Exam 2 Flashcards
the genome in bacteria = ____ genes
1500 genes
_____ has 500 genes
mycoplasma
_____ and _____ have largest genome
pseudomonas and mycobacteria
there are 1-20 ____ in bacteria (small circular DNA loops)
plasmids
list three things plasmids produce
pili (f factor), enzymes (metabolism), and toxins (virulence)
R plasmid has one or more _____
antibiotic resistant genes
2 strands result from DNA replication and each has
one old and one new filament
DNA replication process ends at the ___ gene
ter gene
rate of DNA replication is ____ times faster in prokaryotes (___ base pairs per second)
10X faster in prokaryotes (1000 base pairs per second)
DNA strands with gaps are called ___ strands (____ fills in the gaps)
DNA strands with gaps are called LAG strands (polymerase fills in the gaps)
the ____ strand is continuously read
LEAD
____ contain DNA or RNA
virsues
viruses that are pathogens to humans are often ___ type
RNA type
list 4 examples of RNA virus
HIV, Polio, Ebola, SARS
crystalline viruses (AKA ______) lack an envelope and are the smallest
icosahedral
nucleic acid of DNA virus enters ____ of host cell to replicate
nucleus
during replication DNA virus makes proteins for its capsid in the
cytoplasm of the host
virions that are assembled in the nucleus accumulate in the cell and cause
lysis
RNA viruses replicate in the
cytoplasm
RNA virus protein production for capsid is completed by
viral proteases
DNA of RNA viruses remains in the cells nucleus and permanently infects the cells. An example is _____ in HIV and _____ like papilloma
An example is lymphocytes in HIV and oncogenic viruses like papilloma
_____ (sugars) bind to repressor and remove it
inducers
____ control:
- multiple virulence production
- antibiotic resistance
- mar and mer (mercury inactivation)
operons
____ reads sense strand and antisense strand opposite
RNA polymerase
code read from start point (___) to stop point (___)
start point (TAC) to stop point (ATT)
RNA polymerase transcribes at ___ bases per second
40
stop point (ATT) has no amino acid meaning, also called a
nonsense codon
in mRNA U is substituted for _
T
mutations can be caused by _____/____ mutagens and ___/____ mutagens
internal/spontaneous mutagens and induced/environmental mutagens
- UV and radiation
- viruses (phage)
- chemicals
are examples of ___ mutagens
induced/environmental
____ have the highest mutation rate, which leads to strain variation
bacteria
____ repairs damaged genes
SOS
____ occurs when there is a mismatch during replication (G-T)
spontaneous mutation
in a _____ one base codon is substituted
pinpoint mutation
pinpoint mutation causes ___ or ___ codons
missense or nonsense
position of codon affected determines if mutation is ____ or _____
lethal or sublethal
with ______ mutations are passed down from generation to generation
vertical transmission
vertical transmission is ___ change
slow
with _____ several genes are passed between organisms (donor to recipient)
horizontal/lateral transmission
horizontal/lateral transmission is ___ change
fast
list the three ways bacteria exchange information
transduction, transformation, conjugation
in _____ competent cell incorporate piece of DNA from donor of same species
transformation
in _______ phage, virus, acts as a carrier piece of DNA between organisms of same species
transduction
in ______ donor has plasmid enabling formation of sex pilus, there is a transfer of plasmid through pilus (one copy from donor (F+) to recipient (F-))
conjugation
_____ transposons have information for slicing in and out
CLASS 1
____ transposons have genes for replication so that copy is made for transfer to new site
CLASS 2
_____ transposons carry antibiotic and mercury resistance, endotoxins, and metabolic genes
CLASS 2
_____ refers to DNA packaging in prokaryotes
supercoiled
____ influences sterilization time
matrix
____ involves two DNA polymerases
fork
_____ leads to mutations that diversify proteins
sublethal
_____ products of pinpoint deletion or addition
frameshift
_____ stabilizes prokaryote DNA
protease
_____ can be produced on protein templates
polyamine
_____ inhibitor of viruses
bacitracin
____ is associated with quorum sensing
acyl
_____ is effective as 3% solution or in vapor
peroxide
_____ used as bleach or water disinfectant
chlorines
______ is an effective sporicidal if used for several hours
glyceraldehyde
______ are normally used at 70-90%
alcohols
_____ are common in hospitals as Wecodyn or Povidone
iodophores
The most effective type of quaternary ammonium compounds are ____
detergents
Presence of ____ will increase sterilization times
cysts
_____ is easily killed by moist heat
yeast
_____ are able to exchange genes in several ways
viruses
____ are resistant to many chemical agents
enterics
_____ are very resistant to intense radiation, not UV
mycobacterium
_____ assists in repair of damaged DNA
RecA
_____ posesses inverted repeated ends
transposon
_____ links to operator, stopping transcription
repressor
_____ can recycle denatured proteins
chaperone
_____ information carried on plasmids
colicin
_____ removes microbial population by 99%
sanitization
_____ removes microbes according to size
mirofiltration
_____ will kill pathogens but not all microbes
disinfection
_____ eliminates vegetative cells but not spores
germicidal
____ kills by damaging DNA
radiation
______ is the lipoprotein covering on some viruses
envelope
____ is the protein shell of most virsuses
capsid
______ refers to assembled virus particle
virion
_____ can be DNA or RNA
core
_____ allows for virus attachment to host cell
peplomer
_____ produces lead and lag strand, latter being discontinuous
DNA polymerase
____ attaches to promoter sight
RNA polymerase
_____ part of excision repair of small damaged sites
endonuclease
_____ assists in winding and unwinding strands
gyrase
____ is associated with RNA viruses such as HIV
transcriptase
____ series of genes with one mRNA
polysome
____ initiates replication process in prokaryotes
origin
_____ refers to a translation complex
polycistonic
____ in prokaryotes are usually smaller and less dense than in eukaryotes
ribosome
____ may be linked to a repressor protein
operator
____ is an antiviral program
HAART
____ employs repair enzyme in operon
SOS
____ refers to resistant mycobacterium
XDM
Rank the following in order of decreasing sterilization effectiveness: Autoclave Freezing Gamma radiation Surfactants
- gamma radiation (most effective)
- autoclave
- surfactants
- freezing (least effective)
__ is a component of transposon
IS
____ is part of air purification system
HEPA
____ controls quorum sensing
LUX
____ refers to microbial population size
bioburden
____ is a viral exit strategy
budding
___ is a new antimicrobial principle
antisense
_____ is an enveloped viral entry mode
fusion
____ will result in longer elimination time of pathogen
microbistatic
____ has smallest genome of prokaryotes
mycoplasma
____ produces highest TDT spores
mycobacterium
___ is inhibited by ethambutol
bacillus
_____ is part of Ames test
salmonella
____ is used in phenol coefficient tests
staphylococcus
____ refers to an effective level of antibiotic
MIC
____ is a rapid pasteurization process
UHT
if ___ is mutated it may make ribosomes resistant to antibiotic
ERM
____ can filter out viruses
ULPA
____ is lower for vegetative cells than spores
TDT
____ techniques used to prevent infection
asepsis
______ process of killing all microorganisms
sterilization
_____ process of killing pathogens only
disinfection
____ reduction of microbial populations to safe levels as determined by public health codes
sanitization
____ form of disinfection because it uses heat for short intervals to destroy the pathogens
pasteurization
______ kills nearly 99%
UHT pasteurization
______ of water is a disinfection process
chlorination
______ kills vegetative organisms but are not sporicidal
germicidal
population size of microbes =
bioburden
if an antimicrobial is cidal it
kills outright
if an antimicrobial is static it
stops growth
antimicrobial method of heating ____
coagulates proteins
_____ may be in the form of incineration or dry ovens (160 celsius for 1-2 hours)
dry heat
_____ may involve boiling for ten minutes or steam under pressure as is autoclaving (uses 15 psi to achieve temperatures of 121 celsius)
moist heat
the efficiency of ____ is determined by spores of bacteria
heating
the most heat resistant forms are ____ and ____
bacterial and mold spores
the _____ of pathogens on average is about 15 min at 65 celsius (approximate pasteurization conditions)
TDT (thermal death time)
___ breaks down DNA
radiation
___ is short wavelength, around 260 nm
UV
_____ lamps operate at about 230 nm
germicidal
_______ or nuclear, uses isotopes such as cesium or cobalt with very short intense radiation that penetrates through everything except three feet of concrete
gamma radiation
_____ screens out microbes
microfiltration
microfiltartion uses special membrane filters that have porosites (or hole size) of about ___ mm
.5
____ used to remove possible contaminants from IV lines or can be attached to syringes
in line cartridge filters
_____ remove particles more than .3 mm (bacteria)
HEPA filters
______ remove more than .1 mm (viruses)
ULPA filters
freezing and ultrasonication can reduce numbers of microbes but are not ______
sterilization techniques
_____ are only used on surfaces
disinfectants
____ are compatible with tissues, but only at certain concentrations
antiseptics
most chemical agents are germicidal, but not necessarily _______
sporicidal
effectiveness of chemical agents determined by the ______
phenol coefficient
phenol is set at a standard of __
1
higher numbers indicate the agent is _____
more effective
____ are not microbicidal
soaps
_____ began with quinines and sulfa drugs
chemotherapy
first official antibiotic was _____
penicillin
penicillin was isolated from ____
fungus of soil
modern antibiotics are now ___
synthetics
antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation ____ and _____
penicillin and cephalosporin
antibiotics that disrupt cell membranes _____
polymixin
antibiotics that stop ______ are aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and erythromycin
protein production
antibiotics that inhibit _______ are actinomycin, rifampin, and quinolones
nucleic acid formation
_____ inhibit folic acid formation in pathway to nucleic synthesis
sulfa drugs
______ inhibits formation of mycolic acid in mycobacteria
ethambutol
enzymes that break down antibiotics are _____
lactamases
drugs which inhibit viral polymerases, such as nucelotide analogs include ____ and ____
AZT and acyclovir
protease inhibitors = ____
saguinavir
inhibitors of attachment and penetration of the virus into the host cell include ___ and ____
tamiflu and fuzeon
interleukins 10 and 4 are ______
anti-inflammatory
___ redness from vasodilation
rubor
____ heat, from fluid build up giving off heat
calor
____ pain from prostaglandins
dolor
___ swelling from fluid flow to tissue
tumor
____ inhibits wall formation
cephalosporin
blocks enzyme that produces folic acid
sulfanilomide
a macrolide that inhibits protein formaytion
erythromycin
effective against spores as well as vegetative cells
glutaraldehyde
one of last antibiotics effective against staphylococcus
vancomycin
eliminates vegetative cells but not spores
germicidal
process that kills pathogens but not all microbes
disinfection
property of many lactam antibiotics, like penicillin
microbistatic
efficiency determined by bacterial spores
autoclave
changes in pinpoint mutation
bases
depends on presence of vegetaitive cells or spores
thermal death time
refers to antibiotic effectiveness to toxicity
chemotherapeutic index
a reduction of microbial populations to a safe level
sanitization
a measure of effectiveness of antisepctis
phenol coefficient
assists in repair of damaged DNA
reca
controls polycistronic genes
operon
can be produced on protein emplates
bacitracin
can recycle denatured proteins
chaperone
information carried on plasmids
colicin
efficiency of disinfectant compared to this
phenol
usually most effective at 70-80%
isopropanol
used to disinfect water
ozone
common surfactant
sodium lauryl sulfate
does not have antimicrobial action
soap
virus is incorporated into host DNA
lysogenic
allows recipient to undergo transformation
competent
involves many ribosomes translating simultaneously
polysome
instrumental in conjugation exchange process
plasmid
possesses several linked genes
polycistronic
effective surfactant agent made from ammounium compound
quats
phenol disinfectant used in institutions
amphyl
usually used in gas form at elevated temperatures
ethylene oxide
in solutions, used as antiseptics for skin or eyes
silver nitrate
will reduce chance of contamination
asepsis
_____ disrupt cell membrane of bacteria, but damage humans
Polymixins
_____ stop production of folic acid
Sulfanilomides
____ target is cell wall and peptidoglycan formation
Penicillin
_____ block translation process at ribosome
Tetracyclin
______ halt nucleic acid formation but can damage liver
rifampin
