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Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Increased red cell concentration

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2
Q

What causes relative polycythemia?

A

Hemoconcentration (dehydration, fluid shifts), and

redistribution (excitement, exercise)

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3
Q

What causes absolute polycythemia?

A

Increased EPO;

Primary (myeloproliferative disorders, etc)

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4
Q

Is increased EPO secretion from renal cysts or tumors appropriate or inappropriate?

A

Inappropriate

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5
Q

Is increased EPO due to chronic hypoxia appropriate or inappropriate?

A

Appropriate

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6
Q

If you see increased PCV and TP, what will you think?

A

Dehydration

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7
Q

True or false: decreased albumin = dehydration

A

FALSE!

INCREASED Albumin means dehydration

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8
Q

If arterial oxygen is normal, is an increased EPO appropriate or inappropriate?

A

Inppropriate

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9
Q

If arterial oxygen is decreased, is an increased EPO appropriate or inappropriate?

A

Appropriate

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10
Q

What is leukemia?

A

The presence of neoplastic cells in peripheral blood and/or bone marrow or spleen

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11
Q

What kind of leukemia has immature neoplastic cells, with a typically short survival?

A

Acute

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12
Q

What kind of leukemia has mature, well differentiated cells, with a longer patient survival time?

A

Chronic

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13
Q

Specific B cell neoplastic process; plasma cell differentiation

A

Multiple myeloma

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14
Q

Neoplastic process confined to solid tissues

A

Lymphosarcoma or lymphoma

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15
Q

Neoplastic process in marrow and/or blood

A

Lymphocytic leukemia

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16
Q

In dogs, a lymph conc of >35k means:

A

Leukemia

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17
Q

In dogs, lymph conc of <15k and Ehrlichia negative:

A

Leukemia

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18
Q

True or false: all dogs w/ ALL have lymphadenopathy

A

FALSE

Only about 1/2 the time

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19
Q

Clinical signs of ALL?

A 
Pale MM
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Lethargy 
Weight Loss
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20
Q

CBC readings of ALL?

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Lymphocytosis (usually)
Lymphoblasts in blood

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21
Q

ALL Prognosis?

A

Poor

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22
Q

What do lymphs look like in CLL?

A

Small, well differentiated

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23
Q

How can you confirm CLL?

A

Flow cytometry

PCR

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24
Q

DDx for CLL in cats?

A

Excitement lymphocytosis

Bartonella henselae

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25
Q

DDx for CLL in dogs?

A

Chronic ehrlichiosis
Antigen stimulation rare
Excitement lymphocytosis rare
Hypoadrenocorticism rare

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26
Q

CLL clinical signs?

A

May be asymptomatic; if ill-lethargy, anorexia, pale MM, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly possible

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27
Q

Lab findings in CLL?

A

Lymphocytosis
Possible anemia, thrombocytopenia
Inc small lymphs in BM
Rarely monoclonal gammopathy

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28
Q

Are most CLL cats Fe-LV positive or negative?

A

Negative

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29
Q

Multiple myeloma:

A

Proliferation of plasma cells at various sites in the BM, and eventually other tissues

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30
Q

What are the clinical signs of multiple myeloma due to?

A

Neoplastic plasma cells in the marrow and other tissues; and the immunoglobulins that they produce, which can result in hyperviscosity of the blood

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31
Q

What are the lab findings of multiple myeloma?

A

> 20% plasma cells in bone marrow
Monoclonal or biclonal gmmopathy
IgG or IgA usually
Bence-Jones protein in urine

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32
Q

What are Bence-Jones proteins?

A

Light chains of immunoglobulins that can pass through the glomerulus and end up in urine

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33
Q

Clinical signs of multiple myeloma?

A 
Lethargy, anorexia, lameness, bleeding from the nares, PU/PD
Fundoscopic changes
Paralysis possible
Renal dz possible
Bleeding disorders in 1/3 of dogs
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34
Q

Multiple myeloma in cats?

A

Atypical plasma cell morphology
Anemia
Bone lesions
Organ involvement common in cats

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35
Q

Myeloid cancers with gradual progression

A

Myelodysplastic syndromes

Myeloproliferative neoplasms

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36
Q

What % blast cells in the BM constitute an acute myeloid leukemia?

A

20% or greater

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37
Q

What morphologic abnormalities might you see with myelodysplastic syndromes?

A

Cytopenia common; may be single or in combo w/ non-regenerative anemia, neutropenia, and/or thrombocytopenia.
Marrow cell counts vary.
Dysynchrony of nuclear and cytoplasmic maturation

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38
Q

Are myelodysplastic cats usually Fe-LV positive or negative?

A

Positive

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39
Q

Clinical signs of myelodysplastic syndromes?

A

Lethargy
Anorexia
Weight loss
Often progress to leukemia; die w/in wks of Dx

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40
Q

Undifferentiated leukemia:

A

Almost all cells in BM are blasts that can’t be classified easily.
More common in cats

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41
Q

Myeloblastic leukemia

A

> 90% blasts in BM

<10% more differentiated granulocyte precursors

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42
Q

Myeloblastic leukemia w/ differentiation

A

Between 20 and 90% blasts in BM

>10% differentiated granulocytes

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43
Q

Myelomonocytic leukemia

A

Myeloblasts and monoblasts >20% in BM

Monocytes and granulocytes >20%

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44
Q

Monocytic leukemia

A

Promonocytes and monoblasts >80% of non-RBCs

or between 20 and 80%

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45
Q

Erythroleukemia

A

Erythroid >50%; myeloblasts and monoblasts <20%

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46
Q

Megakaryoblastic leukemia

A

> 20% megakaryoblasts; inc megakaryocyes

Thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis

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47
Q

Chronic granulocytic (myelogenous) leukemia

A

More common in dogs.
Marked neutrophilia, left shift, often monocytosis.
Hypersegmented nuclei, giant metamyelocytes, bands

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48
Q

DDx for chronic granulocytic leukemia?

A

MDS (marked leukocytosis differentiates)

Inflammatory responses

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49
Q

What can help definitively diagnose chronic granulocytic leukemia?

A

Disorderly left shift and eventual “blast crisis”

Usually much more anemic than patients w/ inflammatory dz

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50
Q

Are eosinophilic leukemia cats usually Fe-LV positive or negative?

A

Negative

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51
Q

Clinical signs of eosinophilic leukemia?

A

Similar to MPDs, also:

Thickened bowel loops, darrhea, vomiting

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52
Q

Clinical signs of chronic basophilic leukemia?

A

Basophilia, orderly left shift, thrombocytosis possible, organ infiltration

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53
Q

Platelets over a million may represent….

A

Essential thrombocytopenia.
It’s pretty uncommon.
DDx include things that can cause thrombocytosis

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54
Q

Important components of body cavity fluid analysis?

A

Cell concentration
Protein concentration
Types of cells present

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55
Q

Pure transudates form due to _________

A

Hypoalbuminemia

lack of oncotic pressure?

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56
Q

Modified transudates form due to ____________

A

Impaired blood or lymph flow

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57
Q

Exudates form due to _______

A

Increased capillary permeability

inflammation from cytokines due to MCOs, etc

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58
Q

Transudate

A

Clear
Protein < 6k/ul
No clot

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59
Q

Exudate

A

Cloudy
Protein >3 g/dl
NCC >6k/ul
Clot formation

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60
Q

What value should you look at if you suspect uroabdomen?

A

Creatinine

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61
Q

What value should you look at if you suspect chylous effusion?

A

Triglyceride

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62
Q

What value should you look at if you suspect bile leakage?

A

Bilirubin

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63
Q

What cells constitute suppurative inflammation

A

Predominantly neutrophils

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64
Q

What cells constitute a mixed inflammation?

A

Segs, lymphs, MPs, maybe eosinophils

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65
Q

What cells constitute a mononuclear inflammation?

A

MPs, lymphs

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66
Q

Cell types encountered in neoplastic effusions:

A

Lymphoblasts, carcinoma cells

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67
Q

Criteria of malignancy

A

Variable nuclear size
Large multiple nucleoli
Abnormal mitoses
Nuclear molding

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68
Q

What cells predominate joint fluid?

A

MPs and synovial lining cells

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69
Q

What could suppurative inflammation joint fluid be caused by?

A

Usually immune-mediated dz; possibly septic

Could be mononuclear- degenerative dz or trauma

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70
Q

If an animal has an infection, what will you normally see in joint fluid analysis?

A

High cell count
Usually non-degenerate NPs
Don’t usually see the infectious agent
Usually only a single joint is infected

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71
Q

If an animal has an immune-mediated dz, what will you normally see in joint fluid analysis?

A

Low to high cellularity
Increase in non-degenerate NPs
Usually multiple joints are affected

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72
Q

Cytology advantages over hisopathology

A

Round cell tumor ID
Detection, ID of MCOs
No shrinkage artifact

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73
Q

Cytology disadvantages

A

Non-diagnostic samples
No tissue architecture
Small sample size

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74
Q

Basic rules to specimen evaluation

A
  1. Understand what normal should look like
  2. Examine the entire specimen at low magnification
  3. Only evaluate intact cells, avoid areas that are thick, understained
  4. Recognize artifacts and contaminants
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75
Q

Reasons for “non-diagnostic” samples:

A 
Only blood on slide
All cells are broken
Cells are too thick to interpret
There's nothing on the slide
Formalin contamination
Aged sample
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76
Q

How can we recognize malignancy?

A

Variability

Cells are somewhere they don’t belong

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77
Q

Nuclear criteria of malignancy

A 
Anisokaryosis
Abnormally clumped chromatin
Abnormal nucleoli
Abnormal mitotic figures
Micronuclei
Variable sized nuclei in the same cell
Nuclear molding
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78
Q

Tumor classification

A

Round (discrete)
Epithelial
CT

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79
Q

Types of round cell tumors

A 
PHMLT (Please Help Me Learn This):
Plasma cell tumors
Histiocytomas
Malignant histiocytosis
Lymphoma 
TVTs
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80
Q

Round cell tumor description:

A

Cells usually individual
Plenty of cells present
Circular cells w/ round nuclei, distinct cytoplasmic borders
May be well differentiated

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81
Q

Malignant histiocytosis, histiocytic sarcoma description:

A

Abundant vacuolated cytoplasm, many multinucleated cells, look like MPs w/ malignant criteria

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82
Q

Epithelial tumor description:

A

Cells in sheets or clusters; distinct cytoplasmic borders; cells often large w/ abundant cytoplasm; can show signs of differentiation

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83
Q

Mesenchymal tumor description:

A

Spindle cells; fewer in number; can be in clusters but are normally individual

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84
Q

Absorption spectrum:

A

Pattern in which a substance absorbs light at various wavelengths

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85
Q

Photometry

A

Measures the intensity of light passing through or emitting from a test chamber

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86
Q

Spectrophotemetry

A

Instrument directs a beam of light through a solution; measures the amount of light absorbed

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87
Q

Reflectance photometry

A

Fluid is placed on dry fiber pad–> chemical rxn ensues –> product formed is proportional to teh conc of the analyte

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88
Q

Electrophoresis:

A

Movement of charged particles through a solution under the influence of an electrical field; Used commonly to separate and analyze serum proteins

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89
Q

Movement of particles in electrophoresis depends on:

A 
Net charge
Size and shape of the protein
Strength of the electrical field
Type of supporting medium
Temp
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90
Q

Reference limits =

A

Mean +/- 2 standard deviations

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91
Q

Reference interval:

A

the values between the reference limits

92
Q

Sensitivity:

A

True Positive/ (True positive + false negative) x 100

93
Q

Specificity

A

True negatives /(true negatives + false positives) x 100

94
Q

Predictive value of a test:

A

Reliability of a test to detect whether or not an animal has a dz

95
Q

Accuracy:

A

How close the result is to the true value

96
Q

Precision:

A

How repeatable the result is when assaying the same sample

97
Q

Where are proteins synthesized?

A

Mainly in the liver, some by the immune system

98
Q

What is total protein composed of?

A

Albumin

Globulins

99
Q

Major roles of albumin:

A

Transport protein

Colloidal osmotic pressure

100
Q

Alpha and Beta globulin functions

A

Inflammation
Coagulation
Transport proteins

101
Q

Fibrinogen

A

Subset of globulin (beta)
Synthesized by liver
Coagulation
Increases during inflammation

102
Q

Plasma

A

Liquid portion of blood that hasn’t clotted

Contains all the proteins

103
Q

Serum

A

Liquid portion of blood that remains after clotting

No fibrinogen

104
Q

How is TP measured?

A

Spectrophotometry

105
Q

How is albumin measured?

A

Spectrophotometry

106
Q

How is globulin measured?

A

TP - Albumin = Globulin

107
Q

What can cause decreased production of albumin?

A

Inflammation and liver failure are the big ones; also, severe malnutrition, maldigestion, or malabsorption, and intestinal parasites

108
Q

What can cause an abnormal loss of albumin?

A

Blood loss; PLE; PLN; 3rd spacing; skin dzs, burning

109
Q

If hypoalbuminemia is caused by malabsorption/maldigestion, what chemistry analyses might you see?

A

Dec glucose, cholesterol, and urea

110
Q

If hypoalbuminemia is caused by liver failure or insufficiency, what chemistry analyses might you see?

A 
Dec glucose, cholesterol, and urea
Increased globulins (the liver isn't filtering Ags)
111
Q

If hypoalbuminemia is caused by a protein-losing nephropathy (PLN), what chemistry analyses might you see?

A

Increased cholesterol

112
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A

Proteinuria
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypercholesterolemia
Ascites

113
Q

If hypoalbuminemia is caused by PLE, what chemistry analyses might you see?

A

Decreased cholesterol

Decreased Mg

114
Q

Why would an animal have hyperalbuminemia?

A

It’s dehydrated

115
Q

What can cause a decreased production of globulin?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCIDS)

116
Q

What can cause an abnormal loss of globulin?

A

Hemorrhage

PLE

117
Q

What are the categories of things that can cause hypoglobulinemia?

A

Decreased production
Abnormal loss
Failure of passive transfer in neonates

118
Q

Infectious inflammatory dzs that can cause hyperglobulinemia?

A

K9 ehrlichiosis

FIP

119
Q

Polyclonal gammopathy =

A

Inflammation

120
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy =

A

Neoplasia- multiple myeloma

121
Q

What can cause panhypoproteinemia?

A

Blood loss

PLE

122
Q

What are the big categories of things that can cause hyperglobulinemia?

A

Dehydration
Inflammation
Neoplasia

123
Q

What can cause panhyperproteinemia

A

Dehydration

124
Q

What can cause hypofibrinogenemia?

A

Liver failure

DIC

125
Q

What can cause hyperfibrinogenemia?

A

Inflammation

Renal disease

126
Q

Isosthenuria

A

1.008-1.012

The kidney is incapable of altering the amount of water leaving the body

127
Q

Hyposthenuria

A

Dilute; USG <1.007

The kidney is actively diluting the urine

128
Q

Oliguria

A

Decreased urine production

129
Q

Anuria

A

No urine produced

130
Q

Pllakiuria

A

Increased frequency of urination

131
Q

Azotemia

A

Increased urea nigrogen with/without increased creatinine

132
Q

Uremia

A

Excessive urea in blood w/ clinical signs of renal failure

133
Q

Functions of the kidney

A 
Produce EPO and renin
Activate Vit. D
Regulate BP
Excrete waste products
Conserve important substrates
134
Q

Waste products excreted by the kidneys:

A

Urea, creatinine, NH4
K, H, PO4
Water soluble drugs
Hormones and enzymes

135
Q

Substrates the kidney conserves

A

Na, Cl, HCO3, Ca, Mg, glucose, AAs, water

136
Q

Renal insufficiency means the kidney has lost how many nephrons?

A

66% have ceased to function

137
Q

Azotemia

A

75% of nephrons are functionally impaired

138
Q

Renal disease

A

Retain UN and CREA
Can’t dilute or concentrate urine
>75% of nephrons are affected

139
Q

Major lab tests used to evaluate kidne function

A

Serum BUN and CREA

USG

140
Q

In what species is BUN not a good indicator of GFR?

A

Ruminants. Salivary and blood urea go to the rumen

141
Q

Is BUN reabsorbed in the kidney?

A

Yes, about 40% is

142
Q

Is CREA reabsorbed in the kidney?

143
Q

If CREA is increased in blood, it implies:

A

A decrease in GFR;

Possibly altered kidney (nephron) function

144
Q

Why do we want to collect blood and urine at the same time?

A

We want to see what’s happening before the kidney (in the blood), and after the kidney (in the urine)

145
Q

When should you obtain a urine sample and measure USG?

A

Suspected renal dz
Geriatric wellness
History of PU/PD

146
Q

What is USG influenced by?

A

ADH, concentration gradient

147
Q

What constitutes the concentration gradient of urine??

A

Medullary hypertonicity
Production of urea
Production of aldosterone
(Not 100% on this….:/)

148
Q

How is urine diluted?

A

By resorbing Na and Cl

149
Q

Is any water removed by the collecting tubule?

A

Not really

150
Q

What’s the relative osmolality of urine at the beginning and end of the renal tubules?

A

It starts out isosmolar, ends up hyperosmolar

151
Q

What hormones are going to influence the resorption of Na, Cl, and urea in the descending tubule?

A

Aldosterone and ADH

152
Q

Is it normal for a dog to have some protein in concentrated urine?

A

Yes, just a little probably. It’s usually albumin

153
Q

How do we measure urine protein concentration, and in what specific cases may we want to look at it?

A

Measure w/ a reagent strip. Look at it w/ PLNs, glomerulonephritis, and uroliths

154
Q

What is polyuria?

A

Inability to concentrate urine; implies loss of 2/3 of nephrons; will probably see low USG.
Don’t confuse w/ Diabetes

155
Q

What are the renal related differentials for PU?

A

Renal failure

Pyelonephritis

156
Q

What are the extra-renal differentials for PU?

A

Diuresis
Medullary washout
Endocrine
Pyometra

157
Q

What will the lab tests reveal w/ a pre-renal azotemia?

A

Inc BUN
+/- inc CREA
Inc SpGr

158
Q

What can caused a decreased renal flow, leading to a decreased GFR?

A

Dehydration
Shock
Cardiac insufficiency (dec CO)

159
Q

What can cause increased urea production?

A

Upper GI bleed
High protein diet
Endogenous protein catabolism
In ruminants, decreased ruminal motility

160
Q

2 analytes affected by GFR?

161
Q

What are the sources of AAs?

A

GI tract and endogenous protein catabolism

162
Q

In what animals might you see a normally increased CREA?

A

Greyhounds (inc muscle mass) and neonatal foals (dysfunctional placenta, prevents normal clearance of fetal CREA)

163
Q

What will the lab tests show for renal azotemia?

A

Increased BUN and CREA

Decreased SpGr

164
Q

After the kidney has lost 75% of nephrons (renal azotemia), what will the rest of the nephrons do?

A

Undergo functional hypertrophy to try to keep up

165
Q

What are the infectious differentials for renal azotemia?

A

Pyelonephritis

Leptospirosis

166
Q

What are the toxin differentials for renal azotemia?

A

Ethylene glycol, drugs, grapes, asiatic liles, melamine, pigments

167
Q

What are the hypoxic differentials for renal azotemia?

A

Decreased renal perfusion, infarction

168
Q

Is an animal with azotemia and low USG always in renal failure?

A

NOOOOO!

There are tons of things that can cause similar effects

169
Q

What will the lab tests show in postrenal azotemia?

A

Inc BUN and CREA

Variable SpGr

170
Q

2 major causes of postrenal azotemia:

A

Block

Uroabdomen

171
Q

T or F: Azotemia occurs before polyuria

A

FALSE!!!!!!
Polyuria occurs before azotemia.
Better know that, fool

172
Q

Clinical signs of postrenal azotemia

A

Straining to urinate
Large turgid bladder
Distended abdomen (uroabdomen)

173
Q

What does decreased CREA mean?

A

Nothing!

It’s not clinically significant

174
Q

What can cause prerenal proteinuria?

A

Hypertension

Hyperproteinemia

175
Q

Prerenal proteinuria

A

Increase in a small protein in blood

Ex: paraproteinuria; hemoglobinuria; myoglobinuria; post-colostral proteinuria

176
Q

What are the 2 types of renal proteinuria?

A

Glomerular and tubular

177
Q

What can cause glomerular proteinuria?

A

Hypoalbuminemia (PLNs, etc)

Diseases that damage filtration barriers

178
Q

Tubular proteinuria

A

Normal or inc serum albumin
Usually assoc. w/ acute or congenital renal dz
Proximal tubules are defective
Loss of low MW proteins

179
Q

What can cause postrenal proteinuria?

A

Hemorrhage into the genitourinary tract;

Inflammation (will see pyuria in this case)

180
Q

Urinary protein: creatinine ration

A

Estimates quantity of urine protein excreted per day.

Normal is <0.5

181
Q

Are glomerular or tubular proteinurias more severe?

A

Glomerular

182
Q

Biochemical profile of renal failure

A

Hypocalcemia (hyper in horses)
Hyperphosphatemia
Metabolic acidosis
Hypochloremia (in cattle)

183
Q

Number one reason for hyperphosphatemia

A 
Decreased GFR 
(except in horses, Phos will be dec)
184
Q

If there’s been a uroabdomen, what will the urine in the peritoneum consist of?

A

Increased CREA, urea, K

Decreased Na and Cl

185
Q

If there’s been a uroabdomen, what will the blood plasma levels look like?

A

Decreased CREA, urea, K

Increased Na and Cl

186
Q

What is diagnostic of uroperitoneum?

A

Peritoneal [CREA] 2x serum [CREA]

187
Q

Clinical signs of Acute Renal Failure

A

Good BCS
Anorexia, V/D, halitosis
Oliguric to anuric
Depressed->obtunded->nonresponsive->seizures

188
Q

Some common causes of ARF?

A

Toxins
Renal ischemia
Infection

189
Q

Lab findings of ARF?

A

Azotemia
Possible hyperkalemia and acidemia
Oliguria or anuria
Possible proteinuria; celular cysts

190
Q

Clinical signs of chronic renal failure?

A 
Poor BCS
Anorexia, V/D, halitosis
Polyuric
Depressed
Hypertension
191
Q

CRF bloodwork

A 
Non-regenerative anemia
Dehydration
Azotemia
Probable hyperphosphatemia
Metabolic acidosis
Normo to hypokalemia
192
Q

CRF urinalysis

A

Polyuria

Isosthenuria

193
Q

What can cause glomerular damage?

A

Immune complex deposition

Amyloid deposition

194
Q

T or F: hypoproteinemia is seen w/ glomerulonephritis?

A

True. Protein loss exceeds production.

It’s typically albumin that’s getting lost

195
Q

What constitutes nephrotic syndrome?

A 
Glomerular disease
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypercholesterolemia
Edema/abdominal effusion
Hypercoagulable state
196
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A

PLN leading to abdominal transudation

197
Q

When will symmetric dimethylarginine (SDMA) increase?

A

When there’s ~40% loss of renal tubular function.

Great test to rule out CRF in cats!

198
Q

Cystocentesis contraindications

A

Local pyoderma, coagulopathy, neoplasia
Insufficient urine volume in the bladder
Patient resists restraint and abdominal palpation

199
Q

If you’ve refrigerated a urine sample for 12 hrs, what do you need to do before you evaluate it?

A

Warm to room temp for 20 minutes, then gently swish to remix and resuspend the sediment

200
Q

What does a complete urinalysis involve?

A

Gross visual assessment of urine sediment and USG
Chemical evaluation
Microscopic examination of sediment

201
Q

Yellow-orange urine indicates what?

202
Q

Yellow-green/yellow-brown urine indicates what?

A

Bilirubin and biliverdin

203
Q

Red urine indicates what?

A

RBCs, Hemoglobin, Myoglobin

204
Q

What will a urine sample w/ excess hemoglobin look like?

A

Red-brown urine; serum will be red/pink

205
Q

What will a urine sample w/ excess myoglobin look like?

A

Red-brown urine; serum will be clear

206
Q

What will a urine sample w/ excess MetHgb look like?

A

Red-brown urine; serum is brown/black

207
Q

Brown-black urine indicates what?

208
Q

What can cause red urine in horses?

A

Storage, or snow

Not necessarily indicative of hematuria

209
Q

What can cause cloudiness or turbidity in urine?

A

“formed elements”

Cells, crystals, bacteria, casts, and lipid droplets

210
Q

What values do you ignore when reading a dipstick?

A

Leukocytes
USG
Nitrite
Urobilinogen

211
Q

Major differentials for hyperglycemic glucosuria?

A 
Diabetes mellitus-glucose
Hyperadrenocorticism-cortisol
Drugs: dextrose, glucocorticoids
Postprandial
Acute pancreatitis
212
Q

Major differentials for normoglycemic glucosuria?

A

Transient stress
Reversible tubular damage (drugs, hypoxia, toxins, infection)
Cats w/ urethral obstruction

213
Q

What comes first in a dog, bilirubinuria or bilirubinemia?

A

Bilirubinuria

Worry less if the USG is higher

214
Q

What are some major differentials for bilirubinuria?

A

Liver dz
Bile duct obstruction
Hemolysis

215
Q

What can cause false negative bilirubin readings on a dipstick?

A

Old sample
Light exposure
Nitrites
Ascorbic acid

216
Q

What are the true ketones?

A

Acetoacetic acid

Acetone

217
Q

What can cause ketonuria?

A

Negative energy balance
DKA
Insulinoma

218
Q

What will happen to dipstick blood if it’s due to hematuria?

A

It will clear with centrifugation

219
Q

Major differentials for hematuria?

A

Infection, inflammation, calculi

220
Q

What can cause an alkaline pH of urine?

A

UTI
Low protein diet
Respiratory alkalosis, metabolic alkalosis
Alkalinizing drugs

221
Q

What can cause an acidic pH of urine?

A 
High protein diets
Respiratory and metabolic acidoses
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis + severe dehydration
Hypokalemia
Furosemide
222
Q

Dipstick primarily detects which protein?

223
Q

What are the sources of squamous cells seen in urine sediment?

A

Distal urethra, vaginal tract, skin

224
Q

What are the sources of transitional cells seen in urine sediment?

A

Renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, proximal urethra

225
Q

What is the source of caudate cells seen in urine sediment?

A

Renal pelvis

226
Q

What is the source of renal cells seen in urine sediment?

A

Renal tubules

Clin Path (2 decks)

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