exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

A

the duffy system

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2
Q

which antibodies are considered cold agglutinins?

A

I/M/N/P1

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3
Q

which autoantibody specificity is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria and what test that was discussed in lecture is used to detect it?

A

autoanti-P

Donath-Landsteiner Test

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4
Q

which antigens are destroyed by enzymes and which are enhanced by enzymes?

A

E: Rh except D and Lewis, i, P
D: MNS, duffy

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5
Q

what procedure might help you distinguish between an anti-Fya and an anti-JKa?

A

running fiacin treated panel
enhances JKa
destroys Fya

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6
Q

which blood group is produced in the tissues?

A

lewis

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7
Q

what is the Mcleod phenotype?

A

absence of Kx Ag

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8
Q

which of the antibodies from the other blood group systems discussed for this exam require the antiglobulin test (AHG) for in vitro detection?

A
kell
duffy
kidd
MN
lutheran
Ss
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9
Q

what is the rarest phenotype of the lutheran system?

A

Lu(a-b-)

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10
Q

which antigen is X-linked?

A

Xga

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11
Q

which antibody is often found in patients with infectious mono, lymphoproliferative disease, and cold agglutinins?

A

anti-i

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12
Q

which antibodies are known for causing delayed HTR

A

kidd

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13
Q

Fy(a-b-) is found primarily in what type of population?

A

african americans

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14
Q

which antigen is found primarily in South Central and North American Indians and Asians?

A

dia- diego

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15
Q

Which blood group systems are known for showing dosage?

A
duffy
kidd
MN
Ss
Rh except D
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16
Q

what is the most common atibody seen in the BB besides ABO and Rh antibodies?

A

anti-K

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17
Q

which blood group antigen increases in strength as a newborn grows older?

A

little i to I

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18
Q

can a patient with blood group Ss be immunized by genotype SS, Ss, or ss?

A

no

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19
Q

which antigens are actually WBC antigens that are expressed in variable degrees on red blood cells and can cause confusing reactions in serological test?

A

Bg

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20
Q

which antigens are well-develope at birth, susceptible to enzymes, and generally saline reactive?

A

MN

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21
Q

Name 3 most common antibodies that most likely to react at 37C

A

anti-K
anti-Fya
anti-JKa

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22
Q

what is the most practical manner for preventing transmission of marlaria for blood transfusions?

A

don’t accept blood from people who have been in a malarial environment

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23
Q

list the reasons a prospective donor might be permanently deferred for donation of blood products?

A
IV drug usage
man on man sex
hemophiliac
\+ Ab for HIV
have had viral hep.
clotting disorders/ blood disorders
been to africa
had malaria
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24
Q

list the reasons a prospective donor might be temporarily deferred and for how long?

A
lyme disease
TB
measles, mumps, chicken pox
rabies vaccine
open heart surgery
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25
Q

can unused autologous be placed in the general supply and used for another patient other than who it was intended ?

A

no

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26
Q

explain the difference between plasmapheresis, cytapheresis, and plateletpheresis.

A

plasmapheresis- removal of plasma for donation
cytapheresis- collection of cells
plateletpheresis- collection of platelets

27
Q

explain the significance of why donor units should be tested for a weak D antigen

A

D+w should be tested because if weak D is given to a Rh= recipient may elicit an immune response

28
Q

what are the two terms used to refer to AHG that contains both anti-complement and anti-IgG?

A

polyspecific

broad spectrum

29
Q

a transfusion that replaces approximately a patient’s blood volume within a 24 hour period is called what kind of transfusion?

A

massive transfusion

30
Q

when a physician signs an order for uncrossmatched blood and accepts full responsibility for the transfusion of such products, this is referred to as _____ ____?

A

emergency release

31
Q

why are homozygous cells used for “ruling out”

A

incase your dealing with an Ab that shows dosage

32
Q

why are homozygous cells used for “ruling out”

A

incase your dealing with an Ab that shows dosage

33
Q

why should a patient’s serum/plasma for compatibility testing be stored?

A

incase any concerns arise (HTR)

34
Q

Leukocyte antibodies are usually responsible for what type of transfusion reaction?

A

febrial

35
Q

which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

A

IAT

36
Q

explain how the shelf life for blood is determined?

A

need to be 70% viability post transfusion

37
Q

what is the purpose of the albumin/LISS portion of an antibody screen or crossmatch?

A

detects IgG Ab’s

38
Q

a positive DAT would give you what kind of information on the patient?

A

in vivo sensitization

RBC are coated with beta or gamma globulins

39
Q

a patient that has had multiple transfusions is most likely to have what type of transfusion reaction?

A

febrial

40
Q

what does CPDA stand for?

A

cirtrate- prevents coag. and retards glycolysis
phosphate- prevents excessive drop in pH
dextrose- used for glycolysis
adenine- supplies substrate from which RBC can synthesize ATP

41
Q

how often should a new recipient sample be collected if a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of several days?

A

every 3 days

42
Q

inceomplete antibodies are usually Ig_?

A

G

blocking

43
Q

what does it mean to perform a major crossmatch?

A

donor cells and recipient plasma

44
Q

cells are “washed” how many times in an antibody screen?

A

3

45
Q

what is the purpose of washing the cells so many times?

A

prevents neutralization of AHG by the globulins

46
Q

what is the shelf life of a unit of blood with CPDA-1 as the anticoagulant?

A

35 days

47
Q

what is the shelf life of a unit of blood with AS-1 as the anticoagulant?

A

42 days

48
Q

what is therapeutic phlebotomy and why is it used? Name two diseases or conditions in which this might be used

A

phlebotomy is done for medical reasons to help treat patients symptoms
polycythemia
hemochromatosis
porphyria

49
Q

what type of transfusion is it when a recipient serves as his/her own donor?

A

autologous

50
Q

what is the “three in, three out” rule? why is it used?

A

when doing an Ab panel & you suspect a specific Ab, pick 3 botles of cells that are + for the Ag, 3 bottles that are = test against plasma will confirm Ab, must get expeccted results

51
Q

Explain an antibody screen: why and when is it done, what are the stages of the screen, what happens if it is positive, and why is there a control?

A

why-when: detect clinically sig. Ab before transfusing
stages: IS, 37, AHG, CC
if +: run a panel
why control- check for in vivo sensitization

52
Q

explain TRALI

A

Transfusion related acute lung injury

caused by rxc to leukocyte Ab in plasma that causes plasma to leak into lungs

53
Q

what is a directed or specific donation?

A

donated blood used for a specific recipient

54
Q

anti-Dia

A

diego

55
Q

anti-Sc2

A

cienna

56
Q

anti-Xga

A

Xg

57
Q

anti-Cob

A

colton

58
Q

anti-Ch3

A

cheeto rogers

59
Q

anti-ge3

A

gerbich

60
Q

if you do an antibody panel and all cells are positive, including the control, what should be the first thing you should think of may be causing the problem?

A

warm/cold autoabs

61
Q

why are homozygous cells used for “ruling out”

A

incase your dealing with an Ab that shows dosage

62
Q

what is the shelf life of a unit of blood with AS-1 as the anticoagulant?

A

42 days

63
Q

Name 3 most common antibodies that most likely to react at 37C

A

anti-K
anti-D
anti-E

64
Q

which antigens are destroyed by enzymes and which are enhanced by enzymes?

A

E: I, jka, i, p1, rh except D lewis
D: MNS, duffy