Exam 2 Flashcards

0
Q

Treatment of psychiatric disease with psychotropic drugs often causes a disturbance in _________.

A

movement

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1
Q

A component of major psychiatric disturbance is an alteration is _______ experience.

A

Sensory

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2
Q

Hormones associated with anxiety are….

A

CRH, corticotropin and cortisol

*Normal negative feedback mechanism to bring these levels down does not respond properly

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3
Q

The fluctuation of various physiological and behavioral parameters over a 24-hour period.

A

Circadian rhythms

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4
Q

A basic, meandering stream of consciousness that can flow from thoughts of future responsibilities, memories, fantasies, and so on.

A

Conscious mental activity

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5
Q

Jumble of unrelated words

A

Word salad

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6
Q

The ability to retain and recall past experiences

A

Memory

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7
Q

Make interpersonal relationships Nerve cells that conduct electrical impulses

A

Neurons

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8
Q

Three actions carried out by neurons

A
  • Respond to stimuli
  • Conduct electrical impulses
  • Release neurotransmitters
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9
Q

A chemical substance that functions as a neuromessenger

A

Neurotransmitter

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10
Q

MAO

A

Monoamine Oxidase- Destructive enzyme of monoamine neurotransmitters (norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin)

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11
Q

Affects fine muscle movement, emotions and thoughts, decision making, and stimulation of sex, thyroid, and adrenal hormones

A

Dopamine (DA)

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12
Q

Affects mood, attention, arousal, and fight or flight response to stress.

A

Norepinephrine (NE)

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13
Q

Affects sleep, hunger, mood, pain, aggression, and sexual behavior

A

Serotonin (5-HT)

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14
Q

Affects alertness, inflammatory response, and stimulation of gastric secretions

A

Histamine

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15
Q

Decrease of this neurotransmitter is associated with depression and Parkinson’s disease
Increase is associated with schizophrenia and mania

A

Dopamine

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16
Q

Decrease of this neurotransmitter is associated with depression, increase is associated with mania, anxiety states ,and schizophrenia.

A

Norepinephrine

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17
Q

Decrease of this neurotransmitter is related to depression and increase is related to anxiety states

A

Seratonin

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18
Q

Decrease of this neurotransmitter is related to sedation and weight gain

A

Histamine

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19
Q

This neurotransmitter plays a role n inhibition, reduces aggression, excitation and anxiety.

A

GABA

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20
Q

Decrease in this neurotransmitter can result in anxiety disorders, schizophrenia, mania, huntington’s disease while increase may cause reduction of anxiety.

A

GABA

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21
Q

This neurotransmitter is excitatory and plays a role in learning and memory.

A

Glutamate

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22
Q

Decrease in this neurotransmitter can result in psychosis, neurotoxicity, and Alzheimer’s disease while increase can improve cognitive performance in behavioral tasks

A

Glutamate

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23
Q

This neurotransmitter plays a role n learning and memory, regulates mood (mania, sexual aggression) and stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

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24
Q

Decrease in this neurotransmitter can cause Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, or Parkinson’s disease while increase can cause depression.

A

Acetylcholine

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25
Q

Pathways that play a crucial role in emotional status and psychological function

A

Limbic system (Mesocoritcal pathways or mesolimbic pathways)

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26
Q

Part of the brain involved in formulating goals, planning, initiating actions, decision making, insight, motivation, and social judgement

A

Frontal Lobe

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27
Q

Part of the brain that regulates skeletal muscle coordination and contraction and maintains equilibrium (Thought Processes)

A

Cerebellum

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28
Q

Part of the brain that controls sensory and motor function

A

Parietal lobe

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29
Q

Part of the brain that controls vision

A

Occipital lobe

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30
Q

Part of the brain that controls auditory

A

Temporal lobe

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31
Q

Part of the brain that controls balance, heart rate, respirations, coughing/swallowing/sneezing, blood pressure maintenance, and vomiting

A

Medulla Oblongata

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32
Q

A recording of electrical signals from the brain made by hooking up electrodes to the subjects scalp. Used to show the state a person is in.

A

EEG (electroencephalograph)

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33
Q

A series of x-ray images taken of the brain and a computer analysis produces slices providing a precise 3D-like reconstruction. Used to detect abnormalities and detect schizophrenia.

A

CT (Computerized axial tomography)

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34
Q

A magnetic field applied to the brain that provides 3D visualizations of the brain’s structure in sectional images. Used to detect edema, ischemia, infection etc. and can detect schizophrenia

A

MRI (Magnetic resonance imaging)

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35
Q

Radioactive substance injected and travels through the brain and shows up as bright spots on the scan. Can detect glucose metabolism, oxygen utilization, blood flow, and neurotransmitter-receptor interaction. Diagnoses schizophrenia and other disorders

A

PET (Positron-emission tomography)

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36
Q

Neurotransmitters most consistently linked to mental activity (5)

A
  • Norepinephrine
  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • GABA
  • Glutamate
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37
Q

Refers to the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs on the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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38
Q

Refers to the actions of the person on the drug (how it is absorbed, transformed, distributed, excreted etc.)

A

Pharmacokinetics

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39
Q

Targets of benzodiazepines

A

GABA-A receptors

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40
Q

____ receptors coupled to calcium and/or potassium channels are associated with pain, memory, and mood.

A

GABA-B

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41
Q

Diazepam, clonazepam, and alprazolam are examples of:

A

Benzodiazepines

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42
Q

Flurazepam (Dalmane), temazepam (Restoril), triazolam (Halcion), estazolam (Prosom), and quazepam (Doral) produce a ______ effect and are used to treat _____.

A

Sedative, Insomnia

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43
Q

Lorazepam (Ativan) and alprazolam (Xanax) can treat _____ and do not produce a sleep response .

A

Anxiety

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44
Q

Benzodiazepines, Doxepin, Buspirone, Melatonin receptor agonists, short-acting sedative-hypnotic sleep agents and antidepressants are all used to treat ______.

A

Anxiety

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45
Q

TCAs, SSRIs, SNRIs, SNDIs, MAOIs, and others are all used to treat _______.

A

Depression

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46
Q

Lithium is a known _____ _______.

A

Mood stabilizer

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47
Q

Valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and others are all ___________ dugs.

A

Anticonvulsant

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48
Q

First-generation, second-generation (clozapine, risperidone, quetiapine), and third-generation are all ________ drugs.

A

Antipsychotic

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49
Q

Potentiate or promote activity of GABA by binding to a specific receptor on the GABA-A receptor complex.

A

Benzodiazepines

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50
Q

Drugs that treat anxiety are aimed at _____ receptors.

A

GABA

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51
Q

Have sedative effects without the anti-anxiety, anticonvulsant, or muscle relaxant effects.

A

Short-acting sedative-hypnotic sleep agents (“Z-drugs”)

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52
Q

Actions of these drugs include three hypothesis (Monoamine hypothesis, monoamine receptor hypothesis, and increased production of neurotropic factors)

A

Antidepressants

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53
Q

Heterocyclic antidepressants that can cause lethal overdose

A

TCAs (Tricyclic antidepressants)

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54
Q

Antidepressants that are the first line of action in depression and have little side effects and low chance for lethal overdose. They increase Seratonin levels

A

SSRIs (Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)

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55
Q

Medications that increase serotonin and norepinephrine.

A

SNRIs (Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors)

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56
Q

Drugs that increase norepinephrine and Seratonin but also block histamine.

A

SNDIs (Serotonin-norepinephrine disinhibitors)

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57
Q

Antidepressant drugs that affect levels of norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin

A

MAOIs (Monoamine oxidase inhibitors)

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58
Q

A mood stabilizer in patients with bipolar

A

Lithium

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59
Q

Represents the ratio of the lethal dose to the effective dose, a measure of overall drug safety in regards to the possibility of overdose or toxicity

A

Therapeutic index

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60
Q

A mood disorder characterized by at least one week-long manic episode that results in excessive activity and energy.

A

Bipolar 1 disorder

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61
Q

Disorder marked by low-level mania (hypomania) alternating with profound depression

A

Bipolar 2 disorder

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62
Q

Disorder with symptoms of hypomania that alternate with symptoms of mild to moderate depression for at least 2 years in adults (1yr in children)

A

Cyclothymic disorder

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63
Q

At least 4 mood episodes in a 12-month period

A

Rapid cycling

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64
Q

First line of therapy for bipolar disorder

A

Lithium (for those in depressive state)

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65
Q

Mood disorder questionnaire (MDQ)

A

Used to assess and screen for bipolar disorder (not to definitively diagnose)

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66
Q

A nearly continuous flow of accelerated speech with abrupt changes from topic to topic that are usually based on understandable associations or plays on words.

A

Flight of ideas

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67
Q

The stringing together of words because of their rhyming sounds, without regard to their meaning

A

Clang associations

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68
Q

Primary nursing diagnosis for person with bipolar

A

Risk for injury (for patient in acute mania to prevent exhaustion and death from cardiac collapse)

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69
Q

Therapeutic range for lithium is between _____ to ____ mEq/L, maintenance range is between _____ to ___mEq/L, and levels should not exceed ____ mEq/L.

A

0.8- 1.4, 0.4- 1.3, 1.5

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70
Q

Fine hand tremors, polyuria, and mild thirst along with mild nausea, general discomfort, and weight gain are _________ of lithium and seem at ___ to ___ mEq/L- Interventions

A

expected side effects, 0.4- 1.0

Symptoms may persist or subside, weight gain can be helped with diet and exercise

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71
Q

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, thirst, polyuria, lethargy, slurred speech, muscle weakness, and fine hand tremor are _______ of lithium and are seen at ____ mEq/L- Interventions

A

Early signs of toxicity, 1.5,

Medication withheld, levels measured, dosage reevaluated

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72
Q

Course hand tremor, persistent GI upset, mental confusion, muscle hyperirritability, ECG changes, incoordination, and sedation are _______ of lithium and seen at ___ to ____ mEq/L- Interventions

A

Advanced signs of toxicity, 1.5- 2.0

-Depending on severity, medication is withheld OR hospitalization is indicated.

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73
Q

Ataxia, giddiness, serious ECG changes, blurred vision, clonic movements, large output of dilute urine, seizures, stupor, sever hypotension, coma are ____ of lithium, seen at levels of ___ to ___ mEq/L- Interventions

A

Severe toxicity, 2.0-2.5

-Hospitalization with hastened excretion and administered emetic if patient is alert.

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74
Q

Convulsions, oliguria, and death occur when lithium levels reach above ___mEq/L- Interventions

A

2.5

Hospitalization with hastened excretion, administered emetic, and hemodialysis.

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75
Q

Fatigue, sleep disturbances, changes in appetite, feelings of hopelessness or worthlessness, persistent thoughts of death/suicide, and inability to concentrate or make decisions are all symptoms of…

A

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

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76
Q

Occurs when feelings of depression persist consistently for at least 2 years.

A

Dysthymic disorder

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77
Q

Relates to children between 6-18yrs that have frequent temper tantrums resulting in verbal or behavioral outbursts out of proportion to the situation

A

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

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78
Q

Refers to a cluster of symptoms that occur in the last week prior to the onset of a woman’s period. Symptoms include discomfort, emotional symptoms similar to depression that interfere with the ability of a woman to work and interact with others.

A

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

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79
Q

Applies when symptoms of a major depressive episode arise as a result of prolonged drug or alcohol intoxication or as a result of withdrawal.

A

Substance-induced depressive disorder

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80
Q

Can be the result of changes that are directly related to certain illnesses (kidney failure, Parkinson’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease)

A

Depressive disorder associated with another medical condition

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81
Q

Beck depression inventory, hamilton depression scale, zung depression scale, and geriatric depression scale

A

Assessment tools to assess type and severity of depression

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82
Q

The patient health questionnaire-9

A

Depression assessment tool that highlights predominant symptoms seen in depression, easy to use, 91% accuracy.

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83
Q

Risk for suicide includes the following symptoms:

A
Severe hopelessness
Overuse of alcohol
Recent loss/separation
History of past and serious suicide attempts
Acute suicide ideation
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84
Q

Highest priority nursing diagnosis for depression

A

Risk for suicide

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85
Q

Universal human experience and most basic of emotions. feelings of apprehension, uneasiness, uncertainty, or dread resulting from a real or perceived threat

A

Anxiety

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86
Q

Occurs in the normal experience of everyday living and allows an individual to perceive reality in sharp focus. Problem solving becomes more effective. May have slight discomfort, restlessness, irritability, mild tension-relieving behaviors.

A

Mild anxiety

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87
Q

Anxiety in which perceptual field narrows and person demonstrates selective inattention, ability to think clearly is hampered, but learning and problem solving can still take place at a less optimal level.

A

Moderate anxiety

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88
Q

Signs and symptoms include tension, pounding heart, increased pulse, increased respiratory rate, perspiration, and mild somatic symptoms, voice tremors and shaking may be noted.

A

Moderate anxiety

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89
Q

Anxiety level in which attention is scattered or focused on one detail, problem solving is impossible.

A

Severe anxiety

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90
Q

Signs and symptoms of this level of anxiety include: feelings of dread, confusion, purposeless activity, sense of impending doom, more intense somatic complains, diaphoresis, withdrawal, loud and rapid speech, and threats/demands

A

Severe anxiety

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91
Q

Level of anxiety in which person is unable to attend to the environment, focus is lost, disorganized and irrational reasoning.

A

Panic level of Anxiety

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92
Q

Signs and symptoms of this level of anxiety include: Experience of terror, immobility or severe hyperactivity/flight, unintelligible communication/inability to speak, somatic complains (numbness, tingling, shortness of breath, dizziness, chest pain, nausea, trembling, chills, overheating, palpitations), severe withdrawal, hallucinations or delusions.

A

Panic level of anxiety

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93
Q

_______ use of defense mechanisms help people lower anxiety to achieve goals in acceptable ways

A

Adaptive

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94
Q

________ use of defense mechanisms occurs when one or several are used in excess, particularly the overuse of immature defenses

A

Maladaptive

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95
Q

__________ and _________ are always healthy coping mechanisms

A

Sublimation and altruism

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96
Q

People who exhibit developmentally inappropriate levels of concern over being away from a significant other.

A

Separation anxiety

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97
Q

Used to counterbalance perceived deficiencies by emphasizing strengths

  • Adaptive: A shorter-than-average man becomes assertively verbal and excels in business
  • Maladaptive- An individual drinks alcohol when self-esteem is low to temporarily diffuse discomfort
A

Compensation

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98
Q

The unconscious transformation of anxiety into a physical symptoms with no organic cause

  • Adaptive: NONE
  • Maladaptive: man becomes blind after seeing his wife flirt with other men
A

Conversion

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99
Q

Involves escaping unpleasant, anxiety-causing thoughts, feelings, wishes, or needs by ignoring their existence

  • Adaptive: man reacts to death of a loved on by saying “I don’t believe you”
  • Maladaptive: woman whose husband died 3yrs ago still keeps his clothes in the closet and talks about him in present tense
A

Denial

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100
Q

The transference of emotions associated with a particular person, object, or situation to another nonthreatening person, object, or situation

  • Adaptive: A child yells at his teddy bear after being bullied at school
  • Maladaptive: A child is unable to acknowledge fear of his father and becomes fearful of animals
A

Displacement

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101
Q

Is a disruption in consciousness, memory, identity, or perception of the environment that results in compartmentalizing comfortable or unpleasant aspects of oneself.

  • Adaptive: An art student is able to mentally separate herself form a noisy environment to become absorbed in her work
  • Maladaptive: As a result of an abusive childhood, a woman perpetually disconnects from reality
A

Dissociation

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102
Q

Attributing to oneself the characteristics of another person or group. Done consciously or unconsciously

  • Adaptive: 8yr old girl dresses like her teacher and puts together a pretend classroom for her friends
  • Maladaptive- Young boy thinks a neighborhood pimp with drugs and money is someone to look up to.
A

Identification

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103
Q

A process in which events are analyzed based on remote, cold facts and without passion, rather than incorporating feeling and emotion into the processing

  • Adaptive: Despite the fact that a man has lost his farm to a tornado, he analyzes his options and leads his child to safety
  • Maladaptive: a man responds to the death of his wife by focusing on the details of day care and operating the household rather than processing the grief with his children
A

Intellectualization

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104
Q

Refers to the unconscious rejection of emotionally unacceptable features and attributing them to others

  • Adaptive: NONE (Considered an immature defense mechanism)
  • Maladaptive: A woman who has repressed an attraction to other women refuses to socialize as a fear that other women will make homosexual advances toward her.
A

Projection

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105
Q

When unacceptable feelings or behaviors are controlled and kept out of awareness by devolving the opposite behavior or emotion

  • Adaptive: recovering alcoholic talks of the evils of drinking
  • Maladaptive: Woman who has an unconscious hostility towards her daughter is overprotective and hovers over her to protect her from harm,.
A

Reaction formation

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106
Q

Consists of justifying illogical or unreasonable ideas, actions, or feelings by developing acceptable explanations that satisfy the teller as well as the listener.

  • Adaptive: An employee says: I didn’t get a raise because the boss doesn’t like me
  • Maladaptive: A man who thinks his son was fathered by another man excuses his malicious treatment of the boy by saying he is lazy and disobedient when that is not the case.
A

Rationalization

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107
Q

Reverting to an earlier, more primitive and childlike pattern of behavior that may or may not have been previously exhibited.

  • Adaptive: A 4yr old with a new baby brother starts sucking his thumb and wanting a bottle temporarily
  • Maladaptive: A man who loses a promotion starts complaining to others, hands in sloppy work, misses appointments, and comes in late
A

Regression

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108
Q

An unconscious exclusion of unpleasant or unwanted experiences, emotions, or ideas from conscious awareness

  • Adaptive: A man forgets his wife’s birthday after a fight
  • Maladaptive: A woman is unable to enjoy sex after having pushed out awareness of a traumatic sexual incident from childhood
A

Repression

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109
Q

The inability to integrate the positive and negative qualities of oneself or others into a cohesive image

  • Adaptive: NONE (pathological defense)
  • Maladaptive: A 26yr old woman initially values her acquaintances yet invariably becomes disillusioned when they turn out to have flaws
A

Splitting

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110
Q

An unconscious process of substituting mature and socially acceptable activity for immature and unacceptable impulses.

  • Adaptive: a woman who is angry with her boss writes a short story about a heroic woman
  • Maladaptive: None- always constructive
A

Sublimation

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111
Q

The conscious denial of a disturbing situation or feeling. (student not paying rent until after exam studied for an entire week)

  • Adaptive: Business woman preparing to make an important speech is told that morning her husband wants a divorce. Puts incident aside until after speech.
  • Maladaptive: Woman who feels lump in her breast before leaving for 3-week vacation puts information in back of mind until returning from vacation
A

Suppression

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112
Q

Most commonly seen in children, when a person makes up for an act or communication.

  • Adaptive: after flirting with her male secretary, a woman brings her husband tickets to a concert he wants to see
  • Maladaptive: A man with rigid, moralistic beliefs and repressed sexuality is driven to wash his hands to gain composure around attractive women
A

Undoing

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113
Q

Sudden onset of extreme apprehension or fear, usually associated with feelings of impending doom

A

Panic attack

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114
Q

Intense, excessive anxiety or fear about being in places or situations where escape might be difficult, particularly in wide open places.

A

Agoraphobia

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115
Q

Persistent, irrational fear of a specific object, activity, or situation that leads to a desire for avoidance or actual avoidance of the object, activity, or sitaution.

A

Specific phobia

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116
Q

Severe anxiety or fear provoked by exposure to a social or performance situation that could be evaluated negatively by others.

A

Social anxiety disorder

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117
Q

Excessive worry which is out of proportion to the true impact of events or situations

A

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

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118
Q

Characterized by symptoms of anxiety, panic attacks, obsessions and compulsions that develop with use of substance

A

Substance-induced anxiety disorder

119
Q

The individuals symptoms of anxiety are the direct physiological result of a medical condition. (hyperthyroidism, pulmonary embolism, or cardiac dysrhythmias)

A

Anxiety due to a medical condition

120
Q

Thoughts, impulses, or images that persist and recur and cannot be dismissed from the mind even when the person attempts to do so.

A

Obsessions

121
Q

Ritualistic behaviors an individual feels driven to perform in an attempt to reduce anxiety or prevent an imagined calamity.

A

Compulsions

122
Q

Preoccupation with an imagined defective body part resulting in irrational thinking and compulsive behavior.

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

123
Q

The accumulation of belongings that may have little or no value in an obsession that prevents some people form leading normal lives.

A

Hoarding disorder

124
Q

Trichotillomania

A

Hair pulling disorder

125
Q

Dermotillomania

A

Skin picking disorder

126
Q

Yale-brown obsessive compulsive scale, hoarding scale self-report, panic disorder severity scale are used for..

A

Different types of panic/anxiety disorders

127
Q

The Hamilton Rating scale is used for…

A

Measuring anxiety

128
Q

The Fear Questionnaire is used to…

A

Measure phobias

129
Q

_____ are the first line of defense in most anxiety and OCD disorders.

A

SSRIs

130
Q

Severe emotional inhibition

A

Reactive attachment disorder

131
Q

Indiscriminately social behaviors

A

Disinhibited social engagement disorder

132
Q

Refers to positive adaptation or the ability to maintain or regain mental health despite adversity

A

Resilience

133
Q

The Child Dissociative Checklist is used for…

A

Assessing children with trama disorders

134
Q

Trauma symptoms checklist for children, child sexual behavior inventory, and disturbances of attachment interview may be used to ..

A

Assess children for trauma disorders

135
Q

Priority nursing diagnosis for children with trauma disorders: (2)

A
  • Risk for impaired parent/child attachment

- Risk for delayed development

136
Q

Term that means a balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic arousal

A

Window of Tolerance

137
Q

Innovative evidence-based therapy used to treat children and adults to help process traumatic memories through a specific eight-phase protocol that allows the person to think about the traumatic event while attending to other stimulation, such as eye movements, audio tones, or tapping.

A

Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

138
Q

ACE

A

Adverse Childhood Experiences

139
Q

Persistent re-experiencing of a highly traumatic event that involves actual or threatened death or serious injury to self or others, to which the individual responded with intense fear, helplessness or horror

A

PTSD

140
Q

PCL and PC-PTSD

A

Assessment tools used to screen for PTSD (Primary Care PTSD Screen and PTSD Checklist)

141
Q

May develop after exposure to a highly traumatic event. Must display 8 of 14 specific symptoms

A

Acute Stress Disorder

142
Q

A milder, less specific version of ASD and PTSD. Precipitated by a stressful event that is not severe or traumatic.

A

Adjustment disorder

143
Q

An unconscious defense mechanism that protects the individual against overwhelming anxiety through an emotional separation- Occurs after significant adverse experiences/traumas

A

Dissociative disorders

144
Q

Dissociative disorders include 3 disorders:

A
  • Depersonalization/derealization disorder
  • Dissociative amnesia
  • Dissociative identity disorder
145
Q

Inability to recall important personal information, often of a traumatic or stressful nature. Autobiographical memory is available but not accessible

A

Dissociative amnesia

146
Q

Sudden, unexpected travel away from the customary locale and inability to recall one’s identity and information abut some or all of teh past. Precipitated by a traumatic event.

A

Dissociative fugue

147
Q

Presence of two or more distinct personality states that recurrently take control of behavior.

A

Dissociative identity disorder

148
Q

Somatoform Questionnaire is used for…

A

Assessment of dissociation

149
Q

bring the person’s awareness to noticing real things in the present to help counter dissociative episodes.

A

Grounding Techniques

150
Q

Findings of PET scan for patient with schizophrenia

A

Reduced brain activity in frontal lobes

151
Q

PET scan results for patient with OCD

A

Increased brain metabolism in frontal cortex

152
Q

PET scan findings of patient with depression

A

Decreased brain activity/metabolism in prefrontal cortex

153
Q

PET scan findings of patient with Alzheimer’s

A

Hypometabolism in temporal and parietal regions

154
Q

Neurotransmitters most consistently linked with mental activity: (5)

A
  • Norepinephrine
  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • GABA
  • Glutamate
155
Q

True or False: Depression is caused by an excess of neurotransmitters.

A

False- Deficiency of norepinephrine and/or serotonin

156
Q

True or false: Schizophrenia and other thought disorders are associated with excess of neurotransmitters.

A

True: Dopamine specifically

157
Q

Drug classification: Benzodiazepines

A

Antianxiety

158
Q

Drug class: Z-drugs

A

Hypnotic

159
Q

Flurazepam (Dalmane), temazepam (Restoril), triazolam (Halcion), estazolam (Prosom), and quazepam (Doral).

A

Benzodiazepines (hypnotic)

160
Q

Benzodiazepines are _______ ________ and may contribute to falls/broken bones, should not be taken in the daytime, and should not be taken with alcohol and other _____ _____

A

CNS depressants

161
Q

zolpidem (Ambien), zaleplon (Sonata), eszopiclone (Lunesta)

A

Z-drugs/Hypnotics

162
Q

Lorazepam (Ativan), alprazolam (Xanax)

A

Benzodiazepines

163
Q

Antianxiety and Hypnotic drugs target _______ receptors associated with pain, memory, and mood.

A

GABA

164
Q

Ramelteon (Rozerem)

A

Melatonin receptor agonist

165
Q

Doxepin (Silenor) use

A

Treatment of insomnia: difficulty maintaining sleep.

166
Q

Doxepin (Silenor) contraindications:

A

Severe urinary retention
MAOIs CNS depressants
Sedating Antihistamines

167
Q

Buspirone (BuSpar) uses:

A

Reduces anxiety without sedative properties

*Can use with other CNS depressants- causes insomnia/dizziness

168
Q

Antidepressants target which neurotransmitters? (2)

A

Norepinephrine and Serotonin

169
Q

amitriptyline (Elavil), imipramine (Tofranil), nortiptyline (Pamelor)

A

TCAs

170
Q

TCAs lead to _______ ______.

A

Anticholinergic effects

171
Q

Overdose of antidepressant _________ can be fatal secondary to cardiac conduction disturbances.

A

TCAs

172
Q

fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), paroxetine (Paxil), citalopram (Celexa), escitalopram (Lexapro), fluvoxamine (Luvox)

A

SSRIs

173
Q

SSRIs increase levels of _______

A

Serotonin

174
Q

TCAs increase levels of ________

A

Norepinephrine (and sometimes serotonin)

*Also block Histamine causing sedation

175
Q

Venlafaxine (Effexor), Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

A

SNRI (Cymbalta- depression, GAD, diabetic neuropathy, fibromyalgia)

176
Q

SNRIs increase levels of….

A

Serotonin and Norepinephrine

177
Q

SNRIs are known to increase _______

A

BP

178
Q

SNDIs increase levels of….

A

Norepinephrine and Serotonin

179
Q

_______ antidepressants should be given to patients with nausea

A

SNDIs (antiemetic)

- weight gain, sedation

180
Q

MAOIs increase levels of ____________.

A

Most neurotransmitters

181
Q

MAOIs should be used cautiously because….

A

Tyramine is present in many food substances and should not be used with other antidepressants

182
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin/Zyban) is used for…

A

Antidepressant used for smoking cessation

183
Q

Bupropion (Zyban) is contraindicated in…

A

Patients with seizure disorder, bulimia, anorexia, or alcohol/sedative discontinuation

184
Q

Anticonvulsants are _____ antagonist and _____ agonists

A

Glutamate, GABA

185
Q

Many anticonvulsants (Valproate (Depakote), Carbamazepine (Tegretol), Lamotrigine (Lamictal)) require frequent __________ _________.

A

Blood monitoring

186
Q

Antipsychotic drugs can help symptoms of _______.

A

Schizophrenia

187
Q

Antipsychotic drugs target which neurotransmitters?

A

Dopamine

188
Q

Antipsychotics can lead to an increase in which hormone?

A

Prolactin (Signs and symptoms- amenorrhea, galactorrhea, gynecomastia)

189
Q

Antipsychotics are antagonists of _______ and block ____ receptors

A

Norepinephrine, histamine

190
Q

Antipsychotics impair memory because of a blockage of _________.

A

Acetylcholine

191
Q

____________ antipsychotics are chosen as first-line treatment of schizophrenia.

A

Second-generation

192
Q

__________ increase risk of metabolic syndrome (weight gain, increased blood glucose, increased triglycerides, etc. )

A

Antipsychotics

193
Q

Alzheimer’s drugs target _______ and _______.

A

Acetylcholine (inhibit acetylcholinesterase), Glutamate (decreases levels that destroy neurons)

194
Q

Namenda, Namenda XR, Memantine all treat…

A

Alzheimers

195
Q

St. John’s wort should not be taken with….

A

Many other medications because it increases metabolism of medications

196
Q

Patient as a full partner in his care whose values, preferences, and needs are respected.

A

Patient-centered care

197
Q

Interactive process between two or more persons who send and receive messages to one another

A

Communication

198
Q

Validating the accuracy of the sender’s message is very important and is known as _______.

A

Feedback

199
Q

Effective communication in therapeutic relationships depends on nurses’ (3):

A
  1. KNOWING the purpose of the message
  2. COMMUNICATING what is really meant to the patient
  3. COMPREHENDING the meaning of what the patient is intentionally or unintentionally conveying
200
Q

Peplau identified two main principles that can guide the communication process during a nurse-patient interview…

A
  1. Clarity (ensures that meaning of the message is accurately understood)
  2. Continuity (promotes connections among ideas)
201
Q

This is an example of…

The patient is slumped in a chair, puts her face in her hands, and occasionally traps her right foot .

A

Body behaviors

-Posture, body movements, gestures, gait

202
Q

The patient grimaces when speaking to the nurse, when alone he smiles and giggles to himself.
This is an example of…

A

facial expressions

-Frowns, smiles, grimaces, raised eyebrows, pursed lips, licking lips, tongue movements

203
Q

The patient’s eyes harden with suspicion

This is an example of….

A

Eye expression/gaze behavior

-Lowering brows, intimidating gaze

204
Q

the patient talks in a load sing-song voice

This is an example of….

A

Voice-related behaviors

-Tone, pitch, level, intensity, inflection, stuttering, pauses, silences, fluency

205
Q

When the patient mentions discharge she becomes pale and her respirations increase
This is an example of….

A

Observable autonomic physiological responses

-Increase in respirations, diaphoresis, pupil dilation, blushing, paleness

206
Q

The patient is dressed in a wrinkled shirts, his pants are stained and his socks are dirty. He is unshaven
This is an example of….

A

Personal appearance

-Grooming, dress, hygiene

207
Q

The patient is grossly overweight and his muscles appear flabby
This is an example of….

A

Physical characteristics

-Height, weight, physique, complexion

208
Q

The ____ and ____ hold the biggest cues on a persons true feelings

A

Eyes, mouth

209
Q

Verbal message is referred to as the _____ of the message

A

Content

210
Q

Nonverbal behavior is referred to as the ____ of the message

A

Process

211
Q

Conflicting messages are known as…

A

Double or mixed message (different content and process)

212
Q

Two or more mutually contradictory messages given by a person in power.

A

Double-bind messages

213
Q

Useful tools for nurses when communicating with their patients (4)

A

Silence
Active listening
Clarifying techniques
Questions

214
Q

Clarifying techniques include…. (4)

A

Paraphrasing
Restating
Reflecting
Exploring

215
Q

In other words…. and It seems you are saying…. are examples of….

A

Paraphrasing

216
Q

Your life has no meaning? and What kind of meaning is missing? are examples of….

A

Restating

217
Q

You looks sad… and I wonder what they are…. are examples of

A

Reflecting

218
Q

A means of assisting a patient to better understand their own thoughts and feelings.

A

Reflecting

219
Q

Restating in different or fewer words the basic content of a patient’s message

A

Paraphrasing

220
Q

Mirroring the patient’s overt and covert messages so the technique may be used to echo feeling as well as content

A

Restating

221
Q

Enables the nurse to examine important ideas, experiences, or relationships more fully.

A

Exploring

222
Q

Tell me about…. and Give me an example…. are examples of

A

Exploring

223
Q

Questions that encourage patients to share information

A

Open-ended questions

224
Q

Open-ended questions should be used when…

A

Establishing rapport with a patient
Beginning of an interview
Help the clinician elicit information

225
Q

Questions that require a yes or no response and give specific needed information

A

Close-ended questions

226
Q

Close-ended questions should be used when….

A

Initial assessment or intake interview

To ascertain specific results

227
Q

Questions that start with “what if” and help people articulate, explore, and identify feelings and thoughts

A

Projective questions

228
Q

Projective questions should be used….

A

To help people imagine thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in certain situations

229
Q

Miracle questions used to identify goals that the patient may be motivated to pursue.

A

Presupposition questions

230
Q

Asking a question about what the patient would do if their problem had gone away is an example of a ________ question and help get to the crux of what might be the most important issues in a person’s thinking/life.

A

Presupposition

231
Q

Which of these are non-therapeutic techniques?
1- Minimizing feelings
2- Making observations
3- Placing the events in time/sequence
4- Falsely reassuring
5- Attempting to translate into feelings
6- Changing the subject

A

1, 4, 6

232
Q
Which of these techniques are therapeutic? 
1- Restating
2- Encouraging evaluation 
3- Giving advice 
4- Giving approval/agreeing
5- Encouraging description of perception
6- Presenting reality
A

1, 2, 5, 6

233
Q

Cultural consideration include these four verbal and nonverbal messages

A

1- Communication style
2- Use of eye contact
3- Perception of touch
4- Cultural filters

234
Q

A form of cultural bias or cultural prejudice that determines what we pay attention to and what we ignore

A

Cultural filters

235
Q

Preparing for a client interview includes (3):

A

Pace, Setting, Seating

236
Q

Associated with physical characteristics, such as body movements and postures, facial expressions, eye contact, the way someone holds their head, legs, and shoulders.

A

Kinesics

237
Q

The study of personal space and the significance of the physical distance between individuals

A

Proxemics

238
Q

0-18in is considered ____ distance

A

Intimate (in US)- For those we trust

239
Q

18-40in is considered ______ distance in the US

A

Personal- Friends/colleagues

240
Q

4-12 feet is considered _____ distance in the US

A

Social-Strangers/acquaintances

241
Q

12feet+ is considered ______ distance in the US

A

Public- public speaking

242
Q

Attending behaviors include (3):

A

Eye contact
Body language
Vocal quality

243
Q

Written records of a segment of the nurse-patient session taht reflect as closely as possible the verbal and nonverbal behaviors of both patient and nurse.

A

Process recording

*Useful tool for identifying communication patterns

244
Q

Characteristics of mania are assessed by: (4)

A
  • Mood
  • Behavior
  • Thought processes/speech patterns
  • Cognitive function
245
Q

Nonstop physical activity and lack of sleep and food found in mania is…

A

AN EMERGENCY and can lead to death if not treated.

246
Q

Primary outcome for acute phase of bipolar:

A

Injury prevention

247
Q

Primary outcome for continuation phase (4-9mo) of bipolar

A

Relapse prevention

248
Q

The following are examples of outcomes from which phase of bipolar:

  • be well hydrated
  • Stable cardiac status
  • Get sufficient sleep and rest
  • Make no attempt of self-harm
A

Acute

249
Q

The following are outcomes from which stage of bipolar:

  • Knowledge of disease process
  • Knowledge of medication
  • EDUCATION
  • Support groups/therapy
A

Continuation

250
Q

Maintenance phase outcomes focus on…

A

Prevention of relapse and limitation of the severity and duration of future episodes

251
Q

In which stage of bipolar would you see these outcomes:

  • Participation in learning interpersonal strategies
  • Participation in psychotehrapy, group therapy, ongoing therapy
A

Maintenance

252
Q

Medical stabilization, safety, and hospitalization are usually seen in the _______ phase of bipolar

A

Acute

253
Q

Focuses on maintaining adherence to medication regimens and prevention of relapse are seen in the _____ stage of bipolar.

A

Continuation

254
Q

Focuses on preventing relapse and limiting the severity and duration of possible episodes is seen in the _____ phase of bipolar

A

Maintenance

255
Q

Starting medications for depressive episodes (lithium) and providing safety for manic episodes (hospitalization) are seen in the ______ phase

A

Acute

256
Q

Medication adherence is the most important treatment outcomes in the _____ phase

A

Continuation

257
Q

Community resources are important in the ____ phase

A

Maintenance

258
Q

Start low and go slow is a drug philosophy used for …. .

A

Older patients

259
Q

Two major long-term risks of lithium therapy

A
  • Hypothyroidism

- Kidney impairment of ability to concentrate urine

260
Q

________ drugs are effective for cycling patients, acute mania, rapid cyclers, and dysphoric mania.

A

Anticonvulsants

261
Q

_______ is less effective on patients with mixed mania, rapid cycling, and atypical featuers

A

Lithium

262
Q

_______ is an anticonvulsant that is the first-line response for bipolar depression

A

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

263
Q

______ is used to subdue severe manic behavior, patients with rapid cycling. Depressive episodes and mania during pregnancy are indications.

A

ECT- electroconvulsive therapy

264
Q

Mood stabilizers cause weight gain, risk for diabetes, high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, cardiac problems which are combined known as… .

A

Metabolic syndrome

265
Q

APRN treatment for bipolar (2)

A

CBT

Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy

266
Q

PET scan of a person with depression shows…

A

Decreased activity, particularly in the prefrontal cortex.

267
Q

Beck’s cognitive triad related to depression:

A
  1. A negative, self-deprecating view of self
  2. A pessimistic view of the world
  3. The belief that negative reinforcement will continue in the future
268
Q

The outward representation of a person’s internal state of being and is an objective finding based on the nurse’s assessment related to depression.

A

Affect

269
Q

Frequent sighing, monotone speaking, and no facial expressions are an example of

A

Affect

270
Q

Outcomes of depression focus on a ________ model

A

recovery

271
Q

Changes in sleeping, eating, and sexual satisfaction are examples of _______ signs of depression

A

vegetative

272
Q

Phase directed at reduction of depressive symptoms and restoration of psychosocial ad work function. Hospitalization may be required and medication and other treatments are initiated

A

Acute phase: 6-12 weeks

273
Q

Phase directed at prevention of relapse through pharmacotherapy, education, and depression-specific psychotherapy

A

Continuation phase: 4-9mo.

274
Q

Treatment of this phase is directed at prevention of further episodes of depression.

A

Maintenance phase (1year+)

275
Q

Since antidepressants take 1-3 weeks to work, ______ is used for patients who are acutely suicidal

A

ECT- electroconvulsive therapy

276
Q

Antidepressants increase one or more neurotransmitters including…

A

Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

277
Q

________ and ________ warrant immediate medical attention for patients taking TCAs

A

Urinary retention, severe constipation

278
Q

TCAs may affect the… causing serious adverse reactions

A

heart

*Risk for elderly, cardiac disease

279
Q

MAOIs can cause increases in… causing serious adverse reactions

A

Blood pressure

280
Q

Induces seizures that result in mobilization and activity of neurotransmitters. Decreases suicidal thoughts.

A

ECT

281
Q

Procedure where patient is given general anesthetic to induce sleep and seizures are induced with electrical current. EEG monitors brain response and ECG monitors heart response

A

ECT

282
Q

A noninvasive treatment modality that uses MRI-strength magnetic pulses to stimulate focal areas of the cerebral cortex. Alternate to antidepressants in pregnant women.

A

TMS- Transcranial Magnetic stimulation

283
Q

Headache
Lightheadedness
Seizures
Scalp tingling and discomfort

A

TMS reactions

284
Q

Memory deficits

Confusion

A

Reactions to ECT

285
Q

Boosts levels of neurotransmitters and improves actin of antidepressants by use of surgical implant of pace-maker device into the left chest wall. Pulses are delivered to this site.

A

VNS- Vagus nerve stimulation

286
Q

Treatment whereby electrodes are surgically implanted into specific areas of the brain in order to stimulate regions of underactivity.

A

DBS- Deep brain stimulation

*Potential for intracranial hemorrhage

287
Q

First-line treatment of SAD and may also treat MDD or dysphoric disorder

A

Light Therapy

288
Q

Mania feels wonderful in the beginning but turns dark and scary as it progresses toward loss of control and confusion

A

Euphoric mania

289
Q

Mixed state or agitated depression, depressive symptoms along with mania

A

Dysphoric mania

290
Q

Negative effects of light therapy

A

Headaches

Jitteriness

291
Q

Flower thought to increase amounts of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine in the brain. As effective as antidepressants in treatment of mild to moderate depression

A

St. John’s Wort

292
Q

Dampens activity of hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocoritcoid (HPA) axis, which is believed to be overly active in depression. More easily accessed, less expensive, and results in fewer side effects than antidepressants

A

Exercise

293
Q

APRN treatments for depression

A

CBT
IPT (interpersonal therapy)
Group therapy

294
Q

The ______ of the brain plays a role in anxiety disorders.

A

Amygdala

295
Q

Neurotransmitters that influence anxiety:

A

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, GABBA

296
Q

True or false: Decreased amounts of GABA causes people to suffer from anxiety.

A

True