Exam 2- 2024 Flashcards

1
Q

Kid is taking several drugs. Routine drug monitoring reveals a drop in platelet levels from 320k to 160k. What med is most likely to contribute to dose related thrombocytopenia?

A

Valproic acid (Depakote)

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2
Q

Which of the following anti-epileptic medications is considered a controlled substance?

A

Phenobarbital (Luminal)

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3
Q

Antiepileptic medication known to cause significant amount of congnitive impairment and risk of nephrolithiasis if patient is not adequately hydrated?

A

topiramate (topamax)

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4
Q

Pt treated for focal seizures with dyscognitive features & 2nd generalization with carbamezapine. Pt is stable after 2 weeks with no seizures but seizures increase in frequency after 4 weeks of carbamezapine use. Drug level is at 5.6mg/L. What is explanation?

A

Autoinduction by carrbamezapine

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5
Q

Which of the following is a RAPID acting insulin?

A

Insulin Lispro

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6
Q

Rapid acting insulins?

A
  1. Lispro
  2. Aspart
  3. Glulisine

(LAG)

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7
Q

42 yo female has T2DM and takes the following meds
- canagliflozin
- metformin
- insuline glargine
- dulaglutide
- atorvastatin
- lisinopril
- hydrochlorothiazide
- metoprolol xl

She has history of heart failure. Which of these drugs is preferred in patients with HF?

A

Canagliflozin

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8
Q

10 year old female with type 1DM. What diabetes treatments would you expect her to use?

A

Basal-Bolus Insulin

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9
Q

Basal insulin injection total per day?

A

4

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10
Q

Which of the following oral anti-diabetic agents is most likely to cause hypoglycemia?

A

Glyburide

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11
Q

Laboratory diagnostic tests for DM:

A
  1. HgbA1c
  2. Oral glucose tolerance test
  3. Fasting plasma glucose
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12
Q

What is the primary mechanisms of action of canaglafozin?

A

Blocks the sodium glucose cotransporter-2 in the proximal tubule to inhibit glucose reabsoprtion

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13
Q

Which of the following insulin types are listed from the shortest acting to the longest acting?

A
  1. Humulin R
  2. NPH
  3. Insulin degludec
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14
Q

Short acting insulin:

A

Humulin R & Novolin R

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15
Q

Intermediate acting insulin also known as:

A

NPH

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16
Q

List two intermediate acting insulins:

A

Humulin N & Novoloin N

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17
Q

Long acting insulins:

A

Glargine,
Detemir
Toujeou

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18
Q

Which of the following is a macrovascular complication of DM?

A

Atherosclerotic coronary artery disease

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19
Q

Macrovascular DM:

A
  • Brain
  • Heart
  • Extremities (PVD)
20
Q

Microvascular DM:

A
  • Eyes
  • Kidneys
  • Nerves
  • Gums
21
Q

Which of the following statements is true related to the increased prevalence of xerostomia in patients with DM?

A
  1. Decreased production of saliva is caused by complications of DM
  2. Medications used to treat DM cause dry mouth as side effect
22
Q

What is the main difference between T1 and T2 DM?

A

Type 1 DM is caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells resulting in insulin deficiency

Type 2 DM is caused by insulin resistance

23
Q

Hypoglycemia should be treated when glucose is:

A

Less than 70mg per deciliter

24
Q

Patient undergoing surgery. Has well controlled DM, and is instructed to not eat past midnight. Which DM medication should he not take the morning of his surgery.

A

Insulin Lispro (Rapid-acting)

25
Q

Calcium and vitamin D supplement is recommended for patients taking which antiepilcecptic meds?

A

Valproic acid (Depakote)

26
Q

The following statements for basal-bolus insulin regimens are true except:

A

Basal-bolis regimens involve use of only one type of insulin

27
Q

What is the primary mechanisms of action for exenatide?

A

stimulates GLP-1 receptors to increase insulin secretion, decrease glucagon secretion, and slow gastric emptying

28
Q

65yomale with history of type 2DM who presents to dental office for cleaning. Has hypoglycemic symptoms. What should you have him do with a blood glucose of 64?

A

drink 4 oz of juice

29
Q

Dulaglutide is recommended for patients with DM who also have additional goals for:

A
  • reducing risk of CKD
  • reducing risk of atherosclerotic cardiovascular diseases and associated risk factors
  • weight loss
30
Q

Which adverse affect is commonly associated with metformin?

A

Nausea & loose stools

31
Q

Which medication stimulates beta cells in the pancreas causing increased insulin secretion?

32
Q

What medications masks the usual signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A

Metoprolol XL

33
Q

Patient taking Oxcarbazepine are at risk for inducing subsequent seizures due to a condition called:

34
Q

Which of the following sets of lab orders would be most appropriate when conducting therapeutic drug monitoring for valproic acid?

A

Liver function test & platelet test

35
Q

What is Levetiracetam (Keppra) used for?

A

Mood changes

36
Q

Patient taking Amitriptyline with Percocet (Oxycodone) can exhibit which of the following?

A

Oversedation

37
Q

Patient with SULFA allergy, which anti-epileptic drug should be avoided:

A

Zonisamide (Zonegran)

38
Q

What type of seizure occur when a patient zones out for 10 seconds and regains consciousness immediately after?

39
Q

Patient presents to ER with the following symptoms: diaphoresis, hyperflexia, low grade fever and tremors. Patient reports he took a Tranylcypromine (Parnate) + tramadol (Ultram). What is likely adverse drug reaction?

A

Serotonin syndrome

40
Q

Tripeptide mechanism of action:

A

GLP-1 agonist and GIP

41
Q

MOA of exenetide:

A

Stimulates GLP-1 receptors in the pancreas to increases insulin secretion, decrease glucagon secretion and slow gastric emptying

42
Q

Additional benefit with diabetes drugs?

A

weightloss

43
Q

Can cause hypoglycemia as a mono treatment for DM type 2:

44
Q

Vasoconstriction for local anesthesia. What concern does it have for people with diabetes?

A

HYPERglycemia stimulates hepatic glucose production in the liver

45
Q

What lab test should be done for a patient on Keppra?

A

Renal function test

(Keppra = KIDNEYS)

46
Q

What is the risk associated with consumption of foods containing high levels of tyarimine with phenelzine (Nardil)

A

Hypertensive crisis