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Pathology 1 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Is hyperemia an active or passive processes that results from arteriolar dilation and increased blood flow

A

active process

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2
Q

What is a passive process resulting from impaired outflow of venous blood from a tissue

A

congestion

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3
Q

What involves the morphemic appearance associated with chronic passive congestion

A

nutmeg liver

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4
Q

True or false; edema is the result of an increase in hydrostatic pressure of diminished colloid osmotic pressure

A

true

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5
Q

Reduced cardiac output lead to hypo perfusion of the kidneys which stimulates retention of what ion

A

sodium

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6
Q

Peau d’orange is associated with which what?

A

Lymphatic obstruction

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7
Q

Dependent edema is most pronounced in what region of an individual

A

sacral region

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8
Q

Low platelet counts in the blood (thrombocytopenia) or vitamin C deficiency commonly causes the development of what

A

Petechiae (small red spots)

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9
Q

Activated thrombin stimulates the formation of an insoluble

A

fibrin clot

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10
Q

True or false; hematoma is likely to cause iron deficiency anemia

A

false

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11
Q

Platelets come into contact with von willebrand factor (vWF) following what?

A

endothelial injury

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12
Q

What converts fibrinogen into fibrin during the coagulation cascade

A

thrombin

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13
Q

Endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow, hyper coagulability all the 3 parts of what

A

Virchow’s triad

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14
Q

A mutation of ___________ deactivates an important anti-thrombotic mechanism and predisposes individuals with this mutation to excessive thrombus formation

A

Factor V

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15
Q

Late stage metastatic neoplasia and smoking are examples of what

A

secondary hyper coagulability

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16
Q

True or false; mutations are associated with primary hyper coagulability

A

true

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17
Q

What is the most common location for the development of venous thrombi

A

lower extremity (femoral vein in thigh)

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18
Q

Thrombi on the valves of the heart are termed

A

Valvunar vegetations

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19
Q

True or false; arterial thrombi are most common at the site of turbulence, and venous thrombi are most common at the site of stasis

A

true

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20
Q

Approximately how much of deep vein thromboses (DVT) are asymptomatic

A

50%

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21
Q

What is the most common cause of perinatal material death in the US

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

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22
Q

Most systemic emboli arise within the what

A

heart

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23
Q

What activités is most likely to be associated with the development of an air embolism

A

suba diving

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24
Q

True or false; the presence, or absence, of an alternative blood supply is the most important factor in determining whether occlusion of an individual vessel will cause tissue infarction

A

true

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25
Q

What is the most common cause of death in intensive care units

A

cardiogenic shock

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26
Q

What two kinds of shock cause cool, clammy, cyanotic skin

A 
hypovolemic shock
cardiogenic shock (most common cause of death in ICU)
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27
Q

True or false; cutaneous vasoconstriction causes skin coolness and pallor during the non-progessive stage of shock, because reflex compensatory mechanisms are still working

A

true

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28
Q

True or false; most young individuals who suffer from hypovolemic shock will survive

A

true

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29
Q

True or false; injurious immune reactions are grouped under hypersensitivity reaction, and involve inappropriately targeted or inadequately controlled immune response

A

true

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30
Q

Approximately how much of the population is allergic to common environmental antigens (pollen, animal dander, or dust mites)

A

20%

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31
Q

An immediate hypersensitivity reaction that involves damage to the host’s tissue following exposure to a harmless environmental antigen is categorized as what kind of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type 1

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32
Q

The late-phase reaction associated with a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction most commonly develops how long after initial exposure

A

2-8 hours

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33
Q

True or false; type 1 hypersensitivity reactions manifest with local systemic reactions and have a strong familial predisposition to development

A

true

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34
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction involves antibody-mediated opsonizatoin of RBC

A

Type 2

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35
Q

Antigen-antibody (immune) complexes are associated with…

A

Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions

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36
Q

True or false; small amounts of immune complex formation commonly cause type 3 hypersensitivity reactions

A

true

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37
Q

The immediate reaction associated with a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction most commonly develops how long after initial exposure

A

30 minutes

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38
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions commonly involve what 3 tissues

A

Joints, blood vessels, kidneys

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39
Q

Contact dermatitis is an example of what kind of hypersensitivity reaction involves sensitization of TH1 CD4+ cells within dermal tissues

A

Type 4

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40
Q

What is commonly referred to as “delayed-type” hypersensitivity because the reaction develops in response to an antigen approximately 12-48 hours following exposure

A

Type 4

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41
Q

Autoimmune diseases affect what percentage of individuals within developed countries

A

3%

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42
Q

True or false; most individuals are tolerant to their own antigens and develop autoimmunity

A

true

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43
Q

True or false; central tolerance involves apoptosis of T cells and B cells within the thymus and bone marrow respectively

A

true

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44
Q

True of false; the pathoetiology of most autoimmune diseases is well understood

A

false

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45
Q

Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) alleles are associated with the _______ association of autoimmune conditions

A

genetic

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46
Q

UV radiation exacerbates the cutaneous lesions associated with Systematic lupus erythrematosus (SLE). This is commonly called what?

A

Photosensitivity

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47
Q

Anti-nuclear antibodies are __________ for the presence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

highly sensitive

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48
Q

The most common cause of death among individuals with systemic lupus is

A

renal failure

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49
Q

Libman-sacks endocarditis is associated with

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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50
Q

What condition is associated with destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands

A

Sjogen syndrome (“dry mouth, dry eyes”)

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51
Q

Anti-nuclear antibodies and dermoepidermal IgG antibodies are associated with

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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52
Q

What individuals are most likely to develop Sjogren syndrome (“dry mouth, dry eyes”)

A

35-45 year old females

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53
Q

Systemic sclerosis is most likely to involve

A

Cutaneous tissue

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54
Q

True or false; severe combined immunodeficiency is a cause of secondary immune deficiency

A

false; it is part of primary immune deficiency

55
Q

True of false; individuals with defects in phagocytic cells typically suffer from recurrent pyogenic bacterial infections, while those with defects in cell-mediated immunity are prone to viral and fungal infections

A

true

56
Q

Most primary (congenital) immune deficiencies become clinically evident by what age

A

6-24 months

57
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia is most likely to affect which gender

A

boys

58
Q

What forms of primary immune deficiency rsults in a lack of ability to produce IgG, IgA, and IgE isotypes

A

Hyper-IgM syndrome

59
Q

What is the most common among Native Americans and disrupts both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency

60
Q

What is more common; acquired immunodeficiency syndrome or therapy-induced immunosuppression

A

therapy-induced immunosuppression

61
Q

The largest group of individuals infected by AIDS in Africa are

A

Women infected by male sexual partners

62
Q

True or false; human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be transmitted via breast milk and semen

A

true

63
Q

What are the two major targets of HIV

A

Immune system, CNS

64
Q

Viruses characteristically migrate where during the transition into the chronic (latent) phase of HIV

A

Lymph nodes

65
Q

What is the hallmark sign of AIDS

A

Marked reduction of CD4+ and T cells

66
Q

HIV is most likely to be transmitted to the CNS via infected….

A

Monocytes

67
Q

True or false; virtually all (>95%) of all patients infected with HIV will develop a sore throat, myalgia, fever, and rash within 3 to 6 weeks after initial infection

A

False

68
Q

True or false; between 50-70% of all patients infected with HIV will develop a sore throat, myalgia, fever, and rash within 3 to 6 weeks after initial infection

A

true

69
Q

What is a common fungal infection of the lungs among individuals in the crisis phase of AIDS

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

70
Q

The brain is the most common extra nodal site of B cell lymphoma development among individuals with late-stage HIV infection, and nearly 100% of such neoplasms are associated with….

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

71
Q

What is associated with extracellular deposits of fibrillar proteins

A

Amyloidosis

72
Q

Which type of amyloid protein is most likely to be associated with long standing (chronic) inflammation

A

Amyloid-Associated (AA)

73
Q

The presence of M protein spikes and Bence-jones proteins (a type of AL proteins) in the urine are features of which condition

A

Multiple myeloma

74
Q

Restrictive cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with what condition

A

Amyloidosis

75
Q

Macroglassia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly are most likely to be associated with

A

Amyloidosis

76
Q

True or false; cancer is the leading cause of death in the US

A

false; congestive heart failure is

77
Q

True or false; genetic alterations associated with neoplasia are passed to daughter cells upon cell division

A

true

78
Q

DNA methylation and histone modifications are associated with

A

epigenetics

79
Q

All tumors are….

A

clonal

80
Q

What has the greatest impact on the biological behavior of a neoplasm

A

parenchyma

81
Q

True or false; anaerobic glycolysis is a hallmark of cancer development

A

false

82
Q

What refers to a benign neoplasm derived from glandular tissue

A

adenoma

83
Q

What is a benign tumor which resembles the tissue of it’s origin

A

Hamartoma

84
Q

What is a mixed tumor that contains cells from 3 embryonic germ cell layers

A

teratoma

85
Q

True or false; benign tumors are more likely to be anapestic and malignant tumors are well-differeniated

A

false

86
Q

True or false; in general benign tumors contain fewer mutations than cancers

A

true

87
Q

A lipoma is a malignant tumor of mature fat cells

A

false

88
Q

A loss or reduction of cellular differentiation is termed..

A

anaplasia

89
Q

True or false; poorly differentiated tumors grow more rapidly than do well-differentiated tumors

A

true

90
Q

What is most likely to have a fibrous capsule

A

benign neoplasm

91
Q

What unequivocally identifies a tumor as being malignant

A

metastasis

92
Q

What 2 anatomic regions are most frequently involved sites of cancer metastasis

A

lung, liver

93
Q

Tumors of what region are the most common cause of cancer related deaths in women

A

lungs

94
Q

The highest incidence of cancerous tumors in women occur where?

A

Breast (not most deadly though, lung is)

95
Q

True or false; environmental factors are the predominant cause of the most common sporadic cancers

A

true

96
Q

Reduced immune competence and _________ are thought to contribute to the increased frequency of cancer as we age

A

somatic mutations

97
Q

Most cancer-related deaths occur between what ages

A

55-75 years

98
Q

A 34 year old female does not have a BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutation, but still developed breast cancer; this cancer is categorized how

A

familial cancer of uncertain inheritance

99
Q

True or false; while preneoplastic lesions increase the likelihood of malignancy, most do not progress into cancer

A

true

100
Q

What is an autosomal recessive syndrome of defective DNA repair

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

101
Q

Tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) prevent uncontrolled growth and loss of function mutations in TSGs, typically require a loss of how many normal alleles

A

2

102
Q

Oncogenes require a loss of how many normal alleles to cause cancer

A

1

103
Q

What is a normal gene that has a high potential to cause cancer when mutated, such as a gene that regulates apoptosis

A

Proto-oncogene

104
Q

Oncogenic mutations are ________ because the mutations of a single allele can lead to phenotypic change

A

Dominant

105
Q

True or false; genes that regulate noncoding DNA is likely to be involved with oncogenesis

A

false

106
Q

Over 90% of all cases of chronic myelongenous leukemia involve an _________ of chromosomes 9 and 22 which is referred to as Philadelphia chromosome

A

balanced translocation

107
Q

An abnormal number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of organism’s haploid is termed

A

aneuploidy

108
Q

What refers to a reversible, heritable change in gene expression that occurs without mutation

A

epigenetic modification

109
Q

What involves DNA methylation and histone modifications to cause changes in gene expression

A

epigenetics

110
Q

MicroRNA _______ gene expression and may be increased or reduced in their function

A

inhibit

111
Q

True or false; epigenetic medications may not alter cellular appearance and function (phenotype) but mutations can

A

false

112
Q

True or false; over time, tumors become more aggressive and less responsive to therapy

A

true

113
Q

True or false; cancer cells may develop self-sufficiency by acquiring the ability to synthesize the same growth factor to which they are responsive

A

true

114
Q

What is the rate-limiting step in the cell cycle that is commonly referred to as a restriction point

A

G1-S phase

115
Q

The activation of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (CDKI) proteins will ______ cell cycle

A

slow down

116
Q

True or false; all cancers have genetic mutations that disable the G1-S phase checkpoint of the cell cycle

A

true

117
Q

True or false; inactivation of the RB gene requires alterations of both of the normal RB gene alleles

A

true

118
Q

True or false; human papillomavirus may encode proteins that bind to RB proteins and render them nonfunctional

A

true

119
Q

The TP53 gene is an example of an

A

tumor suppressor gene

120
Q

If DNA is damage is detected, the products of the TP53 gene stimulates cellular arrest in which phase of the cell cycle

A

G1

121
Q

What is a common example of a virus that can nullify the protective function of the TP53 gene

A

Hepatitis B or Epstein-Barr virus

122
Q

True or false; the extrinsic (death receptor) pathway involves the activation of caspase-8 to initiate apoptosis

A

true

123
Q

Many tumors metastasize to the organ that presents the first _____ they encounter after entering circulation

A

capillary bed

124
Q

True or false; cancer cells rarely (<50%) reactivate telomerase to avoid shortening of telomeres

A

false

125
Q

In order to grow beyond _______ in diameter, tumor cells must stimulate angiogenesis

A

1-2 mm

126
Q

What is the “glue” that holds epithelial cells together, which must be inactivated to initiate migration of a tumor cell

A

E-cadherin

127
Q

True or false; once in circulation, aggregated tumor cells may be adored protection from anti-tumor host cells

A

true

128
Q

Microsatellite instability (MSI) is associated with what

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

129
Q

Patients with xeroderma pigmentosum have an inherited defect in which DNA system

A

Nucleotide excision repair

130
Q

When cancer cells transition to aerobic glycolysis, the phenomenon is called the

A

Warburg effect

131
Q

Patients with chronic gastrointestinal inflammation have an ________ rise of developing cancer

A

increased

132
Q

Which death pathway turns on capsase 9

A

Intrinsic pathway

133
Q

True or false; both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway stimulate capsases

A

True (extrinsic- capsase 8 and intrinsic- capsase 9)

Pathology 1 (3 decks)

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