Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does Reynolds number indicate

A

Probability of turbulent flow

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2
Q

The higher the Reynolds number, the higher the…

A

probability of turbulent flow

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3
Q

If R (reynolds #) is < 2000 = ….

A

Laminar Flow

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4
Q

If R (reynolds #) is > 3000 = ….

A

Turbulent flow

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5
Q

What is the function of Capillaries

A

Allow diffusion of interstitial fluid with blood-exchange of hormones, electrolytes, nutrients, etc

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6
Q

What are arterioles? Function?

A

Small ends of arteries- can contract or dilate controlling blood flow to capillaries

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7
Q

True or false; ultrasound can be used to determine blood flow

A

true (doppler frequency)

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8
Q

Using doppler frequency to determine blood flow; what would a broad frequency indicate? What about a narrow one?

A
Broad = Turbulent flow
Narrow = Laminar flow
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9
Q

True or false; the Fick test is a test of cardiac output

A

true

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10
Q

True or false; an indicator dilution is a test of cardiac output

A

true

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11
Q

What is distensibility

A

Ability of a vessel to stretch

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12
Q

How does compliance differ from distensibility

A

Compliance is ability for a vessel to stretch AND hold volume

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13
Q

In arteries; a small change in volume has what effect on pressure

A

Large change in pressure

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14
Q

In veins; large change in volume has what effect on pressure

A

small change in pressure

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15
Q

True or false; arteries are 24x more compliant than veins

A

false; Veins are 24x more compliant than Arteries

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16
Q

True or false; control in blood flow changes via metabolic demand

A

true

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17
Q

What controls short term change in blood flow to an area

A

Arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters vasoconstrict or vasodilate

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18
Q

What controls long term change in blood flow to an area

A

Change in vascularity via Angiogenesis

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19
Q

What is Angiogenesis?

A

Forming of new blood vessels via old ones

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20
Q

True or false; growth factors and angiogenin are associated with angiogenesis

A

true

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21
Q

Systemic arteries are designed to do what?

A

Carry blood under high pressure out to tissue beds

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22
Q

Arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters act as what?

A

Control valves to regulate local blood flow

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23
Q

What collects blood from capillaries

A

venules

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24
Q

What returns blood to heart/has dynamic storage capacity

A

veins

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25
Q

True or false; cardiac output is controlled by local tissue flow

A

true

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26
Q

Is arterial pressure independent of local blood flow and cardiac output?

A

Yes, it is

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27
Q

What are the 4 parts of any blood vessel

A

Endothelium
Elastic tissue
Smooth muscle
Fibrous tissue

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28
Q

A typical artery is mostly composed of what?

A

Smooth muscle (followed by elastic and then fibrous)

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29
Q

Capillaries are composed solely of what?

A

Endothelium

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30
Q

The aorta is mostly composed of what?

A

Elastic tissue (followed by fibrous and then smooth muscle)

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31
Q

True or false; veins are composed equally of elastic tissue, smooth muscle, and fibrous tissue

A

true

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32
Q

True or false; at any given flow, velocity is inversely proportional to the total cross sectional area

A

true

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33
Q

What is flow directly proportional to? What is it inversely proportional to

A

Proportional to change in Pressure

Inversely to Resistance

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34
Q

What is the driving force of blood flow

A

Pressure gradient

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35
Q

True or false; pressure gradient is proportional to flow

A

true

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36
Q

True or false; systemic circulation is predominately a parallel circuit

A

true

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37
Q

Independence of local flow control
Minimize total peripheral resistance (TPR)
and Oxygen rich blood supply to every tissue are all advantages to what?

A

A parallel circuit blood blood flow

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38
Q

True or false; water is the standard of viscosity (1)

A

true

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39
Q

True or false; blood is more viscous than plasma

A

true (blood = 3 and plasma = 1.5)

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40
Q

True or false; velocity decreases when viscosity increases

A

true

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41
Q

What increases flexibility to RBCs

A

fibrinogen

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42
Q

Fibrinogen does what?

A

Increases flexibility of RBC

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43
Q

What is the normal range of Hemocrit

A

38-45%

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44
Q

What clinical consideration is associated with Hemocrit below 38%

A

Anemia

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45
Q

What kind of blood flow is streamline, silent, most efficient, and normal

A

laminar

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46
Q

What kind of blood flow is cross mixing, has vibrational noise, not efficient

A

Turbulent

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47
Q

Fick principal and Indicator dilutions (dye) are measurements of?

A

Cardiac output

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48
Q

Doppler ultrasonic flowmeter, vascular flow cufs, and Venous occlusion plesthymography are all measurements of what?

A

Vessel flow

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49
Q

True or false; veins are 8x more distensible

A

true

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50
Q

True or false; arterioles are richly innervated by SNS vasoconstrictor fibers (alpha receptors)

A

true

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51
Q

What is the locate vasodilator theory

A

active tissues release local vasodilators which relax smooth muscle

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52
Q

Adenosine, CO2, histamine, K+, H+, NO and CO are all examples of what in regards to circulation

A

vasodilators

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53
Q

True or false; most tissues show some degree of auto regulation of blood flow

A

true

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54
Q

Long changes in blood flow promote changes in tissue vascularity. When there is increased blood flow to an area for extended periods of time what does endothelium up-regulate?

A

expression of monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1)

This along with adhesion molecules and growth factors cause angiogensis

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55
Q

What are the 3 types of neovascularization

A

Vasculogenesis (Mesenchymal cell differentiate into endothelial cells)
Angiogenesis (Formation of new blood vessels by sprouting from existing small vessels)
Arteriogenesis (rapid proliferation of pre-existing collateral vessels)

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56
Q

What is vasculogenesis

A

Mesenchymal cell differentiate into endothelial cells

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57
Q

What is arteriogenesis? How does it differ from Angiogenesis

A

Rapid proliferation of preexisting collateral vessels

Arteriogenesis is more rapid and from collateral vessels instead of sprouting from small vessels)

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58
Q

What are the 3 angiogenic triggers?

A

Mechanical (hemodynamic, shear stress)
Chemical (hypoxia, nitric oxide)
Molecular (Inflammation, decrease in glucose, or angiogenic growth factors (VEGF, PLGF, Angiopoietin)

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59
Q

True or false; angiogenesis can be used therapeutically

A

true, through protein therapy, gene therapy, or cellular therapy

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60
Q

True or false; healthy endothelium (which is in all blood vessels) can release prostacyclin (PGI2), NO, and endothelin

A

true

Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation
NO is a vasodilator
Endothelin constricts smooth muscle when endothelium is damaged

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61
Q

What is the functional unit of circulation

A

capillary

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62
Q

True of false; diffusion, ultrafiltration, and vesicular transport are all mechanisms of exchange in capillaries

A

true

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63
Q

True or false; functional flow is also called nutritive flow

A

true

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64
Q

What is functional or nutritive flow associated with

A

increased oxygen uptake/utilization

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65
Q

Non-fucntional or non-nutritive flow is called such because..

A

no O2 uptake is exchanged

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66
Q

Which kind of capillary exchange is associated with starling forces (hydrostatic pressure, colloid osmotic pressure)

A

ultrafiltration

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67
Q

What does hydrostatic pressure gradient (high to low) favor? What about Colloid osmotic pressure (low to high)?

A

Hydrostatic - favors filtration

Colloid - favors reabsorbtion

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68
Q

What is the function of the protein concentration?

A

Colloid osmotic pressure (Albumin 75%, Globulins 25%, fibrinogen <1%)

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69
Q

What is associated with the Donnan Effect?

A

Colloid osmotic pressure

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70
Q

What is the Donnan effect

A

Describes the discrepancy between what colloid osmotic pressure should be and what is read. Has to do with plasma proteins attracting + ions

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71
Q

True or false; capillary walls are all alike from each other

A

false; they are very different (tight junctions in BBB, discontinuous in liver, fenestrations in kidneys)

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72
Q

What is the reflection coefficient? What would RC of 0 mean? What about RC of 1?

A

Reflection coefficient expresses how readily protein can cross capillary walls

RC=0 means all colloid proteins an freely cross walls (no colloid effect)
RC=1 no colloid proteins can cross walls (full colloid effect)

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73
Q

What drains excess fluid from interstitial spaces

A

Lymph capillaries

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74
Q

True or false; no lymphatic vessels are found in superficial portions of skin, CNS, endomysium of muscle or bones

A

true

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75
Q

What does the thoracic duct drain? What about right duct?

A

Right duct- right side of head, right arm, right neck and part of chest
Thoracic- everything else

76
Q

2/3 of all lymph come from where?

A

liver and intestines

77
Q

True or false; any factor that increases filtration and or decreases reabsorption will increase lymph formation

A

true

78
Q

How many mL per hour does the thoracic duct drain? How about right duct?

A

Thoracic = 100 mL/hr
Right= 20 mL/hr
Total lymph = 120 mL/hr

79
Q

True or false; everyday a volume of lymph equal to 1/2 of your entire plasma volume is filtered

A

false it is equal to the amount of plasma

80
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system

A

Return lost protein to vascular system
Drain excess plasma from ISF
Carry absorbed substances/nutrients
Filter lymph from nodes

81
Q

True or false; arterial BP is created by the interaction of blood with vascular walls

A

true

82
Q

During systole are arteries distended? Is BP peaking or falling?

A

yes they are (systole is contraction)

and peaking

83
Q

During diastole what are arteries doing? is BP peaking or falling?

A

arteries are recoiling (diastole is filling)

BP is falling

84
Q

What is hydraulic filtering?

A

Stretch (systole) and recoil (diastole) of the arterial tree that normally occurs during cardiac cycle
This saves heart work

85
Q

As we age artery distensibility decreases, what does this do for hydraulic filtering

A

it makes it less efficient causing more work on the heart

86
Q

True or false; systolic BP is at maximum pressure in systemic arteries

A

true; pressure peaks as blood is ejected from LV into aorta

87
Q

The minimum BP in the systemic arteries occurs when?

A

Diastolic BP

88
Q

What are two factors that contribute to how far the pressure will fall during diastolic BP

A

Cycle length and Total peripheral resistance (TPR)

89
Q

True or false; the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a arithmetical mean between systole and diastole

A

false; MAP = 1/3 pulse pressure + Diastolic BP (approximation)

90
Q

Most post-ganglionic SNS terminals release what? What is the predominate receptor for this hormone? What is the response of smooth muscle?

A

Norepinephrine
Alpha receptors
Smooth muscle constricts (constriction of arterioles reduces blood flow increasing BP, constriction of arteries raise BP, and constriction of veins increases venous return)

91
Q

SNS stimulation increases vasoconstriction and thus decreasing blood flow while increasing BP every where in the body except where?

A

Brian (arterioles weakly innervated with SNS)
Lungs (arterioles weakly innervated with SNS)
and Heart (SNS causes release of local vasodilators (adenosine))

92
Q

True or false; there is a critical arterial pressure in which if falls below arterioles will close completely (bad news bears)

A

true

93
Q

True or false; if cardiac output stops, arterial pressure will fall and venous pressure will rise

A

true

94
Q

In most tissue beds, blow flow is regulated in proportion to what?

A

Local metabolism

95
Q
Consider the resistance in the following tissue beds: 
Coronary = .40 mmHg/ml/min 
brain = .13
liver = .08
Kidneys = .10

What is the total peripheral resistance? (TPR)

Which organ will have the greatest flow?

A
96
Q

In the following vessels the flow rate is identical, which vessel is offering the greatest resistance to flow?

(A) P1= 50 P2=25
(B) P1=70 P2 = 60
(C) P1=80 P2 = 65

A

(A) has the greatest change (delta 25)

97
Q

A broad band doppler reading is indicative of what type of flow? What about narrow?

A

Broad: turbulent
Narrow: Laminar

98
Q

What is the equation to find Flow?

A
F = V x A
(Flow = velocity x area)
99
Q

The vascular compartment with the greatest total cross sectional area is what?

A

Capillaries

100
Q

What vascular compartment has the greatest resistance to flow?

A

arterioles

101
Q

True or false; maximizing total peripheral resistance is characteristic of a parallel circuit

A

false (changing maximize to minimize would make it true)

102
Q

A small change in volume producing a large change in pressure is characteristic of which vascular compartment

A

systemic arteries

103
Q

A large change in volume producing a small change in pressure is characteristic of which vascular compartment

A

systemic veins

104
Q

Acetylcholine binding to the vascular endothelium has what effect?

A

vasodilation by causing NO release

105
Q

What is the effect of SNS on most vascular smooth muscle?

A

vasoconstriction mediated by alpha receptors

106
Q

True or false; beta receptors are associated with vasodilation

A

true

107
Q

True or false; during widespread SNS tissue beds in the lungs would show a great increase in vascular resistance

A

false; same is true of brain and heart

108
Q

As a tissue becomes more active, how is blood flow to that tissue increased?

A

Tissue releases local vasodilators

109
Q

At a given mean circulatory filling pressure what happens to venous return as central venous pressure increases?

A

decreases

Equilibrium pressure - arteriole pressure=venous pressure

110
Q

If cardiac output is stopped, arterial pressure will be expected to fall until it equals what?

A

critical closing pressure

111
Q

True or false; mean circulatory pressure is associated with shunts

A

true

112
Q

In a healthy young adult what can be said about tissue flow during diastole

A

maintained by recoil of the arteries (this diminishes as we age)

113
Q

If you see a patient who’s flow has doubled but their O2 uptake has fallen by half what would you be expect?

A

Due to shunting

114
Q

A functional increase in flow and O2 uptake is associated with what?

A

release of local vasodilators

115
Q

What increases the plasma colloid osmotic effect by about 50%

A

Negative changes on protein attracting and holding positive ions like sodium (Na+)

116
Q

What effect does decreasing velocity have on blood viscosity

A

increases

117
Q

How does fibrinogen decrease blood viscosity

A

Makes RBC’s more flexible

118
Q

The chronic use of anti-inflammatory drugs could be expected to inhibit what?

A

angiogesis (occurs in inflammation)

119
Q

Which brainstem area is tonically active and is associated with a tonic SNS outflow?

A

neurons anterolateral in the upper medulla and pons

120
Q

What part of the brain reflects projection of baro and chemoreceptos

A

Neurons associated with the nucleus tracts solitarius

121
Q

What are neurons anterolateral in the lower medulla associated with

A

depressor

122
Q

What substance is associated with local vasodilation

A

adenosine

123
Q

What high resistance micro vessels control local blood flow by integrating multiple input which determine lumen diameter?

A

arterioles

124
Q

What may act at the level of the CNS in the development hypotension

A

NO

125
Q

True or false; adenosine is an example of a local vasodilatory

A

true

126
Q

In the kidney, how does SNS stimulation, increase angiotensin formation?

A

by stimulation of JG cells to release renin (enzyme that up regulates angiotensin)

127
Q

In response to a fall in systemic arterial BP, what changes would be counterproductive in offsetting that fall?

A

increase in ANP release (promotes water and Na loss which would further lower pressure - want this to increase with rise in pressure)

128
Q

In the face of rising arterial BP, which of the following responses would auto regulate both renal blood flow and glomerular filtration

A

constriction of the afferent arterioles

129
Q

What effect does stimulation of baroreceptors, have on sympathetic outflow

A

decreases

130
Q

During systole, what is happening to baroreceptor activity

A

increasing

131
Q

In the fetus, the ductus arteriosis shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta returning primarily from what vessel

A

superior vena cava

132
Q

True or false; the inferior vena cava bypasses by foramen ovale in fetus

A

true

133
Q

What is the function of the ductus venous in the fetus

A

shunt blood from the umbilical vein into the inferior vena cava (also portal vein)

134
Q

True or false; in fetus the umbilical vein has the highest O2 content

A

true

135
Q

True or false; when the heart receives SNS it causes metabolically induced local increase in blood flow

A

true

136
Q

During exercise, does VO2 and TPR go up or down? What about diastolic BP?

A

VO2 and TPR go up

Diastolic BP could go up, down or stay the same

137
Q

During exercise, most of the increase in cardiac output is due to what?

A

increase in heart rate

138
Q

True or false; as central venous pressure increases cardiac output increases

A

true

139
Q

Where is the vasomotor pressor center in the brain

A

anterolateral portions of upper medulla (NOE projections to IML horn)

Vasoconstrictor

140
Q

Where is the vasomotor depressor center in the brain

A

anterolateral lower medulla

vasodilation

141
Q

Where is the vasomotor sensory area in the brain (baroreceptors)

A

Posterolateral portions of pons and medulla (nucleus solitarius)

Inhibits the pressure center, lowers BP

142
Q

True or false; the cardioinhibitory area of the brain is located medial to the dorsal motor nucleus of vagus

A

true

143
Q

Where does rapid short term control of BP come from? How about long term?

A

Short term- from CNS effecting vascular smooth muscle

Long term- from kidneys (renal fluid balance)

144
Q

True or false; BP is accomplished by either affecting vascular tone or blood volume

A

true

145
Q

Baroreceptors are spray type nerve endings especially abundant where? Do they vasodilate or vasoconstrict?

A

Especially abundant in Carotid sinus and aorta

vasodilatation

146
Q

Where are low pressure baroreceptors located?

A

atrial walls and pulmonary arteries

147
Q

True or false; stretch on atrial walls would signal low pressure baroreceptors- decreasing heart rate in increasing urine production

A

true

148
Q

An increase in atrial pressure will cause what response in kidneys?

A

kidneys excrete excess ECF

149
Q

In regards to the kidneys; what do afferent arterioles supply? What about efferent arterioles?

A

Afferent arterioles- supply glomerular capillaries where filtration takes place

Efferent arterioles- drain the glomerular capillaries and give rise to the peritubular capillaries where reabsorption takes place

Afferent = filtrAtion
Efferent = rEabsorption
150
Q

True or false; most auto regulation of both renal blood flow and glomerular filtration takes place at efferent arterioles

A

false; takes place at afferent (filtration)

151
Q

What is the normal glomerular filtration rate? What about normal rate of renal blood flow

A

Filtration - 100 ml/min

renal - 1.25 L/min (25% cardiac output)

152
Q

Describe how the afferent and efferent arterioles in the kidneys can effect renal blood flow and glomerular reabsorption

A

Stimulation and subsequent constriction of afferent arterioles will cause decrease in both renal blood flow and GFR

While stimulation and subsequent constriction of efferent arterioles will cause a decrease in renal blood flow but an increase in GFR by creating back pressure

153
Q

True or false; kidneys can effect BP by excreting more fluid because when extracellular fluid levels rise, the arterial pressure rises as well

A

true

154
Q

What hormones decrease renal blood flow?

A

NOE
Epinpephrine
Antiotensin II

155
Q

What hormones increase renal blood flow?

A

prostaglandins (E & I)

156
Q

Where is renin released from?

A

JG cells

157
Q

What causes release of renin?

A
SNS
decrease in NaCl delivery to macula dense 
hormone stimulation (thyroid, growth)
158
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the formation of angiotensin I from angiotensin

A

renin

159
Q

Where does the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 take place

A

lungs

160
Q

What are the functions of angiotensin 2

A

stimulate adrenal cortex (aldosterone)
stimulate kidneys
stimulate ADH/vasopressin release

161
Q

If you were to tie off one renal artery what would happen?

A

development of hypertension but no uremia

162
Q

If you were to tie off one renal a. and remove one kidney what would happen?

A

no development of hypertension or uremia

163
Q

If you were to tie off both renal a. and remove both kidneys what would happen?

A

hypertension and uremia

164
Q

Hypertension generated by tying off a renal a. is called what?

A

“goldblatt hypertensive model”

165
Q

Resting oxygen saturation, decrease chemoreflex activation, decrease sympathetic activity are all benefits of what?

A

slow breathing

166
Q

How can antioxidants helper keep BP low?

A

NO from the endothelium relaxes smooth muscle reducting BP

But free radicals can rapidly deactivate NO

So increasing antioxidants to take out free radicals can keep NO around

167
Q

Vitamins ACE, melatonin, lycopene, selenium, glutathione, superoxide dismutase are all examples of what?

A

antioxidants

168
Q

True or false; in fetus pulmonary blood flow is minimal

A

true; the placenta does the fetal gas exchange

169
Q

Umbilical arteries that supply the placenta are branches off of what in the mother

A

anterior iliac a.

170
Q

Blood from placenta reaches fetus via what/

A

umbilical v.

171
Q

Which fetal shunts allow blood to bypass the lungs?

A

ductus arteriosis and foramen ovale

172
Q

What fetal shunt allows umbilical and portal blood to bypass the liver

A

ductus venosus

173
Q

What has the highest Oxygen concentration in fetal circulation

A

umbilical v.

174
Q

True or false; upon birth the shunts foramen ovale, ductus arteriosis, and ductus venosus all shut

A

true

175
Q

In the fetus what shunts most blood returning to the heart from the IVC to the left atrium

A

foramen ovale

176
Q

In fetus, what shunts most blood returning to the heart from the superior vena cava to aorta

A

Ductus arteriosus

177
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus
Ventricular septal defect
transposition of great vessels
and tetrology fallot are all examples of what?

A

Possible congenital defects of fetal cardiac system

178
Q

Right Ventricular hypertrophy, large ventricular septal defect, and right ventricular outflow obstruction are signs of what?

A

Tetrology of fallot

causes Cyanosis (blue coloring of skin) and Dyspnea (breathing difficulty)

179
Q

What is the greatest stress on the cardiovascular system and can increase cardiac output 5 to 6 fold?

A

exercise

180
Q

True or false; during exercise TPR decreases because of vasodilation in active muscle

A

true

181
Q

True or false; during exercise SNS causes increased venous return, decreased blood flow to organs, increased blood flow to skeletal muscle and increased smooth muscle tone to maintain higher BP

A

true

182
Q

What tissues escape SNS vasoconstriction

A

Brain
Heart
Lungs

183
Q

How does SNS during exercise increase venous return

A

constriction of veins (primarily occurs in lower extremity)

184
Q

True or false; increased blood flow to active muscle is mediated by SNS during exercise

A

false; it is mediated by local release of local vasodilators

185
Q

What is the average blood flow during rest in L/min? What about during exercise

A

Rest- 5.9 L/min

Exercise- 24L/min

186
Q

What is VO2 max? What can it range from?

A

It is the maximum amount of oxygen that one can take up from the lungs to deliver to tissues

Ranges from 1.5L/min (sick patient) to 3.0 L/min (avg. joe) to 6.0 L/min (Billy bad ass)

187
Q

When can O2 debt happen? What is extra O2 used for?

A

happens when energy demands cannot be met by oxidative phosphorylation

used to restore metabolite levels (creatine phosphate, ATP)
Metabolize lactate generated by glycolysis