Exam 2 Flashcards

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0
Q

Multifactorial traits are also called…

Multifactorial diseases are also called…

A

Quantitative traits; Complex diseases

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1
Q

Define Penetrance

A

Risk of being affected when you have a risk increasing gene

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2
Q

What is an isoform?

A

different versions/forms of a protein that may be produced from the same gene due to alternative splicing, alternative promotors

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3
Q

Phenocopies occur due to…

A

non genetic factors alone

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4
Q

Hemochromatosis risk is a…

A

functional polymorphism of the HFE gene

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5
Q

Risk for a disease can be ________ despite the disease being a _________ trait.

A

continuous; threshold

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6
Q

What is VARIANCE? How is it calculated?

A

S^2: how far distribution spreads from the mean

Calculated by finding the average squared distance from the mean:

1) Subtract individual scores from the mean
2) Square each of the differences
3) Sum the squared differences and divide by n-1

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7
Q

What is STANDARD DEVIATION? How is it calculated?

A

S; square root of the variance

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8
Q

What percentage is included in 1SDs, 2SDs, and 3SDs of the mean?

A

1SD=66%
2SD=95%
3SD=99%

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9
Q

What is the range of the correlation coefficient? What does it mean if it is zero?

A

-1 to +1; 0=no correlation

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10
Q

What does regression allow you to do?

A

Predict the value of one variable given the value of the other

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11
Q

In a line of best fit, the slope represents…

A

The value of the regression coefficient.

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12
Q
Define all of the following:
Vp
Vg
Ve
Vge
Va
Vd
Vi
A
Vp = variance due to population
Vg = variance due to genetic factors
Ve = variance due to environmental factors
Vge = variance due to interactions between genetic and environmental factors
Va = additive genetic variance (how much offspring resemble parents)
Vd = genetic variance due to dominant alleles
Vi = variance due to interactions between gene alleles (like epistasis)
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13
Q

How do you calculate Vp?

A

Vp=Vg+Ve+Vge

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14
Q

How do you calculate Vg?

A

Vg=Va+Vd+Vi

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15
Q

What are all the variables that contribute to Vp?

A

Vp=Va+Vd+Vi+Ve+Vge

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16
Q

What is broad sense heritability and how is it calculated? What is its range?

A

H^2; Portion of population variance due to ALL genetic factors;
Calculated using Va, Vg, Vi
Formula: Vg/Vp = (Va+Vg+Vi)/Vp
Range: 0 to 1

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17
Q

What is narrow sense heritability? How is it measured? What is its range? What is another thing that this equals?

A

h^2; Proportion of variance due to ADDITIVE genetic factors (Va);
Formula: Va/Vp
Range: 0 to 1
Also equals the REGRESSION COEFFICIENT when (uparents, uoffspring)

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18
Q

What does it mean if Va is low?

A

Offspring do not resemble parents; other factors (like food) must contribute more heavily to phenotype

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19
Q

Va give you a…

A

Nice, normal distribution

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20
Q

You can study genetically identical twins to eliminate _______ meaning that all variability is due to _______.

A

genetic variance (Vg); all variability is due to nongenetic factors (Vp=Ve)

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21
Q

How do you calculate broad sense heritability for the F2 generation?

A

Vg/Vp=(VF2-VF1)/VF2

Because VF2=Vg+Ve
and VF1=Ve
Vg+Ve-Ve/)(Vg+Ve)=Vg/(Vg+Ve)=Vg/Vp

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22
Q

Using MZ and DZ twins, how to you calculate broad sense heritability?

A

H^2=2(rMZ-rDZ)

Where r represents the correlation coefficient between the twins PHENOTYPES

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23
Q

What is a selection differential? What symbol is used to represent it?

A

Difference between mean phenotype of the individuals chosen for breeding versus the total population’s mean
= Mean(parents)-Mean(population)
Symbol=S

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24
Q

How do you calculate response to selection? How is this used to calculate the new mean of the population?

A

R=h^2xS
where R=response to selection, S=selection differential
Long Form: R=(2(rMZ-rDZ))(Mean(parents)-Mean(population))

New Mean=Original Mean+Response to selection
New Mean=Original Mean+(h^2)(breeder’s means - population mean)

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25
Q

What limits the phenotypes produced by selective breeding?

A

Genes becomes fixed (exist at 100% frequency) because the environment might select against a very extreme version of the trait.
At this point, there is no more additive genetics inheritance (h^2=0)…which means R=(h^2)(S)=0

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26
Q

Heritability tells you…not…

A

Heritability tells you what FRACTION of the VARIANCE is due to genetic factors, NOT THE DEGREE to which a trait is determined by genetic factors.d

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27
Q

Heritability is specific to a particular ______ and ______.

A

Population and Environment

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28
Q

Heritability never applies to _____

A

Individuals

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29
Q

Define INBRED vs OUTBRED

A

Inbred: Genetically identical (Vg=0)
Outbred: Genetically non-identical (Vg is not 0)

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30
Q

What formula is used to estimate the number of genes that influence a trait?

A

(1/4)^n

where n is # of genes

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31
Q

Which of these is not like the others? (in regard to genes involved)
“more than 3” “at least 4” “3 or more”

A

“3 or more” because it includes 3 as a possible answer

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32
Q

Which is more detailed: GWAS or QTL?

A

QTL is a more detailed analysis that allow you to identify genes that influence a trait or disease

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33
Q

Two ways to identify QTLs:

A

Linkage Study: within family approach

Association Study: between groups approach (case vs control group)

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34
Q

What is a GWAS?

A

genome wide association study; uses markers from all over the genome

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35
Q

What has 100% penetrance?

A

single-gene disorders

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36
Q

Incomplete dominance= ______

Codominance= ________

A

Blending; spots

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37
Q

Explain how types of dominance can be different at different levels of analysis.

A

Incomplete dominance at cellular level (Aa produces lower level of a protein per cell), BUT recessive at clinical level (must have aa to express the disease, as Aa still makes enough of the protein to be functional).

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38
Q

What is the difference between dominant and recessive epistasis?

A

Dominant Epistasis: requires only one (heterozygous expression of) epistatic gene to cover expression of hypostatic gene – Example: Corn kernel color
Recessive Epistasis: requires homozygous expression of epistatic gene to cover expression of hypostatic gene – Example: Coat color in retrievers

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39
Q

What type of epistasis is blood type?

A

Recessive Epistasis

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40
Q

What genotype(s) yields the BOMBAY PHENOTYPE in blood?

A

hh with any combination of I alleles (can be IA_, IB_, or ii)…because compound H (dominant) is needed to bind to the terminal sugar that produces type A or B or O (non-bombay)…However, blood type is an example of recessive epistasis because two hh alleles is needed to cover the expression of the hypostatic gene (IA, IB, or ii)

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41
Q

What is duplicate recessive epistasis? What is an example of this?

A

Both genes capable of being epistatic gene if either one occurs in homozygous recessive form; a certain type of albinism (can be missing gene for tyrosine transporter gene or missing gene for enzyme tyrosinase, which makes melanin from tyrosine)…you need both to have pigment in your skin.

Both aaB_ and A_bb produce albinism

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42
Q

What is an allelic disorder?

A

Different mutations in the same gene produce different phenotypes.
Example: mutations in grown factor 2 receptor gene cause 3 different syndromes

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43
Q

What is pleiotropy? Give an example.

A

One gene influences multiple traits.

Example: same gene that gives siamese cats their coat color makes them have crossed eyes

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44
Q

Differentiate between SEX LIMITED and SEX INFLUENCED characteristics.

A

Sex Limited: Only appear in one sex (zero penetrance in one sex)
Sex Influenced: Appear in one sex more than the other

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45
Q

What is cytoplasmic inheritance?

A

Must come from mom, because a zygote gets all of its cytoplasm from mom…remember, dad ONLY CONTRIBUTES DNA (this is why the sperm is so tiny compared to the egg, as the sperm only has DNA and none of the organelles)

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46
Q

Define MATERNAL EFFECT genes.

A

A gene whose products are required for very early development of the embryo, such as the establishment of overall polarity of the embryo. These “maternal cells” disappear from the zygote after they assert their effects.
*Mutant genes not necessarily found in the offspring; only in the mother

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47
Q

Define MATERNALLY imprinted.

A

Maternally derived copy of gene is silenced; Paternally derived copy is active

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48
Q

What are the two types of UNIPARENTAL DISOMY? Define them.

A

Heterodisomy: a pair of NON-IDENTICAL CHROMOSOMES are inherited from one parent

  • Meiosis 1 error
  • If any genes on chromosome are imprinted, child will have either 0 or 2 active copies

Isodisomy: a SINGLE CHROMOSOME from one parent is duplicated and both copies are inherited

  • Meiosis 2 error
  • Can cause expression of recessive genes
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49
Q

What is GENETIC ANTICIPATION? What causes it?

A

each subsequent generation is affected more severely.
CAUSE: expansion of trinucleotide repeat sequences, which expand during meiosis
NOTE: as repeat expands (gets LONGER), there is LESS ACTIVITY in the gene

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50
Q

Define INCOMPLETE PENETRANCE.

A

The expected phenotype of a particular genotype is not expressed because of extra factors like environmental factors and effects of other genes

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51
Q

Differentiate between the EPIstatic and HYPOstaic gene.

A

Epistatic gene expression has the ability to cover expression of the hypostatic gene

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52
Q

When given a cross concerning two different characteristics (like hair color and hair texture), what is a good way to approach the problem?

A

Figure out the inheritance of each characteristic separately.

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53
Q

What ratio is usually associated with the presence of recessive lethal gene?

A

2:1
Example: The ratio of yellow:gray was found to be 2:1 –> We conclude that YY (yellow,yellow) is lethal

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54
Q

What ratio is associated for a trait that come from a cross between two heterozygous parents?

A

3:1

Where the trait that is more common is the dominant allele

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55
Q

What tests can be carried out to test if a particular trait is recessive lethal? How about to test that (y) is recessive to (Y)?

A

If YY (yellow) is recessive lethal and is dominant to gray (y) then…
(Yellow)x(Yellow) –always–> 2/3 yellow, 1/3 gray
(Gray)x(Gray) –always–> ONLY gray

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56
Q

If your phenotype ratios are given out of 16, this is a hint that…

A

You are dealing with two alleles (even if there is only one trait)

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57
Q

How many replication forks in E. Coli?

How many in human DNA?

A

2; MANY

58
Q

Exonuclease activity goes in what direction?

A

3’—>5’

59
Q

How many de novo mutations are there per child?

A

30-35

60
Q

Differentiate between:

Conservative, Dispersive, and Semiconservative Replication

A

Conservative: original DNA molecules STAY INTACT

Dispersive: original DNA gets FRAGMENTED and randomly recombined (like a mosaic)

Semiconservative: New DNA has ONE NEW strand and ONE OLD strand

61
Q

Differentiate between the experiments by Messelson & Stahl and those by Taylor.

A

Messelson & Stahl:
Grew E. Coli in 15N (heavy) and then 14N
*Old DNA was heavy

Taylor:
First Round of Replication: Grew root bean tips in regular growth medium and then 3H (radioactive tritium)
Second Round: Back to regular growth medium
*Newly synthesized DNA was radioactive

62
Q

What did Taylor use to dissolve spindle fibers? Why did he do this?

A

Colchisine

63
Q

Theta replication occurs in…

A

organisms with circular chromosomes…like bacteria

64
Q

In theta replication, how many origins of replication are there?

A

1

65
Q

In theta replication, describe the direction in which replication occurs.

A

BOTH directions

66
Q

In which type of replication are Ter and Tus sites used? What is their purpose?

A

Theta replication; Tus binds to Ter at one of the replication forks and the other fork comes to meet it

67
Q

What is used to separate the two DNA molecules in theta replication?

A

Topoisomerase II – makes a double stranded break

68
Q

Rolling circle replications occurs in…

A

viruses and plasmids

69
Q

What are the products of rolling circle replication?

A

Initially, 2 DNA molecules…but rolling circle replication can replete over and over again without stopping

70
Q

In rolling circle replication, what strand is used as the template?

A

Inner strand

71
Q

The OH is on the ___ Carbon; the PO4 is on the ___ Carbon

A

3’ OH

5’ PO4

72
Q

In rolling circle replication, new nucleotides are added to the ____ end of the _____ (outer/inner) strand.

A

New nucleotides added to 3’ end of OUTER strand

73
Q

In rolling circle replication, the ____ end of the outer strand is pushed off.

A

5’ is pushed off and used as a template to synthesize a new “inner” strand

74
Q

What is GYRASE? What does it do?

A

Gyrase is a type of TOPOISOMERASE; its breaks the DNA strand outside the open region to relieve tension and allow the helix to open further

75
Q

How do 4-quinoline antibiotics kill bacteria?

A

Inhibit gyrase…which then inhibits DNA from opening (and thus replicating) by inhibiting gyrase’s ability to relieve tension in the DNA.

76
Q

What is the role of PRIMASE in bacterial DNA replication?

A

lays down RNA nucleotides as primer; provides 3’ OH group

77
Q

What is the role of DNA POLYMERASE III in bacterial DNA replication?

A

chains bases together & proofreads itself

78
Q

What is the role of DNA POLYMERASE 1 in bacterial DNA replication?

A

kicks out RNA primers and replaces them with DNA nucleotides

79
Q

What is the role of DNA LIGASE in bacterial DNA replication?

A

knits all fragments together

80
Q

What is the role of ALPHA polymerase?

A

lays down RNA primer and a few DNA nucleotides

81
Q

What is the role of DELTA polymerase?

A

replicates LAGGING strand

82
Q

What is the role of EPSILON polymerase?

A

replicated LEADING strand

83
Q

What is the function of Chromatin Assembly Factor 1 (CAF1)?

A

helps DNA assemble back into proper orientation around nucleosomes

84
Q

What does RLF stand for? What is its role in replication? Does it work in eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells?

A

RLF=Replication Licensing Factor
Role: REQUIRED for replication to begin; keeps origins of replication from replicating twice; contains a HELICASE and GEMINIM
Works in EUKARYOTIC cells

85
Q

What does RLF (Replication Licensing Factor) contain? What is the role of each of these?

A

Contains HELICASE and GEMINIM.

Geminim:

  • Stays behind when RLF is released during replication
  • prevents another RLF from binding to the DNA
  • Degraded in G1 (so replication can occur in S phase)
86
Q

When is RLF released from the DNA? What stays behind?

A

Release in replication. Leaves behind Geminim.

87
Q

When RLF attaches to the origin of replication it…

A

unwinds just a little bit of the DNA (it’s required for DNA replication to begin)

88
Q

Where does geminim come from? What attaches it to the DNA?

A

RLF leaves it on the DNA when it leaves during replication

89
Q

When is geminim degraded?

A

G1 (so that DNA replication can reoccur in S phase)

90
Q

Differentiate between GYRASE and GEMINIM.

A

Gyrase: a type of topoisomerase that cuts the DNA to relieve tension so that it can open enough to replicate.

Geminim: Left of DNA when RLF leaves; prevents another RLF from binding to the DNA and replicating a second time; degraded in G1 so that replication can reoccur in S phase

91
Q

Why do telomeres continually get shorter?

A

When DNA polymerase 1 removes the primer at the 5’ end of the lagging strand, it cannot fill the place with a DNA nucleotide because it cannot see a 3’ oxygen to hang the nucleotide on

92
Q

What end of the DNA strand is NOT VISIBLE by the DNA polymerase 1? What does this mean for that DNA strand?

A

Cannot see 3’ OH; DNA end (telomere) will not be replicated and will be chopped off…shortening telomere with each replication

93
Q

What substance helps to replicate telomeres?

A

telomerase

94
Q

What is Werner’s Syndrome? What causes it?

A

Premature aging; defect in RecQ helicase (an enzyme necessary for telomere replication)

95
Q

The RNA part of telomerase is complementary to the __-rich strand on the telomere.

A

G-rich

96
Q

Telomere is rich in what type of nucleotide?

A

G

97
Q

How many origins of replication are typically in archaea?

A

Most have 1 (some have 2)

98
Q

How are archaea like bacteria in terms of their DNA and replication mechanisms?

A

single origin of replication (though some have two)

99
Q

How are archaea like eukaryotes in terms of their DNA and replication mechanisms?

A

Multiple initiator proteins with similar amino acid sequences to those seen in eukaryotes

100
Q

What is the equivalence of the start codon (AUG) in the mRNA? (U’s change to T’s in mRNA)

A

ATG

101
Q

When numbering autosomes, which number (1 or 22) is the largest?

A

1 is largest

102
Q

Two meaning of karotype:

A

1) Picture of chromosomes

2) An individual’s chromosome status

103
Q

What is included in an individuals written karotype?

A

a) total number of chromosomes
b) sex chromosomes
c) any abnormalities

Examples:
Normal Female = 46, XX
Normal Male = 46, XY
Male with Down's Syndrome = 47,XY,+21
Female with Turner's Syndrome = 45, X
104
Q
Types of banding: (What area do each of these types stain?)
G-banding
R-banding
Q-banding
C-banding
A

G-banding: AT rich areas
R-banding: CG rich areas
Q-banding: AT rich areas
C-banding: dense (heterochromatin) areas

105
Q

How does numbering on a chromosome work?

A

Smallest numbers near the centromere (beginning as 11.1) and increasing as you move towards the telomeres

106
Q

Define aneuploidy.

A

having ANY ABNORMAL number of chromosomes

107
Q

Define euploidy.

A

Having THE NORMAL number of chromosomes

108
Q

Define polyploidy. What are some types of this?

A

Having 1+ FULL SETS of extra chromosomes; haploid, diploid, triploid, tetraploid

109
Q

Define aneusomy. What are some examples?

A

Having ANY ABNORMAL number of a SPECIFIC CHROMOSOME; nulsomy, monosomy, disomy, trisomy

110
Q

What is a partial aneusomy?

A

deletions or duplications that include a large enough portion of the chromosome

111
Q

Nondysjunction in somatic cells leads to…

A

mosaicism

112
Q

Why are trisomies desirable in plants?

A

more chromosomes=larger plants, larger fruit

Infertile= fewer seeds

113
Q

NDJ in meiosis 1 leads to…

A

two trisomic gametes, 2 monosomic gametes

114
Q

NDJ in meiosis 2 leads to…

A

1 trisomic gamete
1 monosomic gamete
2 normal diploid gametes

115
Q

Differentiate between AUTO and ALLOpolyploidy.

A

Autopolyploidy: all chromosomescome from same species
Allopolyploidy: chromosomes come from 2 different species

116
Q

Do autopolyploids produce unbalances gametes?

A

Yes

117
Q

What are the three mechanisms of autopolyploidy?

A

1) NDJ of all chromosomes during MITOSIS in a 2n embryo –> creates an autotetraploid
2) NDJ of all chromosomes during MEIOSIS, which produces a diploid gamete that fuzes with a regular haploid gamete –> creates an autotriploid
3) Cross between an autotetraploid (produces 2n gametes) and a diploid (produces 1n gametes) –> Creates autotriploids

118
Q

Define PSEUDOdominance.

A

individual loses the dominant allele and thus recessive allele is expressed

119
Q

Define haploinsufficiency.

A

Losing one copy of the gene caused an abnormal phenotype because one working copy cannot make enough of the protein on its own

120
Q

Define constitutive gene.

A

Always on; “housekeeping genes”

121
Q

Where do promotor sequences often occur in bacterial genes?

A

-10 and -35 (from the transcription start site)

122
Q

Upstream =

Downstream =

A
Upstream = comes BEFORE
Downstream = AFTER
123
Q

Where do sigma factors bind? What do they allow to then bind to them?

A

To the promotor; RNA polymerase

124
Q

How do repressor proteins assert their effects in prokaryotes?

A

decrease binding of sigma factors –> decrease binding of RNA Polymerase –> Decrease transcription

125
Q

Transcription factors can help ______s bind to ______s.

A

enhancers bind to promotors

126
Q

Transcription factors directly bind to the ______.

A

Enhancer

127
Q

Where does the repressor bind?

A

To the OPERATOR

128
Q

Where does RNA Polymerase bind?

A

To the PROMOTOR

129
Q

What kind of operon is lac?

A

Negative inducible operon

130
Q

What kind of operon is trp?

A

Negative repressible operon

131
Q

How does tryptophan function in the trp operon?

A

Tryptophan acts as a corepressor (activate the repressor)

132
Q

How does lactose function within the lac operon?

A

lactose turns into allactose, which acts to inactivate the repressor and TURN ON the operon

133
Q

The _____ operon is constitutive.

A

lac

134
Q

LacI makes…

A

the repressor

135
Q

What is a partial diploid cell?

A

cells that have taken up a plasmid that contains its own copy of an operon (like the lac operon)

136
Q

What is a superrepressor?

A

Cannot be inactivated EVER –> ALWAYS repressing

Dominant to I+

137
Q

When glucose is HIGH, cAMP is _____.

A

LOW

138
Q

cAMP binds to ______. What does this do?

A

cAMP binds to CRP (activator). CRP is activated –> transcription is initiated

139
Q

What portion of the trp operon contains the regions associated with attenuation?

A

trpL

140
Q

When tryptophan is HIGH, what regions bind? What happens to transcription?

A

3 binds to 4; this BLOCKS transcription

141
Q

What happens with tryptophan is LOW? What happens to transcription?

A

Ribosome stalls on region 1; Regions 2 and 3 bind; transcription is not blocked and is allowed to continue

142
Q

How do riboswitches work?

A

Turned OFF by presence of regulatory molecules –> makes them fold up tightly and conceal ribosome binding sites

143
Q

In end-product inhibition, to what does the end-product bind? What is the effect?

A

The ribozyme; caused mRNA to cleave itself