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82
Q

Which mammary tumor is surgery not indicated for?

A

Inflammatory carcinoma

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83
Q

What conditions predispose to pica?

A

Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency

Hepatic encephalopathy

Iron deficiency

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84
Q

T/F: Restricting water before/after feeding reduces the risk of GDV

A

False

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85
Q

What is the most common injury to the canine carpus?

A

Hyperextension (damage to palmar support structures)

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86
Q

What is the male:female of intestinal neoplasia in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs = 2:1

Cats = 1:2

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87
Q

What is the most common congenital deformity of the stifle?

A

Patellar luxation

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88
Q

What size margins should you excise when removing a gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

>5cm

Remove regional LN’s too

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89
Q

Is clockwise or counterclockwise GDV more common?

A

Clockwise

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90
Q

What lactate levels are associated with gastric necrosis?

A

>6

Worse prognosis

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91
Q

Age for dogs and cats with ovarian cyst?

A

Dogs < 3 years

Cats < 5 years

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92
Q

What % of canine mammary tumors are malignant?

A

50%

93
Q

T/F: Repair of vestibulovaginal stenosis also fixes incontinence

A

False

94
Q

What is the preferred test for diagnosing gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

Endoscopy

95
Q

How does JPS differ from TPO in regards to the acetabulum?

A

JPS rotates ventrally

TPO rotates dorsally

96
Q

Grade the luxation: Patella can be manually luxated but spontaneously returns to normal position

A

Grade 1

97
Q

Which do you want to do first, OHE or mastectomy and why?

A

OHE first

Avoid seeding tumor into abdomen

98
Q

When is diagnostic imaging necessary for cancer?

A

Thoracic and abdominal tumors

Firm, non-mobile tumors

SQ, IM, and body wall tumors

99
Q

When is a lumpectomy appropriate?

A

When there are no COM

100
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of gastric neoplasia?

A

Biopsy

101
Q

What is the most common origin of uterine neoplasia in dogs?

A

Smooth muscle

102
Q

When should excisional biopsy be considered?

A

Treatment would not be altered by tumor type

Re-excision possible without great morbidity

103
Q

Classify the acquired pyloric stenosis: Muscular and mucosal hypertrophy

A

Grade 2

104
Q

What approach and technique would you use for septal vestibulovaginal stenosis?

A

Episiotomy or endoscopic

Laser ablation or scissor resection with endoscopic

105
Q

Cytology is good for what types of cancer?

A

Mast cell tumors

Melanoma

Lymphoma

TVT

Plasma cell

106
Q

Acute gastric dilation or chronic gastric volvulus: normal position, distended stomach

A

Acute

107
Q

Is medial or lateral collateral injury more common?

A

Medial

108
Q

What are the 3 forms of liver adenocarcinoma and which has the best prognosis with complete surgical excision?

A

Massive - best prognosis

Nodular

Diffuse

109
Q

Grade the luxation: Patella luxates with lateral pressure or on flexion of stifle, remains luxated until reduced manually or when animal extends

A

Grade 2

110
Q

Etiology of medial luxating patella?

A

Medial malalignment of quadriceps (growth)

111
Q

MST for cecal neoplasia?

A

7-12m

112
Q

When would you do a punch liver biopsy?

A

Superficial lesions that are centrally located

Generalized hepatic disease (easy to do multiply biopsies)

113
Q

What nutritional contents should be restricted to help prevent hip dysplasia from developing?

A

Calcium/Vitamin D

Energy

114
Q

When would you use medical treatment for tarsus OCD?

A

Older dogs

Established OA

115
Q

Describe the stance of a dog in the degeneration phase of hip dysplasia

A

Rear base-narrow

116
Q

What layers are incised with the Heineke-Mikulicz Pyloroplasty?

A

All layers

117
Q

What is the dx of choice to dx canine mammary tumors?

A

Excisional biopsy

118
Q

With partial rupture of the common calcanean tendon, what portion is spared?

A

SDF

119
Q

What tumors should be removed with wide excision?

A

Mast cell tumors (high grade)

Sarcomas

120
Q

Is gastric leiomyosarcoma more common in the cardia or pylorus?

A

Cardia

121
Q

What age animals usually get intussuseptions?

A

<1 year

122
Q

What breeds and age are associated with legg-perthes?

A

4-11 months

Minature poodle

Westie

123
Q

What is the main risk associated with percutaneous tru-cut liver biopsy?

A

Increased risk of bleeding

124
Q

What are the main functions of the cranial cruciate ligament?

A

Prevents:

Cranial tibial thrust

Hyperextension

Internal rotation

125
Q

Tx for feline mammary tumor?

A

Chain mastectomy on affected side

126
Q

Treatment of choice for uterine torsion?

A

OHE

Do not derotate!

127
Q

What mammary tumor factors influence MST?

A

Tumor subtype

Tumor size

Histopathologic characteristics

128
Q

What is the average age for intestinal carcinoma, lymphosarcoma, and leiomyosarcoma?

A

Carcinoma and lymphosarcoma = 10y in dogs and cats

Leoimyosarcoma = 11y in dogs

129
Q

What is the best modality to diagnose congenital pyloric stenosis?

A

US

130
Q

What is the gait associated with hip dysplasia?

A

Hip sway

131
Q

Do you more often need surgical repair with caudoventral or craniodorsal hip luxation?

A

Craniodorsal

132
Q

T/F: Osteotomy will eliminate tibial thrust and cranial drawer

A

False

Only eliminates tibial thrust

133
Q

What can you give to help deal with reperfusion injury from GDV?

A

Acetylcysteine

Vitamin C, E, selenium

Deferoxamine

Lidocaine

134
Q

What are the complications of a Billroth II procedure?

A

Alkaline gastritis (bile and pancreatic secretions enter stomach)

“Blind loop” syndrome (gastric contents move orally)

Marginal ulceration

135
Q

What complication is associated with TPLO?

A

Iatrogenic angular limb deformity

136
Q

What is the most common source of infection for secondary septic peritonitis

A

GIT

137
Q

How would you differentiate BPH from prostatitis on US?

A

BPH = homogenous enlargement

Prostatitis = heterogenous enlargement

138
Q

What age is it appropriate to do a JPS in a dog with hip dysplasia?

A

<20 weeks

139
Q

What conditions must be satisfied in order to do medical treatment for metritis?

A

Valuable breeding animal

Good response to initial therapy

No devitalized tissue/retained placenta or fetus

140
Q

What forceps do you want to use on tissue you plan to preserve?

A

Doyen forceps

141
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing septic peritonitis?

A

Cytology of abdominal fluid

142
Q

What complication is associated with TTA?

A

Iatrogenic patellar luxation

143
Q

How are the collateral ligaments different in the tarsus and carpus?

A

Carpus = only span one joint

Tarsus = long portion spans entire tarsus, short portion in two parts

144
Q

Which type of surgery acts as a prosthetic capital ligament for coxofemoral luxation?

A

Toggle pin/rod

145
Q

MST for cats and dogs with intestinal adenocarcinoma?

A

Cats = 2y

Dogs = 10m

146
Q

Tx for atresia ani?

A

Bougienage

Analplasty

Rectal pullthrough

147
Q

What bacteria are usually associated with septic secondary peritonitis?

A

E. coli

Bacteroides

148
Q

T/F: In regards to CCL disease, synovitis is present in the contralateral stifle joint

A

True

149
Q

Most common feline mammary tumor?

A

Adenocarcinoma

150
Q

What does it mean if you see cranial drawer/tibial thrust in a puppy ≤6 months old?

A

Normal finding

151
Q

Are vaginal neoplasias usually benign or malignant?

A

Benign

152
Q

Tx for grade 3 acquired pyloric stenosis?

A

Billroth 1

153
Q

T/F: With counterclockwise GDV, the greater omentum covers the stomach

A

False

With clockwise rotation

154
Q

What breeds are predisposed to tarsal hyperextension?

A

Middle-aged Shelties/Collies

155
Q

What approach and technique would you use for annular vestibulovaginal stenosis that is caudal to the pelvis?

A

Dorsal approach

Vaginal resection and anastomosis

156
Q

What layers of the stomach and small intestines are affected by pythiosis?

A

Submucosa

Muscularis

157
Q

T/F: Castration increases the risk of prostatic neoplasia

A

True

158
Q

What % of feline mammary tumors are malignant?

A

85-90%

159
Q

What large intestinal procedure do you want to use prophylactic antibiotics for?

A

Subtotal colectomy

160
Q

T/F: Glucocorticoids are great to use when treating GDV

A

False

Never give!!!!!

161
Q

What is the most common cause of multiple acquired portosystemic shunts?

A

Portal hypertension

162
Q

What is the most common neoplasm in the intact female dog?

A

Mammary tumor

163
Q

How many meniscofemoral ligaments are there?

A

1

Lateral only

164
Q

What is the most common grade of acquired pyloric stenosis?

A

Grade 2

165
Q

Age of dogs with cecal inversion?

A

<4y

166
Q

What nerve can be affected by the lateral suture technique?

A

Peroneal

167
Q

What type of arrhythmia is most common post-op GDV and what causes it?

A

VPCs

Caused by reperfusion

168
Q

What is the most common type of meniscal tear?

A

Bucket handle

169
Q

What organs are most affected by vasoconstriction caused by GDV?

A

Liver and kidney

170
Q

What muscles may me atrophied with hip dysplasia?

A

Quads

Biceps femoris

171
Q

95% of deaths following GDV occur how long post-op?

A

Within 4 days

172
Q

How long can uterine prolapse happen after parturition of final fetus?

A

Up to 48 hours

173
Q

Signalment for splenic torsion?

A

Large and giant breed dogs

Males > females

Not reported in cats

174
Q

With GDV, how does the pylorus rotate?

A

Cranial ventrally from righ to left

175
Q

Which part of the CCL is taut in extension only?

A

Caudolateral

176
Q

Which radiographic view is best to diagnose GDV? Which view should you never take?

A

Right lateral is best

Never take VD

177
Q

What liver neoplasia is most common in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs = hepatocellular

Cats = cholangiocellular

178
Q

What diets decrease the risk for GDV and why?

A

Egg or fish

Easy to digest protein

179
Q

Why can you no longer get pyometra after an OHE or OE?

A

The ovary is the progesterone source so since its not there anymore, pyometra cant develop

180
Q

Describe the lameness associated with OCD of the tarsus?

A

Worsens after rest

181
Q

How does the age range differ between gastric leiomyosarcoma and gastric leiomyoma?

A

Sarcoma = 7 years

Leiomyoma = >15 years

182
Q

Where does gastric adenocarcinoma metastasize to?

A

Regional lymph nodes

Liver

183
Q

When would you use the guillotine technique for liver biopsy?

A

Lesions at the periphery of the lobes

Diffuse liver disease

184
Q

Which arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach? Lesser curvature?

A

Greater = Right/left gastroepiploic

Lesser = Right/left gastric

185
Q

What is the best place to take a biopsy of the pancreas from?

A

Right distal limb (diffuse disease)

186
Q

Which technique is most commonly used for complete or partial liver lobectomy?

A

TA stapler

187
Q

What breeds are associated with extrahepatic portosystemic shunts?

A

Yorkies

Shih Tzus

Maltese

Mini poodle

Mini schnauzer

Pugs

188
Q

What is the most common post-op complication of GDV surgery?

A

Shock

189
Q

What factors increase the complication rate of the lateral suture technique?

A

Higher body weight

Younger age

190
Q

What is an alternative two layer closure technique?

A

Simple continuous in submucosa, cushing pattern in seromuscular layers

or

Simple continuous in serosa/muscularis/submucosa, cushing pattern in seromuscular layers

191
Q

What sling is indicated post reduction of a caudoventral hip luxation? Which is contraindicated?

A

Hobbles for 10-14 days

Dont use Ehmer sling

192
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing portosystemic shunts?

A

CT angiography

193
Q

What is the surgical management for a hyperextension injury?

A

Arthrodesis

194
Q

How long prior to surgery should a patient with portosystemic shunt be medically managed?

A

At least 2 weeks

195
Q

What is the most common tumor of the perianal area?

A

Perianal adenoma

196
Q

Tx for grade 1 acquired pyloric stenosis?

A

Transverse pyloroplasty

197
Q

Tx for calcanean rupture? Suture type?

A

3-loop pulley > locking loop

Monofilament nonabsorbable suture

198
Q

Describe the appearance of inflammatory mammary carcinoma

A

Edema, erythema

Firm

Pain

CS mimic mastitis

199
Q

What is the advantage of doing a Roux-en-Y anastomosis over a Billroth II?

A

Avoids alkaline reflux gastritis and decreases liklihood of blind loop syndrome

200
Q

How large should your biopsy be when doing a transverse wedge biopsy?

A

<20-25% of circumference

201
Q

What is an early radiographic finding of hip dysplasia?

A

Morgan’s line

202
Q

What is the traditional two layer closure for the stomach?

A

Cushing pattern oversewn with lembert

203
Q

If the antebrachiocarpal joint is abnormal, would you do a partial carpal arthrodesis or a pancarpal arthrodesis?

A

Pancarpal arthrodesis

204
Q

What is the most common developmental anomaly of the external male genitalia?

A

Hypospadia (incomplete formation of the penile urethra)

205
Q

Treatment of choice for pancreatic abscess?

A

Debridement > resection

206
Q

What type of female reproductive lesions would you use a ventral approach for?

A

Intrapelvic

Abdominal

207
Q

How long postpartum can metritis occur?

A

12 hours to 1 week

208
Q

MST with inflammatory carcinoma?

A

< 1 month

209
Q

What is the most common cause of primary peritonitis?

A

FIP

210
Q

What finding on palpation is the hallmark for hip dysplasia?

A

Pain on extension

211
Q

What technique for partial liver lobectomy results in the greatest blood loss?

A

Parenchymal fracture and ligation (ligating or cauterizing individual vessels)

212
Q

Grade the luxation: Patella is luxated most of the time, patella can be manually reduced but reluxated spontaneously

A

Grade 3

213
Q

Tx for grade 2 acquired pyloric stenosis?

A

Y-U Pyloroplasty

214
Q

Hallmark for diagnosis of septic peritonitis using cytology?

A

Intracellular bacteria

215
Q

Acute gastric dilation or chronic gastric volvulus: slight malposition, vomiting, eructation, gastropexy

A

Chronic

216
Q

What can you cause if you fail to adequately ligate the bile duct or fail to recognize and ligate small hepatic ducts entering the cystic duct?

A

Bile peritonitis

217
Q

Tx for legg-perthes?

A

FHO

THR

218
Q

What breed do you commonly see OCD of the tarsus?

A

Rottweilers

219
Q

What is the initial tx for GDV?

A

Fluids

Decompression

Pain management

220
Q

Describe the appearance of a leg that is affected with craniodorsal hip luxation

A

Leg held in relaxed extension

Stifle externally rotated

Affected leg is shorter

221
Q

What breeds are associated with acquired pyloric stenosis?

A

Lhasa Apso

Shih Tzu

222
Q

Tx for BPH?

A

Castration

223
Q

What signs will you see with proximal vs distal intussuseption?

A

Proximal = vomiting

Distal = tenesmus

224
Q

Which ovarian medical issue needs to be referred?

A

Ovarian remnant

225
Q

What makes up the medical management of portosystemic shunts?

A

Lactulose

Low protein diet

Antibiotics (metronidazole, neomycin, ampicillin)

226
Q

What are the most common type of portosystemic shunts?

A

Congenital extrahepatic

227
Q

What do you also have to remove if there is a mammary tumor in gland 5?

A

Superficial inguinal LN

228
Q

Kiwi sign on US = ?

A

Biliary mucocele

Surgery (5 decks)

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