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Surgery > Exam 1-Lecture > Flashcards

Exam 1-Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

Why would you do a cortical fenestration?

A

Speed granuylation tissue formation over exposed bone

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2
Q

What is the process by which epiphyseal cartilage becomes bone?

A

Endochondral ossification

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3
Q

Preferred antibiotic for non-GI surgeries

A

Cefazolin

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4
Q

What mode: Plates are used in addition to primarily placed lag or positional screws

A

Neutralization mode

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5
Q

T/F: Dogs with MCD will experience pain with flexion and supination of the elbow

A

True

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6
Q

What agent of granulex helps stimulate capillary formation?

A

Balsam of Peru

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7
Q

Which type of screw has a more shallow thread? Cancellous or cortical

A

Cortical screw

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8
Q

What are some indications for skin grafting?

A

Skin defects on the extremities

Extensive burn wounds

Adjunct to other reconstructive procedures

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9
Q

Antibiotic use when an infection is already present. What type of wounds?

A

Therapeutic

Contaminated/Dirty

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10
Q

Definition: spontaneous fusion of a joint - end stage of joint disease

A

Ankylosis

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11
Q

Which is stronger? Lag screw or position screw?

A

Lag screw

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12
Q

Under what circumstance would you use cross pinning?

A

Simple transverse fractures close to the joint

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13
Q

What is determined by the core diameter of the screw?

A

Bending strength

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14
Q

When using IM pins with a plate, what diameter pin should you use?

A

35-40% canal fill

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15
Q

Which is the preffered surgical technique for osteochondritis dissecans? Arthroscopy or arthrotomy

A

Arthroscopy

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16
Q

When is it most appropriate to use an external skeletal fixator for fracture fixation?

A

Fractures below the stifle and elbow

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17
Q

What are the benefits of negative wound pressure therapy for acute vs chronic wounds?

A

Acute = promote granulation tissue formation

Chronic = improves second intention healing

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18
Q

What type of degloving injury is it when the skin is devitalized but still in place?

A

Physiologic

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19
Q

When is prophylactic antibiotic use encouraged?

A

High infection risk

Catastrophic infection risk

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20
Q

An infection involving implants can be classified as a surgical infection for how long post-op?

A

1y

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21
Q

Definition: elastic modulus is dependent upon the direction of loading

A

Anisotropic

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22
Q

T/F: If there is glenoid dysplasia with congenital shoulder luxation, reduction is not possible

A

True

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23
Q

What is determined by the outer diameter of the screw?

A

Oull out strength

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24
Q

T/F: If the etiology is repetitive trauma or overuse, it is probably seen bilaterally in adult dogs

A

False

Seen unilaterally

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25
Q

What type of internal fixation do you want to avoid disruption of fracture hematoma?

A

Biological osteosynthesis

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26
Q

What are the indications for surgery to treat biceps tendinopathy?

A

Refractory to medical therapy

Radiographic changes

Mechanical deficits

Moderate to severe lameness

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27
Q

T/F: The outcome of joint surgery is based on the cause rather than the procedure/technique

A

False

Based on procedure/technique rather than the cause

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28
Q

What size dogs are associated with congenital shoulder luxation?

A

Small and toy breeds

Shetland sheepdog

Collie

Elkhound

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29
Q

What technique would you use for Salter Harris Type 1 fractures of the proximal humerus or femoral head?

A

Diverging pin technique

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30
Q

Whe is calcium alginate dressing indicated?

A

Moderate to heavily exudative wounds in early stages of healing

Wound adequately debrided but not amenable for closure

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31
Q

What agent of granulex helps minimize tissue desiccation?

A

Castor oil

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32
Q

How do the lengths of the radius and ulna compare in a dog with UAP?

A

Short ulna/long radius

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33
Q

When cross pinning, should the pins cross above or below the fracture line?

A

Above

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34
Q

T/F: Dogs usually show good response to NSAIDs for shoulder instability

A

False

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35
Q

Interlocking nail cannot be used in what bone?

A

Radius

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36
Q

What is the exception to using orthopedic wire as the sole method of fracture fixation?

A

Some mandibular fractures

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37
Q

What type of strain: Combination of compressive, tensile, and shear loading forces

A

Torsion

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38
Q

What is the debriding agent of granulex?

A

Trypsin

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39
Q

What is the ideal number of transfixation pins used above and below the fracture?

A

3-4

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40
Q

Definition: surgical fusion of a joint

A

Arthrodesis

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41
Q

What are some examples of secondary osteoarthritis?

A

Developmental: OCD, hip dysplasia

Acquired: trauma, neoplasia

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42
Q

What size dogs are associated with biceps brachii tendinopathy?

A

Medium and large breed

Middle-aged

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43
Q

Wound containing pus, or perforation of hollow viscus.

A

Dirty

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44
Q

How many screws do you need to place above and below a fracture when using locking plates?

A

2 above and 2 below (4 cortices)

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45
Q

Femoral head and neck excision and glenoid excision are what types of surgery?

A

Partial excision arthroplasty

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46
Q

What is the common age of presentation for elbow dysplasia?

A

5-12 months

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47
Q

What is the major disavantage of surgical drains?

A

Increased risk of secondary infection

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48
Q

Open fracture classification:

Open wound >1cm

Wound from external source

Mild soft tissue traume

No flaps or avulsions

A

Type 2

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49
Q

What type of ESF?

A

Type 2A

Bilateral-Uniplanar

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50
Q

Most common source of operative infections?

A

Endogenous flora

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51
Q

Definition: incision into a joint

A

Arthrotomy

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52
Q

How do the lengths of the radius and ulna compare in a dog with FCP?

A

Short radius/long ulna

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53
Q

What are two advantages of limited contact DCP over DCP?

A

Allows stress to be more evenly distributed across the plate

Less contact with bone = less disruption of periosteal vascularity

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54
Q

What antibiotic is used for type 1 and 2 wounds?

A

Cefazolin

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55
Q

What type of ESF?

A

Type 2B

Bilateral-Uniplanar

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56
Q

How far should cerclage wire be placed from the fracture ends?

A

0.5cm

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57
Q

Wound that is created surgically, but there is gross bacterial spillage. Major aseptic technique breaks.

A

Contamined Wound

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58
Q

How far should transfixation pins be placed from the fracture and each other?

A

1/2 bone diameter

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59
Q

What would you use for mandibular and maxillary fractures?

A

Interfragmentary wire

60
Q

When would you use rush pinning?

A

Some Salter Harris fractures

Supracondylar fractures

61
Q

What are Burows triangles?

A

Triangles of skin removed at base of flap to precent dog ears form forming when flap is advanced

62
Q

What type of fractures would you use a hybrid fixator for?

A

Metaphyseal

63
Q

What surgical procedures can be done for biceps tendinopathy?

A

Tenotomy

Tenodesis

64
Q

What type of fractures can you use cerclage wire on?

A

Oblique

Spiral

65
Q

When is surgical treatment of joint disease indicated?

A

When severe DJD is present

66
Q

What is the max size of a transfixation pin?

A

25% of the bone diameter

67
Q

When using IM pins with cerclage wire, what diameter pin should you use?

A

70% canal fill

68
Q

Open fracture classification:

Adequate soft tissue for wound coverage

Large soft tissue laceration/flap

A

Type 3A

69
Q

What are the only types of ESF that can be placed on the humerus and femure?

A

Type 1A and 1B

70
Q

What are examples of secondary implants?

A

Kirschner wires

Cerclage wire

Interfragmentary screws

71
Q

What are some indications for external coaptation?

A

Fractures below the elbow and knee

Minimally displaced fractures

Transverse, simple, closed fractures

Greenstick fractures

Non-articular fractures

72
Q

What is the etiology of FCP?

A

Microtrauma

73
Q

An infection at a surgical site can be classified as a surgical infection for how many days post-op?

A

30d

74
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of ipsilateral flap?

A

Adv - increases distance flap can extend

Dis - increases risk of kinking vessels

75
Q

T/F: Plastic deformation is a reversible change in shape

A

False

Permanent change in shape

76
Q

Wound that is surgically created and asepsis is maintained throughout the procedure. No bacterial structures opened.

A

Clean Wound

77
Q

Which type of screw has a larger pitch? Cancellous or cortical

A

Cancellous screw

78
Q

Which type of screw has a larger outer diameter to core diameter ratio? Cancellous or cortical

A

Cancellous

79
Q

T/F: If its a developmental joint disease, its probably bilateral with biphasic age grouping

A

True

80
Q

What type of sling would you use for a medial traumatic shoulder luxation?

A

Velpeau sling

81
Q

What type of fractures would you use compression mode of a plate?

A

Transverse

Short oblique

82
Q

Is it better to use a combo of antibiotics for wounds or a single agent?

A

Single agent

83
Q

Tx for acute biceps brachii tendinopathy?

A

Cinfinement for 4-6 weeks

NSAIDs

84
Q

Open fracture classification:

Wound smaller than 1cm

Typically created by bone fragment from inside that retracts back through skin

Mild/moderate soft tissue contusion

A

Type 1

85
Q

As time increases, what happens to infection rate. How much?

A

Increases….Doubles every hour

86
Q

Antibiotic use prior to wound contamination. This is used with what type of wounds?

A

Prophylactic

Clean or C-C

87
Q

Tx for moderate shoulder instability?

A

Capsulorrhaphy

Rest

PT

Hobbles

88
Q

What type of flap incorporates a direct cutaneous artery and vein?

A

Axial pattern flap

89
Q

What type of ESF is this?

A

Type 1A

Unilateral-Uniplanar

90
Q

What function is expected after surgical treatment for osteochondritis dissecans?

A

Near-normal to normal function

91
Q

What are the two types of biological osteosynthesis?

A

Open but do not touch

Minimally invasive osteosynthesis

92
Q

What would you use to treat diaphyseal comminuted fractures?

A

Interlocking nail

93
Q

What type of sling would you use for a lateral/cranial/caudal traumatic shoulder luxation?

A

Spica sling

94
Q

What bone is it contraindicated to use IM pins for?

A

Radius

95
Q

Tx for mild shoulder instability?

A

Rest

PT

Hobbles

96
Q

What type of internal fixation would you use for articular fractures?

A

Open anatomic reconstruction

97
Q

What type of fracture would you use a tension band wire for?

A

Avulsion fractures

Some osteotomies

98
Q

What type of ESF?

A

Type 3

Bilateral-Biplanar

99
Q

All traumatic wounds are classified as this type of wound…

A

Contaminated

100
Q

What are the indications for using a locking plate?

A

Osteoporotic bone

Soft bone

Comminuted fractures

101
Q

How far apart should cerclage wire be placed?

A

0.5-1x bone diameter

102
Q

What type of fractures would you use a lag screw for?

A

Certain articular fractures

Oblique fractures

103
Q

What type of degloving injury is it when the skin is avulsed from underlying tissue?

A

Anatomic

104
Q

What plate mode would you use in a metaphyseal fracture to prevent collapse of the adjacent articular surface?

A

Buttress mode

105
Q

Point when material begins to deform plastically

A

Yield point

106
Q

Wound that is created surgically, bacterial organ opened…but no spillage. Minor breaks in aseptic technique, such as a hole in a glove.

A

Clean-Contaminated

107
Q

Open fracture classification:

Arterial +/- nerve supply compromised

Requires microvascular anastomosis or amputation

A

Type 3C

108
Q

What dog breeds are associated with osteochondritis dessicans?

A

Large and giant breed dogs

109
Q

What is the best diagnostic tool to diagnose biceps tendinopathy?

A

Arthroscopy

110
Q

Is primary osteoarthritis more common in dogs or cats?

A

Cats

111
Q

Why are back cuts used for rotation flaps? What is one negative effect of back cuts?

A

Increase mobility of the flap

Decrease dog ear formation

Negative - increases risk of vascular compromise

112
Q

What type of ESF is this?

A

Type 1B

Unilateral-Biplanar

113
Q

Definition: Increased speed of loading increases material stiffness

A

Viscoelastic

Think tempurpedic

114
Q

What is the max size of a screw that can be placed in bone?

A

40% of the bone diameter

115
Q

Advantage of contralateral flap over ipsilateral flap?

A

Less risk of kinking vessels

116
Q

Which strain characteristic: Combination of tensile and compressive loading forces

A

Bending

117
Q

Does the bone or the plate carry most of the load with compression mode?

A

Bone

118
Q

When would you use dynamization?

A

6 weeks post repair

119
Q

What is the best diagnostic method for shoulder instability?

A

Arthroscopy

120
Q

What is the cause of pain in old dogs with elbow dysplasia?

A

Osteoarthritis

121
Q

What breeds are associated with elbow dysplasia?

A

GSD

Labs

Goldens

Bernese mtn

122
Q

What is the only force that steinmann pins resist?

A

Bending

123
Q

What screw has the largest core diameter?

A

Locking screw

124
Q

T/F: Dogs with UAP will experience pain when the elbow is extended

A

True

125
Q

Preferred antibiotic for GI surgeries

A

Cefoxitin

126
Q

What kind of dressings are used for mechanical debridement?

A

Wet-to-dry or dry-to-dry

(covered in antiseptics if infected)

127
Q

The “toed out” posture is associated with what condition?

A

MCD

128
Q

How many screws do you need to place above and below the fracture when using conventional plates?

A

3 above and 3 below (6 cortices)

129
Q

What mode: Plate spans fractured area which cannot be anatomically reconstructed (comminuted area)

A

Bridging mode

130
Q

Tx for recurrent/persistent lameness associated with biceps brachii tendinopathy?

A

IA injection of methylpred

Confinement 4-6 weeks

PT

131
Q

When is mechanical debridement indicated?

A

For wounds in lag phase with heavy contamination or thick viscous exudate

132
Q

What are examples of primary implants?

A

Bone plates

Interlocking nails

External skeletal fixators

133
Q

What is the strongest and most commonly used pin for ESF?

A

Positive profile

134
Q

How would you elicit a pain response in an animal with biceps brachii tendinopathy?

A

Maximally flex shoulder and extend elbow

Press on biceps at insertion while standing

135
Q

What type of fractures would be good for circular external skeletal fixators?

A

Tibia

Radius

136
Q

PE findings for traumatic shoulder luxation

A

NWB lameness

Pain when palpate shoulder

Malpositioning of greater tubercle

137
Q

Since osteochondritis dessicans is usually a bilateral disease, why is there unilateral lameness?

A

Because one side tends to be worse than the other

138
Q

What PE tests can be perfromed for craniocaudal shoulder instability?

A

Biceps tendon test

Shoulder drawer test

139
Q

What is the cause of the pain in young dogs with elbow dysplasia?

A

Defect in joint surface

140
Q

Is there compression when using position screws?

A

No

141
Q

How long does the fracture line need to be in order to use cerclage wire?

A

≥2x the diameter of the bone

142
Q

Open fracture classification:

Extensive soft tissue loss

Bone exposure

Stripped periosteum

A

Type 3B

143
Q

T/F: Elastic deformation is a reversible change in shape

A

True

144
Q

Tx for severe shoulder instability?

A

Medial glenohumeral ligament reconstruction

Velpeau sling instead of hobbles

145
Q

What are some indications for drains?

A

Dead space cannot be obliterated

Fluid accumulation if likely

Infection

146
Q

When using bridging mode, does the plate or the bone bear all of the load at the level of the fracture?

A

Plate

Surgery (5 decks)

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