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immunohematology > exam 2 > Flashcards

exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the best temperature range for cold agglutinatinins to react?

A

0-5C

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2
Q

give 3 examples of infections that may cause cold agglutinins to develop

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae
infectious mononucleosis
primary atypical pneumonia

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3
Q

explain desensitization

A

a hypersensitive animal that is given very small subcutaneous injection of Ag at closely spaced intervals may be able to tolerate an ordinarily shocking dose without severe rxc.

can be used clinically for pt. with intense allergic rxc to penicillin or horse antiserum

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4
Q

briefly explain Graves’ disease

A

hyperthyroidism
increased T3 and T4
decreased/absent TSH
goiter, wt. loss, tachycardia

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5
Q

explain what the reactions mean in hemagglutination inhibition test

A

negative for agglutination = there was agglutination

+ = no agglutination

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6
Q

within which organ is it thought that potentially self-reactive lymphocytes are removed?

A

thymus

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7
Q

the Nichols strain of T. pallidum is used in what type of testing?

A

FTA-ABS

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8
Q

when do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive?

A

week 1-3 following appearance of primary lesions

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9
Q

in secondary syphilis what would the serological tests look like, result wise.

A

positive

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10
Q

how long after treatment does the serological test become nonreactive in secondary syphilis?

A

12-18 months

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11
Q

the secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?

A

6-8 weeks

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12
Q

name three pharmacologically active mediators of anaphylaxis

A 
ECFA
triptase
chimase
neutrophils
chemotaxis
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13
Q

which of the following is true about the late latent stage of syphilis: it is highly contagious, usually noncontagious, not detectable by serological tests, or not communicable between mother and fetus?

A

usually noncontagious

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14
Q

P24 is a viral antigen that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?

A

HIV

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15
Q

name three means of transmission of the HIV virus

A

intimate sexual contact
contact with blood or bodily fluids
perinatally from infected mother to infant (transplacental)

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16
Q

needles that dispense antigen for the VDRL test must be calibrated to deliver how much?

A

1/60 mL

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17
Q

the VDRL needles- how often should they be QC’d

A

every new batch

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18
Q

T. pallidum crosses the placenta in which week of gestation?

A

18

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19
Q

what does the FTA-ABS test identify in the patient’s serum?

A

specific trepnonemal

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20
Q

FTA-ABS; what does the fluorescein labeled antihuman globulin do for the purposes of interpreting this test?

A

makes Ag-Ab rxc visible

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21
Q

in the direct fluorescent antibody test, the ____ is “labeled” with fluorescent dye

A

Ab

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22
Q

the serum is inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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23
Q

give 5 examples of an autoimmune disease and describe wether it is organ-specific and, if so, which organs are affected etc

A

hoshimotos thyroiditis- OS- thyroid gland
Graves disease- OS-thyroid gland
Rheumatoid Arthritis- OS- synovial lining of joints
Systemic Lupus Erythematosis-SYS- body tissues
Good Pasteurs Syndrome- OS- glomerulus

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24
Q

a flat-bottomed bottle is required in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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25
Q

explain a flocculation test and give examples of this type of testing

A

a very specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of Ag concentration

ex. RPR

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26
Q

the VDRL or the RPR is always read macroscopically?

A

RPR

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27
Q

a modified VDRL antigen is used in what type of testing?

A

RPR

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28
Q

name some synonyms for Type B viral hepatitis

A

Hepatitis B
HBV
serum hepatitis

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29
Q

what is chancre?

A

lesions that occur in the peripheral region that occur in syphilis

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30
Q

what speed should the rotator be set at for the RPR test

A

100 rpm

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31
Q

what speed should the rotator be set for the VDRL

A

180 rpm

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32
Q

why do you get false negative results with a postzone reaction?

A

because of the excess Ag present that may be obscuring a small amount of Ab

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33
Q

the antibody to tissue lipids is called?

A

reagin

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34
Q

why would you get a false negative results with a prozone reaction?

A

excess Ab over Ag

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35
Q

explain the zone of equivalence

A

in the precipitation curve this is where the optimal proportions of Ab and Ag are reached
stable lattice structures are formed and precipitate out, allowing visual

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36
Q

what is tannic acid used for in serologic testing?

A

allows proteins to complex with RBC as antigen carriers

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37
Q

what is serum sickness?

A

a benign and self limiting disease that results from passive sensitization with animal serum used to treat infections such as tetanus, diphtheria, and gangrene

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38
Q

how does the Western Blot test differ from ELISA test?

A

ELISA- screening test that ID’s Ab

WB- Ag for confirmatory testing

39
Q

what is an agglutinin?

A 
the Ab involved in a agglutination reaction
particulate Ag (such as cells) agglutinate with Ab
40
Q

why is cholesterol added to the antigen that is used in the flocculation test for syphilis?

A

because it provides absorption centers for the tissue lipids so agglutinated particles can be visualized

41
Q

T or F

treating a pregnant woman with syphilis does not cure the fetus

A

false

42
Q

T/F

congenital, primary, and secondary syphilis are best treated by repeated doses of penicillin

A

false

43
Q

T/F

treatment does not alter any tissue damage that has already occurred

A

true

44
Q

T/F

it is necessary to get repeated blood tests for 5 years following treatment

A

false

45
Q

T/F

tertiary syphilis cannot be treated

A

false

46
Q

loss of self tolerance results in what type of disease?

A

autoimmune

47
Q

explain cross reactivity and what kind of results it can lead to

A

Ag that are closely related in structure and get a false +

48
Q

the presence of anti-double stranded DNA can distinguish RA from what other autoimmune disease

A

lupus

49
Q

recent experience or exposure to group A hemolytic streptococci can be detected when there are high or steadily increasing concentrations of what in a patients serum?

A

antistreptolysin O

50
Q

define anaphylaxis

A

“without protection” most severe type of allergic reaction, involves multiple organs and may be fatal

51
Q

what is a xenograft? and what is it also known as?

A

heterograft

a transplant from one species to another species

52
Q

transplanting from one individual to a genetically nonidentical person of the same species is called what?

A

homograft or allograft

53
Q

define contact dermatitis

A

a delayed hypersensitivity reaction caused by T-cell sensitization to low molecular weight compounds that come in contact with the skin

54
Q

give three examples of contact dermatitis

A

nickel
rubber
poison plants (ivy, oak)

55
Q

which type of test is most widely used to detect HIV

A

ELISA

56
Q

of Hep C, Hep G, Hep B, which is the most virulent?

A

Hep C

57
Q

Why is Hep C more dangerous than Hep B?

A

85% of cases convert to chronic Hep.

2 out of 3 patients become carriers who can transmit

58
Q

what is the first antigen to appear int he serum of a person infected with HBV?

A

hepatitis B surface antigen

59
Q

How is hepatitis A transmitted?

A

fecal-oral route

60
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is the only type that involves what?

A

T-cells

61
Q

T/F

testing for the p24 antigen would be useful as a screening test for blood products?

A

false

62
Q

on average how long does it take (weeks) for an individual to develop HIV antibodies after exposure to HIV

A

6-12 weeks

63
Q

what antibody appears in the serum of individuals that have recovered from Hepatitis B or who have received the Hepatitis B vaccination?

A

Hepatitis B surface Ab AKA
HBSAb
anti-HBSAg

64
Q

which form of hepatitis is responsible for the most post-tranfusion reactions?

A

Hep C

65
Q

if a patient has an immune response to their own IgG, they would most likely to have a positive or negative RA test?

A

positive

66
Q

which set of antigens would be represented on a positive Western Blot?

A

Gp 41

Gp 120

67
Q

The antigen in a precipitin reaction must be ?

A

soluble

68
Q

what does ANA stand for?

A

antinuclear antibody

69
Q

how is ANA useful in testing?

A

found in greater than 95% of lupus patients

70
Q

what does HLA stand for and why is it important?

A

human leukocyte antigen

most important immunologic barrier for transplanted tissues

71
Q

which hepatitis virus requires HBV infection?

A

Hep D

72
Q

when discussing EBV and infectious mono, name the primary mode of transmission.

A

intimate contact with salivary glands

73
Q

what % of lymphs would you expect to see as a typical on a peripheral blood smear in EBV and infectious mono

A

10%

74
Q

which malignancy has been associated with EBV?

A

burkitt’s lymphoma

hodgkins disease

75
Q

which virus have most people been exposed to by their elderly years?

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

76
Q

how do antiretroviral drug therapies work?

A

by blocking various steps in viral replication

77
Q

name some examples of antiretroviral drugs

A

fusion inhibitors
integrase inhibitors
core receptor antagonists

78
Q

which cells are the main target of HIV virus? why?

A

T-helper cells

b/c of CD4 Ag serves as a receptor for the virus by binding the Gp 120 glycoprotein on the outer envelope

79
Q

what is one method for determining the progression to the AIDS stage of HIV infection. how is this done?

A

CD4 count of < 200/ microliter

flow cytometrey

80
Q

shingles is essentially a re-emergence of what virus?

A

varicella-zoster

81
Q

regarding HIV transmission, which specimens are not considered infectious unless visibly bloody?

A 
saliva
sputum
nasal secretions
tears
sweat
urine
vomit and feces
82
Q

in the HIV virus what is reverse transcriptase responsible for doing?

A

responsible for conversion of viral RNA to complementary DNA

83
Q

Name the gene that codes for the enzymes necessary for HIV replication

A

pol gene

84
Q

briefly describe the latency period of HIV infection

A

decrease in viremia
subtle/absent symptoms
gradual deterioration of immune system

85
Q

what is the approximate length of time for the latency period in HIV infections?

A

10 years

86
Q

symptoms of primary infections of HIV are similar to symptoms from what other virus?

A

IM

87
Q

what are advantages of chemiluminescent assay

A

excellent sensitivity
reagents are stable, relatively nontoxic
inexpensive
faster turn around time

88
Q

what are the disadvantages of chemiluminescent assay

A

false results possible from lack of precision in injection of the hydrogen peroxide
urine and plasma may cause quenching of the light emission

89
Q

briefly describe the methodology of turbidimetry

A

measure of cloudiness of solution

measures reduction of light intensity due to reflection, absorption and scatter

90
Q

briefly describe nephlometry

A

measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the indecent beam as it passes through a suspension

91
Q

the antibody that is rheumatoid factor belongs to which Ig class?

A

IgM

92
Q

what is the test anti-CCP?

A

anti- cyclic citrillunated peptide

93
Q

what is the anti-CCP used for?

A

lead marker for RA

94
Q

precipitation

A

combining soluble Ag with soluble Ab to produce insoluble complexes that are visible

immunohematology (4 decks)

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