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Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is normal cardiac output

A

5-6 liters of blood per minute

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2
Q

Efficiency of the cardiovascular system depends on what four things?

A
  • Heart’s ability to pump
  • Patency of the blood vessels
  • Quality of the blood
  • Quantity of the blood
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3
Q

What is happening during the “P” wave?

A

Impulse travels through the atria

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4
Q

What happens during the QRS complex?

A

Impulse travels through the ventricles

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5
Q

What happens during the “T” wave

A

Re-polarization of the ventricles

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6
Q

When does re-polarization of the atria occur?

A

Somewhere during the QRS complex

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7
Q

What is polarization?

  • Where is sodium
  • Where is potassium
A

Ready or resting state

  • Na+ is extracellular
  • K+ is intracellular
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8
Q

What is depolarization?

  • Where is sodium
  • Where is potassium
A

Contraction

  • Na moves into the intracellular
  • K+ moves into the extracellular
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9
Q

What is repolarization?

  • Where is sodium
  • Where is potassium
A
  • Na moves back extracellular

- K moves back intracellular

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10
Q

Role of the autonomic nervous system in control of the heart

A

PSNS slows heart (negative chronotropic, negative inotropic)

SNS compensates heart that is giong to slow (positive chronotropic, positive inotropic, positive dromotropic)

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11
Q

Two types of hormones that affect the heart

A
  • Catechonlamines (Adrenergic responses)

- Thyroid hormone

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12
Q

Two types of catecholamines that affect the heart

A

Norepinephrine

Epinephrine

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13
Q

How does Thyroid hormone affect the heart rate

A

Increased thyroid hormone –> increases BMR –> Increases HR

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14
Q

WBCs originate from (3)

A
  • Bone marrow
  • Spleen
  • Lymph
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15
Q

Role of albumin

A

Exerts osmotic pressure intravascularly

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16
Q

Role of fibrinogen

A

Hemostasis in the plasma

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17
Q

Role of globulins

A

Defense

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18
Q

General composition of blood

A

55% plasma

45% solid particles

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19
Q

Composition of plasma (9)

A

90% water

10% albumin, fibrinogen, globulins, nutrients, oxygen, carbon monoxide, antibodies

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20
Q

What solid particles are in the blood?

A
  • Leukocytes
  • Erythrocytes
  • Thrombocytes
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21
Q

Normal leukocyte level in the blood

A

5,000 - 10,000

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22
Q

Normal hematocrit levels

  • Males
  • Females
A
  • Males: 42-50%

- Females: 40-48%

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23
Q

Normal hemoglobin levels:

  • Males
  • Females
A
  • Males: 13-18

- Females: 12-16

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24
Q

Normal hemoglobin and hematocrit: Females

A

Hemoglobin: 12-16
Hematocrit: 40-48%

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25
Q

Normal hemoglobin and hematocrit: Males

A

Hemoglobin: 13-18
Hematocrit: 42-50%

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26
Q

Functions of the blood (5)

A
  • Transports O2 and Nutrients to the cell
  • Transports CO2 and waste away
  • Leukocytes and antibodies help fight microorganisms
  • Promotes hemostasis (platelets)
  • Circulates hormones
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27
Q

Hemostasis: Def

A

Bringing platelets to the site of injury

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28
Q

Normal platelet count (thrombocytes)

A

100,000 - 400,000

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29
Q

Location of the aortic valve

A

2nd intercostal space, right sternal boarder

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30
Q

Location of pulmonic valve

A

2nd intercostal space, left sternal boarder

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31
Q

Location of Tricuspid valve

A

4th intercostal space, left sternal border

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32
Q

Location of Mitral valve

A

5th intercostal space, midclavicular line

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33
Q

Stroke volume (def)

A

The amount of blood ejected from the heart with each contraction

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34
Q

Heart rate (def)

A

Beats per minute

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35
Q

Cardiac output (equation)

A

CO = SV x HR

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36
Q

Average SV

A

~70

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37
Q

Average HR

A

~80

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38
Q

Average CO

A

5.6L / minute

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39
Q

When you think preload, think _______.

A

VOLUME

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40
Q

When you think afterload, think ______.

A

PRESSURE

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41
Q

How do you lower preload? (4)

A
  • Vasodilators
  • Blood loss
  • Diuretics
  • FVD
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42
Q

How do you raise preload? (4)

A
  • Vasoconstrictors
  • Blood donation
  • FVE
  • Valve regurg
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43
Q

How do you lower afterload? (3)

A
  • Vasodilatators
  • Nitroglycerine
  • Hypertrophied left ventricle
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44
Q

How do you raise afterload? (4)

A
  • Vasoconstrictors
  • HTN
  • Epinephrine
  • Dopamine
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45
Q

Arterial pressure must counteract ________

A

Ventricular systole.

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46
Q

Indirect measurements of CO: Appendages (3)

A
  • 2+ pulses
  • Skin is warm and dry
  • Good capillary refill
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47
Q

Indirect measurements of CO: Vital signs (3)

A
  • BP WNL
  • HR WNL
  • RR WNL, breath sounds clear
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48
Q

Indirect measurements of CO: CNS

A

A&Ox3

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49
Q

Direct measures of CO (2)

A
  • Swan-Ganz / R heart catheter

- Cardiac catheterization

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50
Q

Role of a Swan Ganz / R Heart catheter (2)

A

1) Monitors fluid load (CVP)

2) Thermester Coupler (2nd lumen) - measures CO

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51
Q

Two locations of baroreceptors

A
  • Aortic arch

- Carotid sinus

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52
Q

Role of baroreceptors

A

Respond to changes in BP

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53
Q

What do the baroreceptors do when BP rises? + 2 results

A

Stimulate PSNS

  • Vasodilitation
  • Decreased HR (Neg Inotrope, Neg chronotrope)
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54
Q

What do the baroreceptors do when BP falls? + 2 results

A

SNS is stimulated

  • Increased HR (positive chronotrope)
  • Increased contractility (positive inotrope)
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55
Q

Two locations of chemoreceptors

A
  • Aortic arch

- Carotid sinus

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56
Q

Chemoreceptors respond to changes in… (3)

A

1) Acidosis (pH 45)
2) Hypercapnia
3) Hypoxia

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57
Q

When stimulated, chemoreceptors will increase… (3)

A
  • RR
  • HR
  • CO
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58
Q

Left ventricle has to over come pressures in the _______

A

aorta

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59
Q

Right ventricle has to overcome pressures in the ______

A

pulmonary system

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60
Q

Cor Pulmonale (def)

A

Right ventricular Failure

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61
Q

Diagnostic cardiac tests (7)

A

1) Electrocardiogram
2) Echocardiogram
3) Stress Test
4) Radionucleotide imagery
5) Cat scan
6) Positron Emission
7) Chest X-Ray

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62
Q

Holter Monitor

  • What is it
  • Function
A
  • Type of portable ECG

- Shows us the 24-hour ECG while patient goes about normal activity

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63
Q

What is a trans esophageal echo (TEE)?

-Indications

A

Patient swallowsa transducer to get an echocardiogram

- For very obese patients

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64
Q

What is the difference between an Echocardiogram and an Electrocardiogram?

A

An echocardiogram is a moving picture of structures of the heart – looks at mechanics of valves and walls.

An electrocardiogram (ECG) looks at the electrical activity of the heart only.

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65
Q

How much do arteries expand during stress?

A

4x larger!

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66
Q

Two types of stress test

A
  • Exercise (pt on treadmill)

- Pharmacological (vasodilator mimics effect of exercise)

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67
Q

What is Bruce’s protocol?

A
  • Increase the speed and incline of the treadmill every 3 minutes (Stress test)
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68
Q

Contraindications of stress test (4)

A
  • Severe aortic stenosis
  • Acute MI
  • Severe hypertension
  • Atherosclerosis
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69
Q

Why is severe aortic stenosis contraindicated with stress test?

A

Patient cannot get enough blood volume out to perfuse coronary arteries, brain

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70
Q

Why is an acute MI contraindicated with stress test?

A

Patient already has increased oxygen demand and inability to deliver it

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71
Q

Why is severe hypertension contraindicated with stress test?

A

Increases risk for stroke, MI

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72
Q

Complications of stress test (4)

A
  • MI
  • CHF (congestive heart failure)
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Arrhythmias
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73
Q

What is a negative stress test?

What does this mean?

A
  • No symptoms at target heart rate

- Means that signs and symptoms probably not coming from the heart

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74
Q

What is a positive stress test?

What does this mean?

A
  • Symptomatic: Pain, light-headedness

- Stop immediately

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75
Q

What is the target heart rate

A

80-90% of max predicted for patient’s age level

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76
Q

Indications for an echocardiogram (2)

A

Suspect aortic stenosis

Suspect mitral valve regurg

77
Q

Pros of echocardiogram

A
  • Non-invasive

- No prep needed

78
Q

Radionucleotide imagery (def)

A

Diagnostic test that uses isotopes to detect coronary artery perfusion or infracted areas of the heart.

More blood volume indicated by more visible isotopes.

79
Q

Recommendations for diabetes medications and CAT scans

A

High contrast dye increases risk of renal failure when contrast dye is combined with metformin or glucophage – hold these meds for 24-48 hours while pt is treated and kidney levels are monitored, plus gie plenty of fluids to flush

80
Q

What is a CAT scan? What can be observed?

A
  • Narrow beams of x-ray that enables cross-sectional views of STRUCTURE
  • Can look at calcium plaques, atherosclerosis
81
Q

One cat scan is equal in radiation to _______ times X-Rays

82
Q

What is the difference between a CAT scan and a PET scan?

A

a CAT scan looks at STRUCTURE

a PET scan looks at FUNCITON

83
Q

Indications for a PET scan

A
  • Looking for cancer or metastasis of cancer
84
Q

Which is most accurate: TEE, Thalium scan, or PET scan

85
Q

Why are two isotopes used in the PET scan?

A
  • One shows circulation

- The other shows metabolic function (by showing which cells take up the most isotopes - hence cancer diagnosis).

86
Q

What does a chest x-ray look at?

What doesn’t it look at?

A

Looks at size, contour, position of the heart

Does not give info on coronary arteries

87
Q

What type of enzymes are very specific to organ?

A

Iso-enzymes

88
Q

What tests would you draw up in an acute situation?

A
  • CK-MB
  • Troponin
  • Myoglobin
  • CBC
89
Q

Creatinine Kinase

A

An enzyme that comes from many types of tissues

90
Q

CK-MB

A

Contractile protein specific to myocardium

91
Q

Troponin

A

Most cardiac specific contractile protein. Gold standard; found only in cardiac muscle

92
Q

Normal troponin levels (2)

A

Troponin I: <0.2 mcg/L

93
Q

Troponin: Definitive MI diagnosis (levels)

A

> 2.3 mcg/L

94
Q
  • When does Troponin elevate?
  • When does it peak?
  • How long does it remain elevated?
A
  • Elevates within 2-4 hours of an MI
  • Peaks within 4-24 hours
  • Remains elevated about a week
95
Q

What is myoglobin?

A

Heme protein that helps transport O2

96
Q

Where is myoglobin found

A

In cardiac AND skeletal muscles

97
Q
  • When does myoglobin elevate?

- When does it peak?

A

Elevates early: Within 30-60 minutes

Peaks within 6 hours

98
Q

Role of myoglobin diagnostically

A

Doesn’t confirm that a patient has MI, but negative results can help RULE OUT MI.

99
Q

When are iso-enzyme levels taken?

What is the goal?

A

Immediately, then three hours later.

Goal = 2 negative results.

100
Q

What is CRP?

When is it produced?

A
  • An abnormal serum glycoprotein

- Produced by the liver in response to inflammation

101
Q

What does C-Reactive Protein tell you about cardiac function?

A
  • Not cardiac specific, but a risk factor (correlational)
102
Q

What is homocysteine?

A

An amino acid that increases as the result of B vitamin deficiencies

103
Q

What releases BNP and when?

A
  • Secreted by ventricles

- In response to high preload

104
Q

When is BNP assessed?

A

To determine if problem is cardiac or respiratory (rises if cardiac)

105
Q

What is BNP (def)

A

Neurohormone that helps regulate BP and fluid volume

106
Q

Goal of BNP (and mechanism)

A
  • To decrease fluid

- Stop renin-aldosterone-angiotensin

107
Q

Functions of cholesterol (3

A
  • Hormone synthesis
  • Cell membrane formation
  • Brain / nerve cells
108
Q

Sources of cholesterol

A
  • Dietary (animal and trans fats)

- Liver

109
Q

When is a lipid profile taken?

A

At FASTING levels (8-12 hours after a meal)

110
Q

Lipid profile normals:

  • Cholesterol
  • Triglycerides
  • LDLs
  • HDLs
A
  • Cholesterol: <40
111
Q

What are triglycerides

A

Fatty acids made with glycerol

112
Q

High levels of triglycerides are associated with:

A
  • Meals
  • Stress
  • Obesity, Poorly controlled diabetes
  • Heavy alcohol use
113
Q

_____ often directly correlated with high LDL levels

A

High triglyceride levels

114
Q

Where are triglycerides stored? How are they transported?

A
  • Stored in fatty tissue

- Transported in lipoproteins

115
Q

LDLs: What do they cause

A

Form deposits on artery walls –> atherosclerosis –> CAD

116
Q

Role of HDLs

A

Help remove fat from arterial wall, brings it to liver for breakdown, excretion

117
Q

LDLs v HDL

A

“Lousy and Low” versus “Healthy and High”

118
Q

Four things that will help increase HDLs

A
  • Stop smoking
  • Control DM
  • Attain or maintain normal weight
  • Increase physical activity
119
Q

What is Cardiac Catheterization / Angiogram?

A

Invasive test to diagnose CV disease through direct visualization

120
Q

How is Cardiac Catheterization done?

A

Percutaneous stick into femoral vein, dye goes through. Or done through femoral artery.

121
Q

What should you do before an angiogram? (4)

A
  • Administer some sedation
  • Assess pulses distal from site
  • Assess skin
  • Assess ROM
122
Q

What should you do after an angiogram? (4)

A
  • Stand over patient holding pressure for 20 minutes
  • Leg or limb immobilized for 2-8 hours
  • HOB raised no more than 30 degrees
  • Plenty of fluids to wash out dye
  • Assess Q15
123
Q

What should you assess before and after an angiogram?

A
  • Vital signs
  • Distal pulses
  • Temp of limbs
  • Color of limbs
124
Q

Potential complications of an angiogram (6)

A
  • MI (assess for chest pain)
  • Bleeding from insertion site
  • Clots: Pt may be losing circulation distal to insertion site
  • Higher risk for pulmonary emobli
  • Higher risk for stroke
  • Allergic reaction to contrast dye
125
Q

Three options if blockage is found during an angiogram

A
  • Tx with meds
  • Put in a stint
  • Send patient to OR for bypass graft.
126
Q

Intrinsic rates:

  • SA node
  • AV node
  • Ventricles
A
  • SA node: 60-100 bpm
  • AV node: 40-60 bpm
  • Ventricles: 20-40 bpm
127
Q

Define irritability

A

A group of cells along the conduction pathway start speeding up; override the higher pacemaker site for control

128
Q

Irritability: Common cause

A

Often due to hypoxia of myocardium

129
Q

Effects of high calcium on the heart

A

High: Irritability

130
Q

Effects of low calcium on the heart

A

Low: Tetany in skeletal muscles (not as much on heart)

131
Q

Effects of high potassium on the heart (3)

A
  • Peaked T wave
  • irregular heart beat
  • Slow / weak HR
132
Q

Effects of low potassium on the heart (1)

A
  • Low T wave
133
Q

Electrical flow of lead 2

A
  • From right arm to left leg

- P & QRS are all upright

134
Q

How much time is represented by every little ECG box?

A

.04 seconds

135
Q

How long is an average PR interval?

A

3-5 boxes

0.12 - 0.2 seconds

136
Q

How long is an average QRS complex?

A
  • 3 small boxes or less

- 0.12 seconds or less

137
Q

SINUS BRADYCARDIA

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like?
A
  • Rate: <60
  • Rhythm: Normal
  • P wave: Present
  • PRI: 0.16 seconds (normal)
  • QRS:0.08 (normal)
  • Normal, just slow
138
Q

Causes of sinus bradycardia (5)

A
  • Digoxin
  • Beta blockers
  • Cholinergics
  • Severe visceral pain
  • Athletes
139
Q

What would you assess with a SINUS BRADYCARDIA patient?

A
  • Primary: Inadequate perfusion to brain: CNS issues: Lightheaded, change in LOC, restless
  • Secondary: Cold pale skin
140
Q

Intervention for a patient with sinus bradycardia – symptomatic

A
  • Identify cause
  • Atropine
  • Pacemaker
141
Q

Sinus Tachycardia

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: 120
  • Rhythm: Normal
  • P wave: Present
  • PRI: 0.16 (normal)
  • QRS: 0.08
  • Normal, just fast
142
Q

(Non-medicine) Causes of sinus tachycardia (5)

A
  • Fever
  • Pain
  • Shock
  • Anxiety
  • Meds
143
Q

What would you assess with SINUS TACHYCARDIA?

A
  • Restless ness, change in LOC

- Skin is cool, pale (unless feverish)

144
Q

Interventions for a patient with sinus tachycardia (2 categories, 2 interventions each)

A

1) Innervate PSNS (carotid massage, valsalva)

2) Meds (beta blockers, calcium channel blockers)

145
Q

Premature atrial contractions

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: Normal
  • Rhythm: Irregular
  • P wave: Not regular – varying sizes and shapes
  • PRI: Elongated (0.24 seconds)
  • QRS:Normal (0.08, regular)
  • High QRS, irregular
146
Q

How do you know if a premature atrial contraction is atrial or ventricular

A

QRS is higher with ventricular

147
Q

Causes of Premature Ventricular Contraction (2)

A
  • Spontaneous

- After heart surgery

148
Q

Atrial flutter

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: Normal
  • Rhythm: Regular
  • P wave: Not regular
  • PRI: Not measurable
  • QRS:0.08, WNL
  • What does it look like:
  • Sawtooth P&T; atrial rates can be up to 250 per minute
149
Q

Atrial flutter: Treatment

1) Intervention
2) Meds (3)

A

1) CARDIOVERSION – machine is set to synchronize with patient’s QRS: Stop heart, allow SA node to take over again
2) Meds:Beta blockers, digoxin, calcium channel blockers

150
Q

Atrial fibrillation

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A 
- Rate: 
If  100 = rapid ventricular response
- Rhythm: Irregular
- P wave: Not distinct
- PRI: Not distinct
- QRS: WNL 0.08
- What does it look like: Atria is chaotic; atrial rate can be up to 350/min; ventricular rate may be <100
151
Q

Symptoms of rapid ventricular response

A
  • Lightheadedness, changes in LOC, restlessness
152
Q

Atrial fibrillation increases _______.

A

Risk of clot formation in atria –> Increased risk for MI, ischemic stroke

153
Q

Prophylactic treatment for atrial fibrilation

A

Coumadin, Warfarin

154
Q

Normal PT

Therapeutic PT

A

Normal PT: 12-13

Therapeutic = 18 (1.5x)

155
Q

Normal INR

Therapeutic INR

A

Normal: 0.8-1.2

Therapeutic = 2.0-3.0

156
Q

Hallmarks of PVC (3)

A

1) QRS is wide, bizarre
2) QRS comes early
3) Compensatory pause

157
Q

Premature ventricular contraction

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: Depends on underlying rhythm
  • Rhythm: Variable
  • P wave: Absent
  • PRI: No P wave
  • QRS:Wide and bizarre
  • What does it look like: Compensatory pause after the PVC
158
Q

What is the big danger with PVC?

A

R on T phenomenon

159
Q

What is the R on T phenomenon?

A

If there is another impulse from elsewhere in the heart during the refractory period, can throw patient into vtach or vfib

160
Q

How can you tell if a PVC is unifocal or multifocal?

A
  • If PVCs look alike, source is the same group of cells: UNIFOCAL
  • If PVCs look different –> different sites: MULTIFOCAL
161
Q

R on T phenomenon: Treatment

A

Amnioderone (Anti-arrhythmic) if frequent

162
Q

Define Couplet

A

PVCs occur in pairs

163
Q

Define Bigeminy

A

Every other beat is a PVC

164
Q

Define Trigeminy

A

Every third beat is a PVC

165
Q

Define Quadrigeminy

A

Every fourth beat is a PVC

166
Q

When is the absolute refractory period?

A

Just before Q to partway through T

167
Q

When is the relative refractory period?

A

Second half of T

168
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia:

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: 140
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave: None
  • PRI: None
  • QRS: Cannot distinguish from T
  • What does it look like:No atria firing
169
Q

What will you assess with a Vtach patient who is hemodynamically compromised?

A
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Decreased or absent HR
  • Emergency
170
Q

What would you do to treat a VTach patient?

  • Pulse
  • Pulseless
A

Pulse: Cardiovert and / or use meds
Pulseless: Defibrilate

171
Q

Why would you cardiovert with a VTach patient?

A

Because of R on T phenomenon

172
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: X
  • Rhythm: X
  • P wave: X
  • PRI: X
  • QRS:X
  • What does it look like:

CHAOTIC! Ectopic beats from ventricles. Nothing to be analyzed! Can’t even determine rate because there is no R wave.

173
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation : Treatment (2)

A
  • CPR

- Defibrillate if shockable rhythm

174
Q

What would you assess on a VFib patient? (2)

A
  • Unconscious

- No pulse

175
Q

Ventricular standstill (Asystole)

A

NO ELECTRICAL ACTIVITY

176
Q

Treatment of Ventricular Standstill (2)

A
  • CPR

- Atropine

177
Q

How do chances of survival change with asystole?

A

For every minute of ventricular standstill, chances of survival drop.

After 10 minutes, chances of survival are 0.

178
Q

Most blocks are _________.

A

Bradycardic

179
Q

First degree A-V block

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: Slow
  • Rhythm: Regular
  • P wave: Present
  • PRI: Consistantly elongated (>.20)
  • QRS:WNL (0.08)
  • What does it look like:
180
Q

Hallmark of First degree AV block

A

PRI is >.20

181
Q

How would you treat a symptomatic AV block patient (2)

A
  • Atropine

- Pacemaker

182
Q

Second degree heart block: MOBITZ TYPE I = WENCKEBACH

- Hallmark

A

“GOING, GOING, GONE!”

  • Gradually lengthening PR intervals until you have a P with no QRS to follow
183
Q

Treatment for Wenckebach (2)

A
  • Atropine

- Pacemaker

184
Q

Second degree heart block: MOBITZ TYPE II = CLASSICAL

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: Usually bradycardic
  • Rhythm: R-R can be regular
  • P wave: More Ps than QRS
  • PRI: Elongated
  • QRS: Sometimes absent
  • What does it look like: More Ps than QRS
185
Q

Second degree heart block: MOBITZ TYPE I = WENCKEBACH

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: Usually bradycardic
  • Rhythm: Going, going GONE.
  • P wave: Present
  • PRI: Elongates until QRS disappears
  • QRS:Occasionally absent
  • What does it look like: Going, gone, gone.
186
Q

Third degree AV block (complete)

  • Rate:
  • Rhythm:
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS:
  • What does it look like:
A
  • Rate: Ventricular rate is slow
  • Rhythm: Regular P-P, regular R-R
  • P wave:
  • PRI:
  • QRS: Wider than normal
  • What does it look like:
187
Q

Treatment for 3rd degree (complete) block (2)

A
  • Needs pacemaker immediately (emergency)

- Atropine alone will not change much: Would speed up atria, but not change the blockage.

188
Q

What would you assess with a 3rd degree AV block patient?

A

Decreased LOC

Hemodynamically compromised

Med Surg (13 decks)

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