Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

disease acts as a ______ in human evolution

A

disease acts as a selective mechanism in human evolution

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2
Q

list the three types of disease

A
  1. genetic/inherited (cystic fibrosis)
  2. degenerative (atherosclerosis)
  3. infectious (TB)
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3
Q

with a degenerative disease a person is the victim of _____/______

A

lifestyle/lifespan

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4
Q

infectious diseases are caused by _______

A

pathogenic agents

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5
Q

the highest mortality rate worldwide is due to ________ but ______ may overlap all categories

A

the highest mortality rate worldwide is due to respiratory infections but cancer may overlap all categories

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6
Q

infectious agents evolved from ______ of other _______

A

infectious agents evolved from parasites of other animal hosts (reservoirs)

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7
Q

______ harbor pathogens, pass them to humans

A

reservoirs

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8
Q

vectors (usually ______) contribute to _______ to humans

A

vectors (usually insects) contribute to crossover to humans

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9
Q

most pathogens are _______ and ______ but some are ______

A

most pathogens are bacterial and viral but some are protozoa

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10
Q

______ cause malaria

A

protozoa

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11
Q

there has been a gradual trend downwards in death due to infectious agents until recently with an ______ due to _______

A

there has been a gradual trend downwards in death due to infectious agents until recently with an increase due to emerging disease agents

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12
Q

many of these emerging disease agents are ______

A

RNA viruses

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13
Q

emerging agents develop when the pathogen passes from the _______ due to _____

A

emerging agents develop when the pathogen passes from the animal reservoir due to mutations

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14
Q

two recent emerging agents

A

SARS and MERS

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15
Q

________ of agents led to epidemics

A

ease of transmission of agents led to epidemics

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16
Q

list the 4 main ways epidemics start

A
  1. domestication of animals
  2. urbanization
  3. climate change
  4. trade and travel
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17
Q

domesticated animals can be _____

A

reserviors

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18
Q

the first domesticated animal (the ____), carried ______ which eventually transferred to humans

A

the first domesticated animal (the dog), carried measles which eventually transferred to humans

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19
Q

with urbanization came an _____ density of people which allowed for easier transmission of ______

A

with urbanization came an INC density of people which allowed for easier transmission of communicable diseases

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20
Q

_____ come with INC density of people and carry disease

A

vermin come with INC density of people and carry disease

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21
Q

with urbanization there was also more _______ which is ripe for the production of viruses and bacteria

A

sewage

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22
Q

agents and or the vermin that carry them like _____ climate

A

warmer

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23
Q

when ______ in the SW U.S. brings wet weather the _____ population increases and so does the ___virus

A

when el nino in the SW U.S. brings wet weather the rodent population increases and so does the hantavirus

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24
Q

travel allows for the spread of _______

A

infectious agents

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25
Q

flights over ____ hours lead to an INC chance of infection

A

3 hours

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26
Q

the bubonic plague in Europe was spread by _____ due to rodents being carried with goods

A

trade

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27
Q

the arrival of ______ in mosquito larva in water from imported tires

A

west nile virus

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28
Q

an epidemic in plants is called a

A

blight

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29
Q

epidemics are controlled by what 4 things

A
  1. surveillance and containment (quarantine and isolation)
  2. antimicrobials (antibiotics and antivirals)
  3. vaccination programs
  4. public health standards
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30
Q

for containment, there are about 100 diseases that are _____ to the CDC (which reports trends to the _____ )

A

for containment, there are about 100 diseases that are notifiable to the CDC (which reports trends to the health industry)

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31
Q

antimicrobials (antibiotics and antivirals) are ______ in ______

A

stockpiled in public health centers

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32
Q

there are vaccination programs that give ___ and ___ to infants

A

DPT and MMR vaccines

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33
Q

the number of vaccines required varies from ____ to _____

A

state to state

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34
Q

public health standards regulate contamination levels in ______, _____, and ______

A

food, water, and sewage

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35
Q

______ amounts are limited in drinking water

A

coliform

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36
Q

the coliform and enterococcus levels allowed in _______ is 1000X higher

A

recreational water

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37
Q

with sewage there is ______, ______, and _____ treatment

A

primary, secondary, and tertiary treatment

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38
Q

primary sewage treatment decreases pathogen level by _____

A

sedimentation

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39
Q

if there is no municipal sewage district the homeowner must have a ___ or ____ (___ treatment_

A

cesspool or septic tank (primary treatment)

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40
Q

herd immunity is when _____ may be high but to due the _____ of resistance not everyone will die and ____ will be passed on

A

herd immunity is when mortality may be high but to due the heterogeneity of resistance not everyone will die and resistance will be passed on

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41
Q

if the agent changes ______ does not apply (ex_____)

A

herd immunity (example id the flu variants every year)

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42
Q

when there is no _____ vaccination for 75% of the population can eradicate the epidemic agents

A

reservoir

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43
Q

pasteur also created the _______

A

germ theory of disease

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44
Q

koch associated a ____ with a disease by his _____

A

koch associated a pathogen with a disease by his postulates

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45
Q

but kochs postulates required ______ and this became a problem with _____

A

but kochs postulates required animal and this became a problem with viruses

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46
Q

so instead of using postulates today we use _____ of viruses that appear with individuals that have the same symptoms

A

genetic profiles

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47
Q

helminths (____) have life cycles in which eggs or ova are produced _______ then move outside via ____ to contaminate ____

A

helminths (worms) have life cycles in which eggs or ova are produced inside the host (intestines) then move outside via feces to contaminate soil

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48
Q

helminths can remain dormant in the soil for ____ or develop into ____ that pass into other hosts via contaminated food

A

helminths can remain dormant in the soil for several months or develop into larvae that pass into other hosts via contaminated food

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49
Q

____ are distinct for each type of helminth

A

ova

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50
Q

once infected by the helminth the host suffers: _____, ______, _____, and possible ______

A

once infected by the helminth the host suffers: emaciation (loss of nutrition), anemia (lack of vitamins), obstruction (pain), and possible allergic reactions

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51
Q

platyhelminths (_______) can be ____ or _____

A

platyhelminths (flatworms) can be flukes or tapeworms

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52
Q

5 characteristics of platyhelminths

A
  1. hermaphroditic
  2. no digestive tract
  3. have outer cuticle
  4. body segmented with proglottids and scolex
  5. can live anaerobically
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53
Q

4 characteristics of nematodes

A
  1. have a digestive tract
  2. dioecious (separation of sexes)
  3. non segmented
  4. larva need oxygen to mature
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54
Q

4 characteristics of pathogenic protozoa

A
  1. characterized by motility (except apicomplexa)
  2. holozoic feeding (eat bacteria, clarifies water)
  3. encystment
  4. all eukaryotic
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55
Q

some pathogenic protozoa have pellicles which are an

A

outer cover of lipoprotein

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56
Q

pathogenic protozoa reproduce by
1.
2.

A
  1. sexual fusion

2. asexual fission

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57
Q

most pathogenic protozoa can encyst in a protein shell and become

A

dormant for months

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58
Q

pathogenic protozoa have _______ which serve as a water pump to control osmotic pressure

A

contractile vacuoles

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59
Q

amoebic dysentery is caused by _______ in ______ that liberate trophozoites in ______

A

amoebic dysentery is caused by entamoeba cysts in feces that liberate trophozoites in intestines

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60
Q

amoebic dysentery causes _____ and ______

A

ulceration and liver damage

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61
Q

there are many carriers of entamoeba cysts in tropical areas that leads to chronic reinfection due to _____

A

poor water quality

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62
Q

______ in sewage may affect cornea of contact lens wearers (_______)

A

acanthamoeba in sewage may affect contact lens wearers (keratitis)

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63
Q

acanthamoeba may also be an agent of ______ (support ______)

A

humidifier fever (support legionella)

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64
Q

acanthamoeba cysts can ______

A

aerosolize

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65
Q

naegleria are found in _____/____ water

A

warm/fresh

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66
Q

naegleria can infect the ______ and cause fatal meningitis in 1 week (___)

A

naegleria can infect the nasal passages and cause fatal meningitis in 1 week (PAM)

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67
Q

PAM may not only be caused by naegleria but also ______

A

acanthamoeba

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68
Q

giardiasis is _____ due to water contaminated with _____

A

giardiasis is diarrhea due to water contaminated with giardia

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69
Q

giardia are _____

A

flagellated

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70
Q

giardia cysts are resistant to

A

chlorine

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71
Q

giardiasis is passed through _____ like ______ and interferes with ______

A

giardiasis is passed through wild animals like beavers and interferes with fat absorption

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72
Q

______ protects infants from giardiasis

A

human milk

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73
Q

humans can excrete the giardia cysts for ____

A

years

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74
Q

the giardia throphozoite has 2 _____ and 2 _____

A

2 adhesive disks and 2 nuclei

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75
Q

______ causes vaginitis which is a rampant STD (can be _____)

A

trichomonas causes vaginitis which is a rampant STD (can be asymptomatic)

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76
Q

trichomoniasis can be transmitted by _____ or _____

A

contaminated toilet seats or linens

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77
Q

trichomonas have a _____ and _______ and no ____ form so can be easily treated

A

trichomonas have a flagella and axostyle and no cyst form so can be easily treated

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78
Q

male can act as a reservoir for trichomonas and ___% of the population may carry it

A

50%

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79
Q

leishmania is transmitted by ____ with a _____ reservoir

A

sand fly with a rodent reservoir

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80
Q

leishmania multiply in _____ and invades _____ or forms boils on skin

A

leishmania multiply in macrophages and invades RES or forms boils on skin

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81
Q

____ are protozoa with no means of motility

A

apicomplexa

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82
Q

cryptosporidium are carried in ____ and cause _____

A

carried in water and cause diarrhea

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83
Q

______ is a big problem with malnourished children and AIDS patients

A

cyrptosporidium

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84
Q

cryptosporidium is an apicomplexan transmitted by ____, ____, _____, and _____

A

cattle, birds, dogs, and cats

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85
Q

cryptosporidium cysts are resistant to

A

chlorination

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86
Q

gastroenteritis from cryptosporidium may last up to 2 weeks and ____% of the population may carry it

A

10%

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87
Q

_____ is transmitted from cat feces (dried cysts) or beef (uncooked)

A

toxoplasma

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88
Q

flies and birds may harbor toxoplasma and ____ are often infected

A

pigs

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89
Q

the toxoplasma trophozoite invades the _____ and travels to the ____, _____, _____, and the ______

A

the toxoplasma trophozoite invades the intestines and travels to the lymph, muscles, meninges, and the optic nerve

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90
Q

toxoplasma can act as a _____ (affects the fetus)

A

teratogen

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91
Q

babesia is transmitted by ____ from rodents

A

ticks

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92
Q

babesia was once associated with _____ and _____ (reservoir)

A

cattle and deer mice

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93
Q

babesia causes _____ like symptoms (RBC damage)

A

malaria like symptoms

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94
Q

microbes first appeared ____ years ago

A

4 billion

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95
Q

primitive cell forms had ____ membrane enclosing a cytoplasm with ____ and ____ as well as ____

A

primitive cell forms had lipid-protein membrane enclosing a cytoplasm with marine water and protein as well as RNA

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96
Q

transformation to DNA based life may have occurred when _____ appeared

A

reverse transcriptase enzyme

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97
Q

original organisms were _____

A

anaerobic

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98
Q

the appearance of photopigments led to

A

cyanobacteria

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99
Q

cyanobacteria used ____ to produce oxygen and create more organic nutrients

A

photosynthesis

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100
Q

the creation of oxygen by cyanobacteria allowed ____ to evolve (along with the creation of the ozone shield)

A

aerobes

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101
Q

aerobes need ___% oxygen

A

1%

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102
Q

marine cyanobacteria are still a major source of the worlds ____

A

oxygen

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103
Q

as oxygen levels increased eukaryotes (____) and _____ forms appeared

A

as oxygen levels increased eukaryotes (yeast) and multicellular forms appeared

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104
Q

cyanobacteria (prokaryote) diversified into ____

A

algae (eukaryote)

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105
Q

spirochetes diversified into ______

A

protozoa (eukaryote)

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106
Q

actinomycetes diversified into ____

A

fungi

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107
Q

rickettsia, _____, and ______ de-evolved

A

rickettsia, chlamydia, and mycoplasma de-evolved

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108
Q

____ and ______ are not pathogens but can produce toxins

A

algae and cyanobacteria

109
Q

_____ formed from cyanobacteria

A

microcystins

110
Q

microcystins are in warm/stagnant water and can _____

A

toxify liver

111
Q

______ of algae can paralyze

A

red tide neurotoxins

112
Q

in the five kingdom classification the prokaryotes are in the _____

113
Q

monera consists of what 6 things

A
  1. eubacteria
  2. archae
  3. rickettsia
  4. chlamydia
  5. mycoplasma
  6. cyanobacteria
114
Q

in the five kingdoms classification algae and protozoa are _____

115
Q

in the five kingdoms classification ___ and ____ are fungi

A

yeast and mold

116
Q

viruses (______ and _____ particles) and excluded from the kingdoms because they ____

A

viruses (protein and nucleic acid particles) and excluded from the kingdoms because they are non living

117
Q

the three domain classification is based solely on

A

genetic similarities

118
Q

list the three domains

A
  1. bacteria
  2. archabacteria
  3. all eukaryotes
    (both 1 and 3 are prokaryotes)
119
Q

viroids are simply loops of ____ that produce infections in plants

120
Q

hepatitis D is now considered a human ____

121
Q

hep d needs a helper virus (hep b?) to ______

A

cause damage

122
Q

viroids dont make their own _____ and may be carried by _____

A

viroids dont make their own proteins and may be carried by insects

123
Q

____ are proteins that normally situate in cell but may change shape (PrPSC form) and not fit into the membrane, they accumulate as amyloids (junk) in the cell

124
Q

if this junk accumulation occurs in neurons they die and you get ______

A

spongiform disease of the brain

125
Q

spongiform disease of the brain is known and ____ or ____ in humans

A

mad cow or CJ in humans

126
Q

with prions ___ and ____ are first affected

A

memory and locomotion

127
Q

abnormal prions develop from mutation (______) or _____ through food from contaminated animals

A

abnormal prions develop from mutation (inherited CJ) or acquired through food from contaminated animals

128
Q

to cross the species barrier, acquired prion must ______ the ______ sequence of _____

A

to cross the species barrier, acquired prion must resemble the amino acid sequence of the host prion

129
Q

______ are the most abundant prokaryote

A

eubacteria

130
Q

eubacteria are classified in terms of ____

131
Q

list the three shapes of eubacteria

A

spiral
bacillus
coccus

132
Q

eubacteria get their shape from the

133
Q

though there are the three shapes many eubacteria are _____ and change shape with age

A

pleiomorphic

134
Q

as organisms divide the _______ determines whether it will be filaments, chains, or aggregates

A

plane of division

135
Q

____ are the longest eubacteria

A

spirochetes

136
Q

_____ are the smallest eubacteria

137
Q

smaller organisms have a high ____/______ ratio which allows for rapid exchange of nutrients and fast growth

A

surface area/volume ratio

138
Q

organisms with ______ have higher diffusion rates and can attach to surfaces better

A

projections

139
Q

first structure to evolve from prototype cell was _____

140
Q

key component of the cell wall is ______

A

peptidoglycan (rigidity)

141
Q

______ have a greater amount of peptidoglycan

A

gram positives

142
Q

in the cell wall there are glycan units linked by ____ side chains

A

peptide side chains

143
Q

gram negatives have an outer membrane of ____ on the surface and _____ on the underside

A

LPS on the surface and LP on the underside

144
Q

in gram negatives the peptidoglycan is the inner layer of the cell wall and only makes up ___-____ % of it

145
Q

the gram negative’s outer membrane has ____ which screen out by molecular weight

146
Q

gram negatives also have _______ on surface and endotoxic lipid A (a _____)

A

gram negatives also have O-polysaccharide antigens on surface and endotoxic lipid A (a pyrogen)

147
Q

the _____ of the gram negative can initiate septic shock

148
Q

when lysozyme and penicillins attack the gram negative peptidoglycan the bacillary cells convert to ______ (have a partial cell wall) which can revert back to normal

A

spheroplasts

149
Q

spheroplasts will eventually produce _____ (no wall material) which lyse easily

A

protoplasts

150
Q

with listeria, the _____ form (no walls_ can remain stable and revert back to normal cell

151
Q

the removal of ____ from gram negative walls will lead to loss of gram stain

152
Q

gram positives have ____% peptidoglycan

153
Q

gram positives ____ lose primary stain

154
Q

gram positives can have ____ chains at the surface (can be antigenic)

A

teichoic acid chains

155
Q

some gram positives have outermost protein layer, _____< that is found in archaebacteria

156
Q

mycobacterium have multilayered walls with _____ and _____ on outermost layer (porins too)

A

mycobacterium have multilayered walls with lipids and proteins on outermost layer (porins too)

157
Q

mycobacterium have peptidoglycan in _____ numbers under lipoprotein that makes the organism resistant to staining

158
Q

for mycobacterium the _____ stain is needed

159
Q

mycobacterium can remain viable in the air for ____

160
Q

gram negatives also have ______ a gel filled space under wall (not in gram positive)

161
Q

the periplasm may contain _____ enzymes that can break down antibiotics (lactamases)

A

hydrolytic enzymes

162
Q

the prokaryote _____ is similar to the one in eukaryotes

A

cytoplasmic membrane

163
Q

the cytoplasmic membrane in prokaryotes has a double layer of lipids and proteins that traverse it (prokaryote is __-___% protein, eukaryotes ___%)

A

pro - 60-70%

euk - 50%

164
Q

bacterial plasma membranes lack _____ (except mycoplasma) and have ____ for stability

A

lack cholesterol (except mycoplasma) and have hopanoids for stability

165
Q

glycocalyx is made up of ____ and _____ and may form on outside of wall

A

polysaccharides and water

166
Q

glycocalyx in high density is a

167
Q

glycocalyx in low density is a

A

slime layer

168
Q

when the glycocalyx interconnects it forms a _____ also called a _____

A

when the glycocalyx interconnects it forms a matrix also called a biolfilm

169
Q

these glycocalyx formation allows organisms to _____ to surfaces and it prevents rapid ______

A

these glycocalyx layers allow organisms to attach to surfaces and it prevents rapid dehydration

170
Q

the glycocalyx can also protect against _____ and _____ attack in pathogens like streptococcus and pseudomonas

A

antibiotics and neutrophil attack

171
Q

some bacteria have straw-like projections that are:
short and numerous ______
long and single or double _____

A

short and numerous, fimbriae

long and single or double, pilli

172
Q

fimbriae help with attachment and ______

A

colonization

173
Q

pilli allow for exchange of

174
Q

both fimbriae and pilli are made of _____ and are _____

A

made of protein and are hollow

175
Q

bacteria may also have _____ which have a similar protein structure

176
Q

flagella are anchored to the wall by a ____ at the end of organisms

A

basal body

177
Q

the basal body acts as a

178
Q

there may be ___ or more flagella on a cell, for example e coli has ___

A

there may be 1 or more flagella on a cell, for example e coli has 10

179
Q

the hook arrangement of flagella allows movement as _____

180
Q

if moving counterclockwise all flagella become _____ to produce a ____ or run movement

A

if moving counterclockwise all flagella become bundled to produce a straight line or run movement

181
Q

if rotation of flagella is clockwise the organism

A

tumbles in one place

182
Q

bacteria with flagella have a ______ response in which receptors in the wall detect glucose (nutrients) or oxygen and by means of a signal system control movement

A

chemotaxis

183
Q

protein antigen on flagella ________

184
Q

spirochetes have _____

A

endoflagella

185
Q

the endoflagella of the spirochete lies beneath _____ but outside _____

A

beneath lipoprotein sheath but outside wall

186
Q

many bacteria possess ____ apparatus (especially gram negative)

A

secretion apparatus

187
Q

the secretion apparatus allows for _____ (uses ATP) of materials such as ____ and _____

A

the secretion apparatus allows for active pumping (uses ATP) of materials such as toxins and enzymes

188
Q

in prokaryotes most of the cytoplasm is ____ with ____ the most abundant inorganic

A

water (70-80%) with protein the most abundant inorganic

189
Q

in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes are ____ and ____ only

A

ribosomes and inclusions

190
Q

___ dna strand is intertwined within the cytoplasm as one chromosome

191
Q

the inclusions are _____ which may contain phosphate, sugars (glycogen), or lipids

A

storage granules

192
Q

aquatic bacteria may contain granules of ____ that assist in navigation

A

iron (magnetite)

193
Q

bacillary organisms contain a ________ of actin like fibers which spiral on underside of the cell membrane

A

microcytoskeleton

194
Q

the microcytoskeleton acts to reinforce the membrane and direct enzymes into _____

A

division plane

195
Q

bacterial growth and metabolism is dependent upon

196
Q

enzymes are catalysts of reactions that break down (______) or build up (______)

A

break down (catabolism) or build up (anabolism/synthesis)

197
Q

enzymes may be present all the time (______) or only when temporary conditions exit (_______)

A

enzymes may be present all the time (constitutive) or only when temporary conditions exit (inducible)

198
Q

specific structure of enzyme due to protein part, but _____ (vitamin) or ______ (mineral) helps binding to substrate at _____

A

specific structure of enzyme due to protein part, but coenzyme (vitamin) or cofactor (mineral) helps binding to substrate at active site

199
Q

catalase allows for rapid breakdown of ____ but it needs _____

A

breakdown of peroxide but it needs iron

200
Q

________ are produced outside the cell and degrade complex organics to simple molecules that pass through the membrane (key to biodegradation by bacteria and fungi, composting)

A

exoenzymes

201
Q

______ are found inside the cell as part of pathways

A

endoenzymes

202
Q
biodegradation involves exoenzymes that break down:
proteins, \_\_\_\_\_\_
carbohydrates, \_\_\_\_\_\_
lipids, \_\_\_\_\_\_
organic materials, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
around cells
A

proteins, putrefaction
carbohydrates, souring
lipids, rancidity
organic materials, detritus

203
Q

pathogens are ______, use organic carbon (sugar) and organic nitrogen (amino acids)

A

heterotrophs

204
Q

bacteria require less cofactors than _____ (fewer enzymes)

A

eukaryotes

205
Q

only ____ vitamins are used by bacterial enzymes

A

b vitamins

206
Q

of the major minerals bacteria don’t require

207
Q

many bacteria produce amylase, cellulose, proteases, and lipases but do not degrade

A

agar a polysaccharide

208
Q

infectious bacteria like clostridium might use exoenzymes to degrade _____ (myonecrosis, cellulitis)

209
Q

the uptake of iron is enhances by ______ that trap iron in tissues

A

siderophores

210
Q

the uptake of nutrients is enhanced by active transport (use ATP) like the _____ transporter and the ____ system

A
ABC transporter
PTS system (adds phosphate to sugar)
211
Q

peptidoglycan formation employs ______ for export through membrane

A

bactoprenol

212
Q

alternate to glycolysis ______ (simpler, 4 steps versus 8)

A

entner dourdoroff

213
Q

another alternate to glycolysis is the _______ which allows organisms to store glucose

A

pentose-phosphate pathway

214
Q

microbes that degrade lipids have _____ pathway that uses fatty acids in a TCA-like breakdown

A

glyoxylate

215
Q

ETS of bacteria in membrane with ______ as an alternate when O2 level is high

A

cytochromes

216
Q

______ have the ability to use alternate electron acceptors such as NO3 or CO2

A

strict anaerobes

217
Q

enteric organisms may use organics as electron acceptors in

A

fermentation

218
Q

_____ use O2 first, then to no O2

A

facultative anaerobes (can adjust to changes in growth condition)

219
Q

in _______ clostridium/e coli in ____ produce products like propionic acid, acetic acid, and butanol as well as gas, vitamin K, fatty acids (if diet starchy), and nitrosamines (carcinogenic)

A

colonic fermentation in LI

220
Q

in synthetic reactions amino acids produce: _____, _____, _____

A

peptidoglycan, fimbriae, flagella

221
Q

in synthetic reactions sugars used to produce: _______ (____,____) and convert to lipids for membrane

A

polysaccharides (LPS,glycocalyx) and convert to lipids for membrane

222
Q

in synthetic reactions nucleic acids are produced from ___ and _______

A

sugars and amino acids

223
Q

_____ is the most important carbon source

224
Q

medium used to support culture maintencance

A

nutrient broth

225
Q

medium used to preserve specimen

A

transport, stuarts or amies

226
Q

all media contain a _____ source, a _____ source, and a ____ source

A

carbon, nitrogen, and mineral source

227
Q

enriched media has

A

additives like blood

228
Q

differential media has

A

unique sugars added

229
Q

selective media has

A

inhibitors such as bile

230
Q

_____ is the values in which a microbe can survive

A

cardinal range

231
Q

_____ is where the growth of a microbe is highest

A

optimum range

232
Q

bacteria prefer PH around

233
Q

but they can also tolerate a low pH like lactobacillus which will tolerate a pH of ____

234
Q

detergents are usually alkaline (above pH ___)

235
Q

optimum temperature for bacteria is between ___ and ____

236
Q

_____ grow best in moderate temperatures

A

mesophiles

237
Q

pathogens CAN survive in temperatures ___-____

238
Q

____ can grow at 10-15 (food hazard)

239
Q

most bacteria require O2 (______) in sugar metabolism

240
Q

_____ like less than 8% oxygen

A

microaerophiles

241
Q

some prefer no oxygen, called _____

A

anaerobes (substitute gases like N2 and H2 for O2)

242
Q

bacteria normally have an Aw (humidity) requirement of

A

1 (100% RH)

243
Q

_____ can survive at .8 (80% RH)

A

staphylococcus

244
Q

_____ can survive at even lower RH

245
Q

bacterial fission depends on _____ time

A

dna duplication

246
Q

_____ forms as DNA strands separate into new cells

247
Q

_____ has a generation time of 12 hours

A

mycobacterium

248
Q

___ has a generation time of 30 minutes

249
Q

incubation time for:
bacteria
viral
fungal

A

bacteria - 2-3 days
viral - 5-7 days
fungal - 1-2 weeks

250
Q

septation follows _____

A

dna replication

251
Q

pleomorphic is difficult to identify

A

microscopically

252
Q

_____ forms lack a cell wall

253
Q

_____ develops as pathogens become less virulent

254
Q

____ indicated that cholera was transmitted by water supplies

255
Q

_____ demonstrated that malaria was transmitted by vectors

256
Q

related symptoms to infectious agent by protocol

257
Q

associated germs with contamination

258
Q

described an alternate glycolytic pathway

259
Q

progolottids may be

260
Q

vegetative form of protozoa

A

trophozoite

261
Q

nematode of fish

262
Q

causes malaria

A

plasmodium

263
Q

cyst form appear in muscle

A

trichinella

264
Q

anaerobic spore former

A

clostridium

265
Q

may infect cornea from contact lens that is contaminated

A

acanthamoeba

266
Q

often associated with intestinal infections from contaminated water

267
Q

pinworm

A

enterobius

268
Q

produces malaria like symptoms

269
Q

can infect nerve tissue and fetus

A

toxoplasma