Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

chickens are a prey species. what characteristics of their reproduction do they have to support their life as a prey species?

A
  • need ability to still fly
  • many offspring requiring little care
  • all nutrients in the egg
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2
Q

why would laying eggs help a chickens ability to fly?

A

the weight of the chick does not weigh the chicken down

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3
Q

precocial

A

born self sufficient (they are able to care for themselves)

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4
Q

altricial

A

born helpless (think naked baby birds screaming for their mother)

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5
Q

clutch

A

number of eggs laid in succession (how many days in a row the bird lays an egg)

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6
Q

different poultry _______ will vary on clutch length, for example the road island red has a very long clutch ranging up to about 15 days

A

breed

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7
Q

a prey species will want to produce a lot of offspring because they expect about ___% of the chicks will die (whether in production or with the hen herself)

A

1 %

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8
Q

two parts of the female reproductive tract

A
  • ovary
  • oviduct
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9
Q

hens are born with 2 ovaries and oviducts but only 1 will develop as they sexually mature, typically the _____ side will develop

A

left

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10
Q

is it possible for the right ovary and oviduct to develop?

A

yes! there are some cases where the left side is damaged so the right side develops instead

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11
Q

the purpose of the ovary is to develop _________

A

oocytes

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12
Q

T or F: the ovary is formed at birth, meaning that it has to mature with the bird

A

true

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13
Q

what is the stigma?

A

lack of vasculature on the yolk, where the follicle will burst through in ovulation

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14
Q

what are these arrows pointing to?

A

the stigma

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15
Q

infundibulum

A

the muscular structure that catches and guides the released eggs to the oviduct, also the site of fertilization

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16
Q

magnum

A

the largest portion of the oviduct, the thick albumin is deposited here

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17
Q

isthmus

A

the inner and outer shell membrane are formed

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18
Q

shell gland / uterus

A

makes the shell

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19
Q

to form the shell the body uses ____% of calcium from body stores and over ____ of the calcium from the diet

A

8-10%; half

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20
Q

vagina

A

where the bloom / cuticle is applied

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21
Q

bloom / cuticle

A

the covering of the shell (waxy/oily) that protects it from environmental contaminants

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22
Q

an egg can be left out for _____ days IF it has the bloom/cuticle still on it

A

10-15 days

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23
Q

sperm host glands

A

stores sperm

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24
Q

what is the purpose of the sperm host glands?

A

the bird can store sperm for a long period of time, so they do not have to mate as often which is important as a prey species

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25
Q

how are birds eggs fertilized using the sperm host glands?

A

pushing the egg out will release sperm and it will then travel towards the infundibulum to fertilize the egg

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26
Q

be able to label the female reproductive tract!

A
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27
Q

how long is the infundibulum? how much time does the formation of the egg take there?

A
  • 3-4 inches
  • 15-16 minutes
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28
Q

how long is the magnum? how much time does the formation of the egg take there?

A
  • 13 inches
  • 3 hours
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29
Q

which area of the female reproductive tract does the egg spend a majority of its time developing?

A

shell gland / uterus

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30
Q

how long is the isthmus? how much time does the formation of the egg take there?

A
  • 4 inches
  • 75 minutes
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31
Q

how long is the shell gland / uterus? how much time does the formation of the egg take there?

A
  • 4-5 inches
  • 20 hours
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32
Q

how long is the vagina?

A

4-5 inches

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33
Q

what are the parts on the male reproductive tract?

A
  • testes
  • vas deferens
  • cloaca
  • vent
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34
Q

in the bird the testes are _______, located near the kidneys. this is different than most species.

A

internally (inside the body cavity)

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35
Q

vas deferens

A

carry the sperm from the testes to outside of the body

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36
Q

capoization

A

castration of the male bird

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37
Q

when should a bird be castrated? why?

A

it should be done when they are very young because the testes will grow closer to the kidneys as they age, the procedure becomes more dangerous

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38
Q

a capon grows at a _______ rate than a rooster producing a softer and moister product

A

slower

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39
Q

be able to label the male reproductive tract

A
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40
Q

due to photosensitivity in poultry they are _____-day breeders

A

long-day breeders (>12 hours of light)

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41
Q

HPG axis

A

hypothyroid pituitary gonaditary axis

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42
Q

what is the significance of the HPG axis in poultry?

A

these parts in the hypothyroid pituitary gonaditary axis work together as a crucial neuroendocrine system regulating reproductive functions, including egg production and fertility, by coordinating the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and gonads through hormone signaling

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43
Q

when does change in gonadal size occur?

A

the gonads will get larger as the birds get older but they ALSO can get larger during the breeding season

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44
Q

when is the typical breeding season for poultry?

A

summer! (long days, more light)

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45
Q

why is the thyroid hormone also important to photosensitivity in poultry?

A

it regulates the seasonal component in reproduction, effects GnRH levels

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46
Q

for fertilization, which species/industry uses artificial insemination?

A

turkeys

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47
Q

for fertilization, which species/industry often uses natural insemination?

A

chickens

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48
Q

what time are turkeys artificially inseminated? why?

A

after 3pm so that the sperm is ready to be utilized with the egg is laid

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49
Q

T or F: it is common to freeze poultry semen

A

FALSE, we use a fresh seme dose, poultry semen does well for about 30 minutes in room temperature and extender can make it last 24 hours, there is not a really great way to freeze the semen

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50
Q

what effects fertility in birds?

A
  • mating frequency
  • age
  • diet and body weight
  • environment (temperature)
  • semen handling and processing
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51
Q

what is milking in context of poultry reproduction?

A

collecting sperm in male birds

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52
Q

why do turkeys struggle to naturally mate?

A

breast size, sharp nails, more aggressive, etc.

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53
Q

poultry has a __________ curve of fertility

A

parabolic (not very fertile when they are young and not very fertile when they are old)

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54
Q

roosters can have ________ meaning that they want to breed some hens more than others

A

favoritism

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55
Q

what does a mating “dance” look like in birds?

A

the male will drop one wing and walk around the hen, then the hen will squat and the rooster will sit on her back, then they will have cloaca contact

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56
Q

T or F: when poultry mate, they touch vents

A

FALSE, they are NOT vent to vent, they are cloaca to cloaca (often called the cloacal kiss)

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57
Q

_______ size is often indicative of testes size

A

comb (the larger the comb, the larger the testes)

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58
Q

when is the most mating done for poultry?

A

most mating down during daylight

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59
Q

why is the physical condition of the birds important to mating behavior? how are body weight, breast size, feet, and legs important?

A

if they weigh too much or their breasts are too big they can have difficulty mating. if they’re legs and feet are not strong enough to move and support their weight they may not be able to mate.

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60
Q

pecking order

A

a social structure where individuals establish a hierarchy within a flock, with dominant birds having priority access to resources and mates

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61
Q

for every 10 hens there should be ____ rooster to ensure all are able to be bred

A

1

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62
Q

why do we rotate the eggs side to side during incubation?

A

to ensure that the chick doesn’t stick to one side, important to development

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63
Q

chalaza

A

a spiral structured tissue within the egg that anchors the yolk/chick in the center of the egg

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64
Q

germinal disc / blastoderm

A

where the chick develops from

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65
Q

vitelline membrane

A

a semipermeable membrane that surrounds the yolk of an egg and separates it from the egg white. helps protect the yolk

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66
Q

the ______ is the primary source of nutrients as the chick is developing

A

yolk

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67
Q

be able to label the eggs anatomy

A
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68
Q

which direction is the egg laid? which way is the egg incubated?

A

Eggs are typically laid with the blunt (larger) end first, and for incubation, eggs are often placed with the pointed (smaller) end down to make the air cell on the top

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69
Q

how long does it take for a chick to fully develop in the egg?

A

21 days

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70
Q

phase 1 of embryonic development

A

occurs in the hen, chalaza holds the blastoderm, there is division and growth of cells (isthmus has 2-4 cell, uterus has 16 cell stage), gastrulation occurs

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71
Q

gastrulation

A

segregation of cells for specialized functions

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72
Q

what is the purpose of egg breakout?

A

opening the egg up at different stages of development

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73
Q

what is a good sign that the germ cells begin the differentiate in the egg?

A

primitive streak (crevace)

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74
Q

T or F: we can store the eggs and cause developmental pauses

A

true

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75
Q

eggs are stored at _______ degrees and _______% humidity

A

55-67 degrees and 75-80% humidity

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76
Q

> _____ days decrease hatchability

A

14

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77
Q

what is physiological zero?

A

the temperature below which embryonic development is arrested, meaning embryonic cell activity is greatly reduced but reversible, and development restarts when temperatures rise above this point

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78
Q

the longer that we store eggs the ________ the temperature should be

A

lower

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79
Q

SPIDES

A

Short Period Incubation During Egg Storage

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80
Q

what are the three major benefits of using the SPIDES method?

A
  • increase hatchability in eggs
  • increase chick quality
  • decrease hatch window
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81
Q

what is the purpose of decreasing the hatch window?

A

birds hatch close to the same time, we want this to occur because we are moving these birds at the same time so we want to pull everyone at the same time

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82
Q

what is SPIDES?

A

SPIDES, or Short Periods of Incubation During Egg Storage, is a hatchery practice that involves briefly warming eggs to a specific temperature (between 35°C and 37.8°C) before cooling them, repeated weekly, to improve hatchability, especially when eggs are stored for longer periods

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83
Q

during embryonic development, we want the air cell facing ____

A

up

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84
Q

what are the extra embryonic membranes?

A
  • amnion
  • yolk sac
  • allantois
  • chorion
  • air cell
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85
Q

what is the purpose of the amnion?

A

prevent dehydration

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86
Q

what is the purpose of the air cell?

A

provides air for the chick (also some gas exchange across the cell)

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87
Q

day 1 of embryonic development

A
  • alimentary tract
  • vertebral column
  • nervous system
  • head
  • eye
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88
Q

day 2 of embryonic development

A
  • beginning of heart
  • ear formation
  • heartbeat
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89
Q

day 3 of embryonic development

A
  • nose
  • wings
  • legs
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90
Q

within ____ hours the chick looks like a microscopic chicken

A

16

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91
Q

day 4 of embryonic development

A

tongue

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92
Q

day 5 of embryonic development

A

reproductive organs and sex differentiation

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93
Q

day 6 of embryonic development

A

beak forming

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94
Q

week 2 of embryonic development

A
  • day 8 = feathers
  • day 10 = hardening of beak
  • day 13 = scales and claws
  • day 4 = positioning for hatching
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95
Q

what is the positioning for hatching?

A

head moves up toward the air cell so they are able to pip out of the cell

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96
Q

week 3 of embryonic development

A
  • day 16 = scales, claws, beak hardening
  • day 17 = beak turns toward air cell
  • day 19 = yolk sac absorption begins
  • day 20 = yolk sac absorbed, embryo fills egg with exception of air cell
  • day 21 = hatch!!
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97
Q

what day should the eggs be moved from the incubator to the hatcher?

A

day 19

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98
Q

_____ causes the chick to hatch

A

stress

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99
Q

chickens take ___ days to develop and hatch

A

21

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100
Q

turkeys and guineas take _____ days to develop and hatch

A

28 days

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101
Q

quail take ___ days to develop and hatch

A

19-24 days

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102
Q

ostrich takes ___ days to develop and hatch

A

42 days

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103
Q

why would chicks and embryos communicate around hatching?

A

they communicate the fate of hatch, so they can hatch together

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104
Q

what happens to eggs that are not hatched on the same day as all of the other chicks?

A

they are euthanized

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105
Q

what does candling mean? what is the purpose?

A

to be able to determine the quality of the egg (check the viability of the chick inside, look for deformities)

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106
Q

T or F: candling is a highly automated process that uses computers to sense if the eggs are viable

A

true!

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107
Q

the incubator is kept at about _______ degrees F and _____% relative humidity

A

98.6 - 100 degrees F; 60%

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108
Q

T or F: it is better to have lower humidity than higher humidity in the incubator because high humidity can give malformations

A

true!

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109
Q

T or F: ventilation is important during incubation to control the amount of CO2 and heat

A

true!

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110
Q

how long are chicks kept in the incubator?

A

18 days

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111
Q

what is the difference between a single stage and multistage incubator?

A
  • single stage means that all the chicks are the same age and go in at the same time
  • multistage has multiple ages of eggs in the incubator at one time, the youngest goes in and pushed down the older eggs keeping them grouped together
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112
Q

why does airflow matter in a multistage incubator?

A

the older, larger birds produce more heat, so we can use this heat to warm the younger birds

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113
Q

when do the eggs get moved into the hatcher?

A

day 19

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114
Q

as the eggs are moved into the hatcher, why are they candled?

A

so ensure there are viable chicks, and remove infertile eggs

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115
Q

in the hatcher the temperature is _____ degrees F with _____% relative humidity

A

98.6-100 degrees F; 65-70%

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116
Q

T or F: in the hatcher the chicks need to be turned

A

FALSE; no turning is needed, the chicks should be developed enough not to stick to anything (air cell needs to be up)

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117
Q

what is in ovo vaccination?

A

in the hatcher, the eggs are vaccinated while still in the egg

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118
Q

why should we pull the basket when most chicks are hatched?

A

to avoid dehydration

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119
Q

what effects hatching time?

A
  • parent flock age
  • storage time
  • egg size
  • hatching conditions
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120
Q
A
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121
Q

small eggs have ___ shells and ____ pores

A

thick; small

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122
Q

large eggs have ____ shells and _____ pores

A

thin; large

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123
Q

pipping

A

when a young bird cracks over the egg when hatching

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124
Q

what is a straight crack vs badly pipped during hatching?

A

we want a straight crack during hatching because that means the chick with strong enough to open the egg, a body pipped shell means that the chick had to work really hard meaning it could be in poor conditions

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125
Q

how to calculate hatchability

A

hatched / set

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126
Q

chick yield

A

chick weight as the percentage of initial egg weight

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127
Q

what effects hatchability and chick yield?

A
  • age of breeders
  • egg size
  • fertility
  • eggshell
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128
Q

what is the separator room?

A

where the chicks are separated from their egg shells, the vacuum sucks in the shells where they are then rendered, unhatched eggs are euthanized

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129
Q

T or F: in the separator room all chicks are inspected by hand

A

true! dead chicks are collected and chicks that may be culled are collected at this time

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130
Q

why would a chick be culled in the separator room?

A
  • unhealed navel
  • poor down
  • nutritional disorders
  • malformations
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131
Q

what physical deformity is caused by a nutritional disorder where the chick is lacking vitamin D?

A

soft bones

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132
Q

what physical sign may a chick show with a nutritional disorder where the chick is lacking vitamin B12?

A

short beak

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133
Q

in the separator room the chicks are counted into groups of _____

A

100

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134
Q

how do spray vaccines work?

A

chicks are sprayed with the vaccine and as they preen themselves they will ingest the vaccine

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135
Q

what occurs at the chick processing table?

A
  • beak trimming
  • toe trimmin
  • vaccination (loose skin neck)
  • split sex
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136
Q

how can you sex chicks?

A

using feather length, females will have longer feathers due to estrogen while males have shorter feathers

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137
Q

which chick is the male? which is the female?

A
  • left = female
  • right = male
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138
Q

when the chicks are traveling to the farm when environmental controls should the truck have?

A

maintain temperature and ventilation

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139
Q

what is a gel pod?

A

used during chick travel, it serves as both moisture and food to keep the chicks hydrated

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140
Q

__________ chicks per day are traveling to farms

A

100,000

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141
Q

what are the three things that make primary breeders different?

A
  • biosecurity
  • genetic selection
  • international trade
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142
Q

what are two major primary breeder companies?

A

Aviagen and Cobb (Tyson)

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143
Q

what is the product development pyramid in poultry production?

A

top
- pedigree
- GGP
- GP
- PS
- broilers
bottom

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144
Q

which sectors of product development are considered to be at the primary breeding level?

A
  • pedigree
  • GGP
  • GP
145
Q

it takes ___ years for genetics changes to be seen by consumers

146
Q

today we look at over ____ different traits for genetic selection criteria

147
Q

how can pedigree companies track individual birds to create statistical models?

A

every pedigree bird can be microchipped and scanned at every life stage

148
Q

why is it important to measure the FCR of the birds over their lifespan?

A

feed costs are 60-70% of total costs of raising birds

149
Q

what does sustainability have to do with poultry production?

A

by improving FCR the chickens need less feed which means there is less acreage for production so less water used etc. As bird performance improves there is a good impact on the environment

150
Q

many of the hatcheries in the US are located in close proximity with _________ so the birds can travel internationally

151
Q

what are important aspects of biosecurity for a primary breeder?

A
  • solid walls, concrete
  • geography
  • litter
  • feed
  • people
  • equipment
  • rodents
  • water
152
Q

T or F: feed mills for primary breeders are shower in and shower out facilities

153
Q

the old fashioned approach was that primary breeders would have multiple barns on the same property with different generations. How has this changed today and why?

A

today there are 2 to 5 house sites that are spaced out, this is so if one barn gets sick it is unlikely to get all of the birds sick causing the company to crash

154
Q

PS

A

parent stock

155
Q

what is a primary breeder?

A

Breeding birds whose offspring are used as breeding birds. These include pedigree (elite/foundation), great-grandparent, and grandparent flocks

156
Q

class

A

geographic area (ex: Mediterranean, English, American)

157
Q

breed

A

within a class

158
Q

variety

A

within a breed, color

159
Q

strain

A

different genetics (ex: Ross 308)

160
Q

nicking

A

a poultry term for hybrid vigor / heterosis

161
Q

different organisms have a different number of chromosomes. chickens have ___ pairs and turkeys have ___ pairs.

162
Q

ZW - male or female?

163
Q

ZZ - male or female?

164
Q

does the male or female determine the sex of the offspring?

A

the female

165
Q

why would the males being homozygous (ZZ) for their sex chromosomes be problematic for the poultry industry?

A

you are unable to sex sort semen

166
Q

what is the name of the wildtype chicken that originated from Southeast Asia?

A

gallus gallus

167
Q

when the gallus gallus were domesticated, what were the breeds that came out of it?

A
  • white leghorn
  • Rhode Island reds
  • white Plymouth rock
  • barred Plymouth Rock
  • New Hampshire
  • cornish
168
Q

what domesticated chicken breed is considered a layer?

A

white leghorn

169
Q

what domesticated chicken breed is considered a meat bird?

170
Q

what domesticated chicken breed is considered a dual purpose bird?

A
  • Rhode Island red
  • white Plymouth rock
  • barred Plymouth rock
  • new Hampshire
171
Q

what breed is used as a broiler sire in commercialization ?

172
Q

what breeds are used as broiler dams in commercialization?

A
  • white Plymouth Rock
  • barred Plymouth rock
  • New Hampshire
173
Q

what breeds are used as brown egg-layer in commercialization?

A
  • Rhode Island red
  • white Plymouth Rock
174
Q

what breed is used as white egg layers in commercialization?

A

white leghorn

175
Q

what is todays commercial broiler? why?

A
  • cornish x white Plymouth Rock
  • cornish is an English breed that has fast growth and muscular
  • white Plymouth rocks are an American breed that are large, have good growth, and can produce eggs
176
Q

who is Cecile Steele?

A

credited with pioneering the poultry industry in 1923. When Steele received an accidental shipment of 500 chicks for egg production instead of 50, she built additional housing and raised the birds, selling them for meat at $0.62 per pound

177
Q

todays commercial layers

A
  • single comb white leghorn
  • single comb Rhode Island reds
178
Q

this commercial chicken breed is used as a layer, Mediterranean (Italy), they are light and small with high egg production and flighty: ______ _______ ________ _________

A

single comb white leghorn

179
Q

this commercial chicken breed is used as a layer, American, dual purpose bird, can be used in cage free systems because they are flightless: _______ _______ _______ _______ _____

A

single comb Rhode Island reds

180
Q

todays commercial turkeys

A
  • broad breasted bronze
  • broad breasted white
181
Q

this turkey breed is a heritage breed that can naturally breed, has slow growth and a lower lifespan: ________ _________ _________

A

broad breasted bronze

182
Q

this turkey breed has been selected to pluck easier and have increased breast size but they are unable to breed naturally: ________ ________ _______

A

broad breasted white

183
Q

colors, patterns and feather types, comb types and skin color are considered _________ inheritance

184
Q

patterns/coloring, feather growth rate, and dwarfism are considered __________ inheritance

A

sex-linked

185
Q

commercially relevant traits (including welfare, breeder qualities, broiler qualities, and processing qualities) are considered __________ traits

186
Q

what are the 4 goals of commercial relevant traits

A
  • welfare
  • breeder quality
  • broiler quality
  • processing quality
187
Q

what is heritability?

A

the likelihood of a trait being passed from parent to offspring

188
Q

______ heritability is <19% and includes reproduction traits

189
Q

________ heritability is 20-39%

190
Q

_______ heritability is >40% and includes growth traits

191
Q

what broiler traits have high heritablility?

A
  • 8 –week broiler weight 45%
  • Total feed consumption 40%
  • Fat deposition 50%
192
Q

what broiler traits have low heritability?

A

breast fleshing 10%

193
Q

what layer traits have high heritablility?

A
  • Adult body weight 55%
  • Egg weight 55%
  • Egg shape 60%
194
Q

what layer traits have low heritablility?

A
  • Fertility 5%
  • Blood spots 15%
195
Q

the heritability for boilers: 8-week broiler weight ___%

196
Q

the heritability for boilers: total feed consumption ___%

197
Q

the heritability for boilers: fat deposition ___%

198
Q

the heritability for boilers: breast fleshing ___%

199
Q

the heritability for layers: adult body weight ____%

200
Q

the heritability for layers: egg weight ___%

201
Q

the heritability for layers: egg shape ____%

202
Q

the heritability for layers: fertility ___%

203
Q

the heritability for layers: blood spots ___%

204
Q

genetics companies in the poultry industry

A
  • AVIAGEN
  • Cobb-Vantress (Tyson)
  • AVIAGEN Turkey
  • Hybrid
  • Hy-Line
205
Q

draw out the pyramid of the poultry industry

206
Q

what are the poultry industries main goals?

A
  • promote welfare, health and productivity
  • preservation of self is most important
207
Q

how to maintain/improve health

A
  • sanitation
  • biosecurity
  • vaccination
  • medication
  • vector control
  • management
208
Q

two types of immune systems

A
  • innate
  • adaptive
209
Q

innate immune systems

A

the body’s first line of defense against pathogens and other harmful substances. It is a non-specific, immediate response that is present at birth and does not require prior exposure to a specific pathogen

210
Q

adaptive immune system

A

a complex and highly specific defense mechanism that protects the body from pathogens and other harmful substances, it is from the body’s memory (like from vaccinations or past illness)

211
Q

macrophages

A

Macrophages present antigens (foreign substances) to T cells, initiating an adaptive immune response. They also secrete cytokines, which regulate inflammation and immune cell activation

212
Q

immune organs

A
  • bursa
  • spleen
  • thymus
  • bone marrow
  • cecal tonsils
  • Peyer’s patches
213
Q

the bursa produces _____ cells for immune response

214
Q

the thymus process ___ cells for immune response

215
Q

these two immune organs are in the GI tract

A
  • cecal tonsils
  • Peyer’s patches
216
Q

innate vs adaptive immunity

A

innate immunity is a rapid, non-specific defense system present from birth, acting as the body’s first line of defense, while adaptive immunity is a slower, specific defense system that develops throughout life, learning to recognize and remember specific pathogen

217
Q

types of vaccinations

A
  • live
  • live attenuated
  • killed
218
Q

what are different routes of administration for vaccinations?

A

oral, injection, ocular (eyes), water, spray fog, in ovo

219
Q

what are good ways to promote bird health?

A
  • BIOSECURITY
  • vaccinations
  • prevent vectors
220
Q

what are vectors?

A

organisms that carry disease and can spread it

221
Q

examples of vectors

A
  • wild birds
  • rodents
  • worms
  • insects (mites, flies, fleas, lice, darkling beetles)
222
Q

worms are transmitted by __________ _____

A

intermediate host

223
Q

rodents are known for spreading __________

A

salmonella

224
Q

what are darkling beetles?

A

they hang out around spilled feed and can carry avian influenza, Newcastle, etc.

225
Q

highly pathogenic diseases

A
  • marek’s
  • Infectious Laryngotracheitis
  • Infectious Bronchitis
  • Newcastle Disease
  • Avian Influenza
  • Infectious Bursal Disease
  • Fowl Pox
226
Q

moderately pathogenic diseases

A
  • coccidiosis
  • necrotic enteritis
227
Q

food safety diseases

A
  • salmonella
  • E.coli
  • campylobacter
228
Q

marek’s is considered a _______________ disease

A

highly pathogenic

229
Q

infectious laryngotracheitis is considered a ______________ disease

A

highly pathogenic

230
Q

infectious bronchitis is considered a ______________ disease

A

highly pathogenic

231
Q

Newcastle disease is considered a ______________ disease

A

highly pathogenic

232
Q

avian influenza is considered a ______________ disease

A

highly pathogenic

233
Q

infectious bursal disease is considered a ______________ disease

A

highly pathogenic

234
Q

fowl pox is considered a ______________ disease

A

highly pathogenic

235
Q

coccidiosis is considered a ______________ disease

A

moderately pathogenic

236
Q

necrotic enteritis is considered a ______________ disease

A

moderately pathogenic

237
Q

salmonella is considered a ______________ disease

A

food safety

238
Q

E. coli is considered a ______________ disease

A

food safety

239
Q

campylobacter is considered a ______________ disease

A

food safety

240
Q

WHAT DISEASE: disease of young chickens that is within the herpes virus group, concentrates in feather follicles, and aerosols. mortality can vary depending on the strain. there is a vaccination for it.

A

Marek’s Disease

241
Q

describe marek’s disease

A

disease of young chickens that is within the herpes virus group, concentrates in feather follicles, and aerosols. mortality can vary depending on the strain. there is a vaccination for it.

242
Q

WHAT DISEASE: it is a viral disease that is highly pathogenic that affects the respiratory system. birds are carriers for life. there is an effective vaccine that can be given as an eye drop, in water or as spray.

A

infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT)

243
Q

describe infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT)

A

it is a viral disease that is highly pathogenic that affects the respiratory system. birds are carriers for life. there is an effective vaccine that can be given as an eye drop, in water or as spray.

244
Q

WHAT DISEASE: an extremely contagious disease that only effects chickens. it is more problematic in the layer industry causing coughing, sneezing, “rales”/rattling, and small eggs with a soft shell and irregular shape

A

infectious bronchitis

245
Q

describe infectious bronchitis

A

an extremely contagious disease that only effects chickens. it is more problematic in the layer industry causing coughing, sneezing, “rales”/rattling, and small eggs with a soft shell and irregular shape

246
Q

what disease would cause eggs that look like this:

A

infectious bronchitis

247
Q

WHAT DISEASE: this disease is a contagious viral infection that is transmitted by contaminated equipment, shoes, clothing, and free-flying birds. it causes respiratory symptoms and then nervous. mortality greatly varies. the most severe strain is not in the US. there is a vaccination for it.

A

Newcastle disease

248
Q

describe Newcastle disease

A

this disease is a contagious viral infection that is transmitted by contaminated equipment, shoes, clothing, and free-flying birds. it causes respiratory symptoms and then nervous. mortality greatly varies. the most severe strain is not in the US. there is a vaccination for it.

249
Q

WHAT DISEASE: a viral disease (Type A) that wild fowl are carriers for and highly contagious. There are various levels of symptoms, one of which is a drop in egg production. it is a zoonotic disease.

A

avian influenza

250
Q

describe avian influenza

A

a viral disease (Type A) that wild fowl are carriers for and highly contagious. There are various levels of symptoms, one of which is a drop in egg production. it is a zoonotic disease.

251
Q

WHAT DISEASE: a highly contagious disease found in young chickens that decreases their immune development. they can get the disease through direct contact transmission and contamination. symptoms include ruffled feathers, slight tremor, strained defecation and when forced to stand have an unsteady gait

A

gumboro (infectious bursal disease)

252
Q

describe gumboro (infectious bursal disease)

A

a highly contagious disease found in young chickens that decreases their immune development. they can get the disease through direct contact transmission and contamination. symptoms include ruffled feathers, slight tremor, strained defecation and when forced to stand have an unsteady gait

253
Q

WHAT DISEASE: a viral disease that infects both chickens and turkeys. transmission occurs via contact with skin abrasions and insects can be vectors. there are two forms, one called cutaneous where lesions are on unfeathered skin and the other is diphtheritic where the lesions on upper GI and respiratory systems. vaccination is the best control.

254
Q

describe fowl pox

A

a viral disease that infects both chickens and turkeys. transmission occurs via contact with skin abrasions and insects can be vectors. there are two forms, one called cutaneous where lesions are on unfeathered skin and the other is diphtheritic where the lesions on upper GI and respiratory systems. vaccination is the best control.

255
Q

cutaneous fowl pox

A

lesions on unfeathered skin

256
Q

diphtheritic fowl pox

A

lesions on upper GI and respiratory systems

257
Q

WHAT DISEASE: a protozoal disease that causes necrotic enteritis and bloody diarrhea. this is transferred by fecal-oral route. there is a vaccination for this disease to anti-coccidial drugs

A

coccidiosis

258
Q

describe coccidiosis

A

a protozoal disease that causes necrotic enteritis and bloody diarrhea. this is transferred by fecal-oral route. there is a vaccination for this disease to anti-coccidial drugs

259
Q

what are common food borne illnesses?

A
  • salmonella
  • E. coli
  • campylobacter (campy)
  • listeria
260
Q

_________ is the #1 cause of food borne deaths

261
Q

what food borne illness in a bacteria that lives in eggs?

A

salmonella

262
Q

what temperature should poultry products be cooked to to prevent food borne illness?

A

165 degrees F

263
Q

what food borne illness is a bacteria that lives in the gut of all species and is opportunistic?

264
Q

what food borne illness is a bacteria that usually doesn’t affect birds?

A

campylobacter (campy)

265
Q

what is genetics?

A

the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity of organisms

266
Q

_________ is vital to organism’s evolution

267
Q

describe the structure of DNA

A
  • deoxyribose nucleic acid
  • written 5’ to 3’
  • double stranded
  • hydrogen bonds
  • linear polymer
  • antiparallel and complementary
268
Q

nucleosome

A

DNA + histone

269
Q

central dogma

A

DNA –> RNA –> protein

270
Q

what is a gene?

A

a unit of hereditary information

271
Q

T or F: one gene = one protein

A

FALSE (there are many due to alternative splicing)

272
Q

what is heredity?

A

the offspring cells or organisms acquire the genetic information of their parents (haploid + haploid = diploid)

273
Q

is a variant of the sequence of nucleotides at a particular location (SNPs, indels)

274
Q

is a specific position on a chromosome where a particular gene or genetic marker is located

275
Q

homozygous

A

same alleles from both parents

276
Q

heterozygous

A

different alleles from both parents

277
Q

an organism’s genetic makeup, specifically the combination of alleles present at a particular locus in the genome

278
Q

observable characteristics of an organism

279
Q

rate of crossover events is proportional to the ___________ between two genes

280
Q

genes on the same chromosome are “_________” and usually inherited together

281
Q

the _____________ allele is expressed over the other

282
Q

the inheritance of a phenotype that is determined by a gene located on one of the sex chromosomes

A

sex-linked inheritance

283
Q

incomplete dominance

A

dominant and recessive traits are mixed (ex: red and white make pink)

284
Q

codominance

A

both traits are expressed together (ex: red + white make a red and white)

285
Q

_________ is the effect of a gene mutation is dependent on the presence or absence of mutations in on or more other genes

A

epistasis

one gene masks or modifies the expression of another, EXAMPLE: albinism, where a mutation in the TYR gene (which codes for tyrosinase, essential for melanin production) prevents pigment production, resulting in pale skin and hair, regardless of other skin color genes.

286
Q

meiosis

A

a cell division of germ cells in sexually-reproducing organisms that produces gametes

287
Q

what results in the genomic variation in offsprings?

A

gene crossover

288
Q

the greater the distance between two genes the higher the chance of _______________

A

recombination

289
Q

_______ _________ is the difference in DNA among individuals or the differences between populations among the same species

A

genetic variation

290
Q

what causes genetic variation?

A

mutation and genetic recombination

291
Q

chromosomes that contain genes that determine the sex of an individual

A

sex chromosomes

292
Q

chromosomes that do not contain genes that determines the sex of an individual

293
Q

chickens have ___ pairs of autosomes and ____ pair of sex chromosomes = ___ chromosomes

A
  • 38 pairs of autosomes
  • 1 pair of sex chromosomes
  • 39 pairs (78) chromosomes
294
Q

chickens have ____ billion base pairs (haploid)

A

1.2 billion

295
Q

what was the first chicken genome reported in 2004?

A

red jungle fowl (an ancient chicken breed)

296
Q

why is genetics important for poultry production? (industry reasons and specific bird effects)

A
  • growth, meat yield, feed efficiency
  • egg quality, egg laying rate
  • health and welfare
  • economic impact
297
Q

why is genetics important for poultry production?

A

understanding poultry phenotype via genetic analysis

298
Q

what are some example of poultry genetics?

A
  • duplex comb (D)
  • No tail
  • Crest (Cr)
  • Creeper (Cr)
299
Q

what is the duplex comb poultry genetics?

A
  • makes different comb shapes
  • autosomal incomplete dominance
300
Q

what is the no tail in poultry genetics?

A

if a deletion occurs the chicken will have no tail

301
Q

what is the crest gene in poultry genetics?

A

determines the feathers on the top of the head including Houdan and Silkie

302
Q

what is the creeper gene in poultry genetics?

A

determines leg length of the bird. heterozygous Cp shows the creeper trait while homozygous Cp is normal.

303
Q

what are the different comb phenotypes in poultry?

A
  • single-combed wild type
  • pea-combed
  • rose combed
  • walnut-combed
304
Q

what is the barring gene in poultry genetics?

A
  • sex-linked barring
  • the feather barring pattern in birds
305
Q

what is the feathering gene in poultry genetics?

A
  • sex-linked barring delayed feathing
  • the reason you can sex chicks because female chicks have a slightly faster feathering than males
306
Q

what is dwarfism in poultry genetics?

A
  • one sex-linked recessive gene
  • reduces body weight of the makes and females
  • caused mutations in the growth hormone receptor gene on the Z chromosome
307
Q

GWAS

A

genome wide association study

308
Q

what are traits that are used to help with the future of genetics in poultry production?

A
  • egg production and quality of layers
  • growth traits in broilers
309
Q

pangenome

A

a collection of the common and unique genomes that are present in a given species, captures the known variants and haplotypes and reveals new alleles at structurally complex loci

310
Q

the pangenome captures ________ present among modern poultry breeds

311
Q

the pangenome shows the ______ and _______ of the domestic chickens

A

origin and diversity

312
Q

what is the purpose of genome editing?

A

modifying the genetics of the bird to improve production

313
Q

substitutions, insertion, deletions, amplifications, chromosomal translocation, inversion…. are examples of genome ______________

A

modification

314
Q

transgenesis

A

exhibiting a new property

315
Q

genome editing and gene targeting

A

artificial genome editing, targeted gene modification

316
Q

homologous recombination is __________ gene editing

317
Q

why are we doing genetic engineering?

A

to identify gene functions. understanding which region of DNA is responsible for phenotypes.

318
Q

forward genetics

A

having a know phenotype and then using DNA sequencing to discover the genotype

319
Q

reverse genetics

A

having a known genotype and then using genome editing to discover the phenotype

320
Q

what type of genetic tool is used in forward genetics to discover genotype?

A

DNA sequencing

321
Q

what type of genetic tool is used in reverse genetics to discover phenotype?

A

genome editing

322
Q

example of forward genetics in poultry

A

crest phenotype

323
Q

example of reverse genetics in poultry

324
Q

what are specific reasons why we are doing genetic engineering?

A
  • growing population and limited resources
  • animal/zoonotic diseases
  • climate change
  • animal welfare
  • nutritional values
325
Q

why are we doing genetic engineering?

A

can help humans (consumers and producers), animals and the earth

326
Q

why does it make genetically modifying birds more difficult?

A

poultry make it more difficult because they create and egg shell around the yolk making it more difficult to target specific cell types

327
Q

less than ____% of the cells in the egg are germ cells

328
Q

when genetically modifying poultry, we target the blastoderm injecting them with a ______ ______

A

viral vector

329
Q

how do the germ cells migrate in the bird during develop so it can be collected?

A

through the blood

330
Q

issues on genome-edited animals

A
  • safety
  • diversity and sustainability
331
Q

what safety issues can there be with on genome-edited animals

A

off-target effects (things that changed that you did not want to change)

332
Q

what genome edit in chickens is FDA approved

333
Q

what is the kanuma gene edit?

A
  • mass production of recombinant protein
  • is used to treat people with a diagnosis of lysosomal acid lipase (LAL) disease
334
Q

what is collected and used to genetically modify birds?

A

primordial germ cells (PGC)

335
Q

how are primordial germ cells collected?

A
  • from the embryos blood
  • from the gonads
336
Q

what are the three common tools used for genetic engineering?

A
  • Cre/loxP (recombination)
  • piggyBac transposon
  • CRISPR CAS9
337
Q

what is homologous recombination?

A

a type of genetic recombination in which nucleotide sequences are exchanged between two similar or identical molecules of DNA

338
Q

_________ ___________ is a type of genetic recombination in which nucleotide sequences are exchanged between two similar or identical molecules of DNA

A

homologous recombination

339
Q

homologous recombination repairs DNA before the cell enters _________ or __________

A

mitosis or meiosis

340
Q

homologous recombination has extremely ____(low/high) editing efficiency

341
Q

site specific recombinases

A

enzymes that catalyze DNA strand exchange at specific DNA sequences, enabling precise gene editing for insertions, deletions, inversions, or translocations

342
Q

T or F: site specific recombinases are reversible when applied to gateway cloning

A

FALSE; they are irreversible

343
Q

what is a viral vector system in gene editing?

A

ability to enter a cell and hijak its machinery to produce viral proteins

344
Q

viral vector system can modify viral genome to deliver ___/___

345
Q

the viral vector system has _________ integration

346
Q

what is a transposon?

A

a mobile DNA sequence that can move from one location to another within a genome, potentially causing mutations or altering gene expression

347
Q

the P element encodes a __________ enzyme, which recognizes terminal inverted repeats of the P element and catalyzes excision and reinsertion

A

transposase

348
Q

the gene editing tool piggyBAC is the most common __________ system used

A

transposase

349
Q

what is an example of a programmable genome editing tool commonly used to edit the chicken genome?

A

CRISPR/Cas9

350
Q

Cas9 + gRNA =________ _____ ________

A

targeted gene modification

351
Q

CAS9 can have many different effects on the genome by binding with many different _________, this includes cut DNA to generate knockouts, histone modification, DNA base editing, and more

352
Q

why are we doing genetic engineering? (4 reasons)

A
  • to improve economic traits
  • to acquire disease resistance
  • to assist reproduction
  • to study specific gene functions
353
Q

what are some examples of genetic engineering done in poultry?

A
  • allergen free eggs
  • modify chicken egg proteins
  • mass production of recombinant protein (kanuma)
354
Q

kanuma from transgenic chicken eggs is used to treat people with a diagnosis of ___________ deficiency

A

lysosomal acid lipase (LAL)

355
Q

how is genetic engineering assisting reproduction in poultry?

A

to collect primordial germ cells from other birds and then test cross them with a different species

356
Q

________ ____ ______ mediated germline transmission in chickens

A

primordial germ cells

357
Q

what is the Cre/loxP system?

A

a site-specific recombination technique that allows researchers to alter DNA in specific ways

358
Q

CRISPR

A

clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats