Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

breeder

A

a bird used for breeding purposes

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2
Q

layer

A

a bird that lays eggs for production

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3
Q

grow-out

A

phase where birds are grown until processed for meat

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4
Q

hatchery

A

facility where eggs are incubated

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5
Q

processing

A

a live animal is turned into consumable product

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6
Q

feed mill

A

facility that mixes feed

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7
Q

broiler

A

meat bird

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8
Q

chick

A

baby bird

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9
Q

rooster

A

male chicken

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10
Q

hen

A

female bird

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11
Q

cockerel

A

young/immature rooster

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12
Q

case weight

A

the weight of a case of product (typically used for eggs)

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13
Q

average case weight of eggs

A

48 lbs

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14
Q

WOG

A

without giblets

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15
Q

giblets

A

heart, liver, neck, gizzard

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16
Q

capon

A

castrated male chicken

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17
Q

drake

A

male duck

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18
Q

duck

A

female duck

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19
Q

duckling

A

young duck

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20
Q

fowl

A

bird

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21
Q

gander

A

male goose

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22
Q

goose

A

female goose

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23
Q

gosling

A

young goose

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24
Q

hackle

A

collection of feathers behind the neck

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25
Q

hock

A

bend in the joint of the leg

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26
Q

pullet

A

young laying hen

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27
Q

strain

A

a genetic line specifically bred for a specific purpose

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28
Q

tom

A

male turkey

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29
Q

poult

A

young turkey

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30
Q

variety

A

multiple types of birds

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31
Q

wattles

A

a fleshy flap of skin that hangs from either side of the beak

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32
Q

wing web

A

tissue under the wing of the bird (sometimes used as a vaccination site and for blood draws)

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33
Q

yolk

A

provides nutrients to the chick in the egg

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34
Q

what are the three major sectors of the poultry industry?

A
  • broilers
  • layers
  • turkeys
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35
Q

what are the top producing countries?

A
  1. United States
  2. China
  3. Brazil
  4. Europe Union
  5. Russia
  6. Mexico
  7. Thailand
  8. Argentina
  9. Turkey
  10. Columbia
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36
Q

the United States makes up about ____% of the worlds chicken

A

20.1 %

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37
Q

$_____ billion exported in 2023

A

$5.49 billion

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38
Q

in 2023, did America export more or less poultry products than in 2022?

A

in 2023 there was a slight decrease of exports, there was less export in 2022 compared to 2023

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39
Q

What are the top three countries the US exports poultry meat products to?

A
  1. Mexico
  2. China
  3. Canada
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40
Q

what are some reasons the egg market is one of the fastest growing markets?

A
  • one chicken can produce multiple eggs
  • multiple uses for eggs
  • eggs are a superfood
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41
Q

what are the top three countries the US exports eggs to?

A
  1. Mexico
  2. Canada
  3. Japan
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42
Q

what are 2 different parts of the egg industry?

A
  • whole eggs
  • egg products
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43
Q

egg markets have been settling down compared to recent year. What were the challenges?

A
  • avian influenza (trade restrictions, mortality)
  • housing changes (prop 12)
  • grain market
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44
Q

the general trend is that over time the egg market is ____________

A

increasing

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45
Q

the US poultry market is the power house of ___________, making it stand apart from all other industries in animal agriculture

A

integration

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46
Q

what is integration?

A

the process of combining different parts of the production process into a unified whole

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47
Q

what are parts of the poultry industry that are integrated?

A

hatching eggs, hatchery, grow out, feed mill, processing plant or egg production, egg products, egg packer, etc.

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48
Q

what is food security?

A

the ability for people to have access to enough safe and nutritious food

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49
Q

how can poultry contribute to food security? why are they important?

A

birds are generally easy to raise, they are easy to manage and work with. the inputs are often cheaper than the outputs. they produce many different outputs.

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50
Q

why is food security important?

A

the population is growing very quickly and we need to be able to feed the world

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51
Q

food needs to travel to the people. when it comes to distribution of foods, where do other countries struggle where the US does a good job?

A

other countries struggle to get their food from point A to point B, they can’t physically get to there food sources or have the opportunities to gain those sources. The US has great land resources and we have systems in place that allow us to move food all over.

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52
Q

biosecurity

A

the steps a farm and industry take to keep infectious diseases away from animals, property, and the people who interact with them

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53
Q

2 types of biosecurity

A
  • physical
  • operational
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54
Q

physical biosecurity

A

the use of physical barriers, sanitation, and other measures to prevent the spread of disease among animals, plants, and people (ex: isolation, traffic control, sanitation, etc)

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55
Q

operational biosecurity

A

a set of procedures and practices that are used to prevent the spread of disease in an agricultural setting (ex: ensuring people, equipments, and tools are not brought in without following protocol)

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56
Q

why is biosecurity important

A

if disease enters the flock it may cause mass death or sickness leading to depopulation and a lack of production

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57
Q

what is a method of bird flow that the broiler industry uses to increase biosecurity?

A

all in and all out

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58
Q

what does bird flow look like in the layer industry to maintain biosecurity?

A

layers are kept longer so the new birds will be kept separate in isolation and using proper sanitation in the barns

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59
Q

how does disease spread?

A
  • saliva
  • manure and litter
  • respiratory and air
  • fomites
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60
Q

what is better for biosecurity: cold weather or warm weather

A
  • cold weather
  • cold weather decreases the amount of bacteria that can grow within things like manure and litter
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61
Q

fomites

A

carries a disease on it

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62
Q

examples of fomites

A
  • people (usually the biggest issue)
  • pests
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63
Q

fomite vs vector

A

a fomite carries disease ON it. a vector is a living organism that has the diseases and can spread it.

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64
Q

examples of pests

A

wild birds, lice, rats, flies

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65
Q

why is it important to keep all feed enclosed?

A

to reduce the amount of pests that want to enter your building, also if they get into the feed they can contaminate it

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66
Q

why should trees be removed around poultry barns?

A

tress bring in wild birds which can be a biosecurity hazard

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67
Q

why should crops be removed around a poultry barn?

A

crops bring in mice which can be a biosecurity hazard

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68
Q

NPIP

A

National Poultry Improvement Plan

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69
Q

APHIS

A

animal and plant health inspection service

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70
Q

what are two voluntary programs, established in the 1930s, that poultry producers can join that provide educational resources and assist all levels of the poultry industry?

A

NPIP and APHIS

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71
Q

what is the program created by APHIS to raise awareness for poultry biosecurity?

A

DefendtheFlock

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72
Q

what is the goal of NPIP and APHIS?

A

improve poultry and products

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73
Q

what event in the early 1930s caused programs to arise to support and the poultry industry?

A

pillory disease (salmonella pullorum)

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74
Q

to be involved with NPIP and APHIS what must your farm comply with?

A

maintain test requirements of birds (birds are tested once a year to be involved with the program)

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75
Q

what is one way NPIP and APHIS support a poultry producer?

A

they can sent official state agents to the facilities to assist

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76
Q

T/F: if you work at a poultry barn you are nor permitted to have any birds at home, work with others that work with birds or hunt birds as it risks biosecurity protocols

A

True

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77
Q

People are often a problem for biosecurity. What are some places they could go that are previously contaminated sites, places that may cause a biosecurity risk to the farm?

A
  • gas station
  • processing plant
  • diagnostic lab
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78
Q

what are some things that can be done to control access to facilities?

A
  • vehicles cleaned
  • designated parking area
  • entry logbook
  • perimeter buffer area (PBA)
  • line of separation (LOS)
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79
Q

fewer people means ____ biosecurity risk

A

less

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80
Q

perimeter buffer area (PBA)

A

the outer area (perimeter) of the farm, only authorized personnel should enter this area

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81
Q

PBA

A

perimeter buffer area

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82
Q

LOS

A

line of separation

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83
Q

line of separation (LOS)

A

inner control boundary, typically the walls of the buildings

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84
Q

what is considered the “last line of defense” in a biosecurity plan?

A

line of separation

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85
Q

what is considered the “first line of defense” in a biosecurity plan?

A

the perimeter buffer area

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86
Q

items that cross the perimeter buffer area need to be _______ and ________

A

clean and disinfected

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87
Q

what parts of the perimeter buffer area should be outlined in the biosecurity protocol?

A
  • map of PBA on biosecurity plans
  • some resources on the outside of PBA with routes to get to them
  • PBA access points
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88
Q

what are some things that should be considered when birds enter the perimeter buffer area?

A
  • entry point
  • testing (should they be)
  • one-directional flow
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89
Q

what is the job of a biosecurity coordinator?

A

someone to make sure that the biosecurity protocol is being followed, ensure things are working, and deal with people who are not following protocol

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90
Q

danish entry

A

there is a clear boundary with a clean side and a dirty side (various levels of this, some including showering)

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91
Q

which part of the poultry industry is more likely to have very strong biosecurity protocols including showing in and out of the facility?

A

top tier generic facility

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92
Q

why do you need a plan in place before allowing birds access into the line of separation?

A

to ensure that biosecurity protocols will be followed

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93
Q

how often should you collect dead birds? what should you monitor?

A

all dead birds should be collected at the end of the day and counted

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94
Q

after collecting the dead birds at the end of the day you notice there are more deaths than normal. what should you do?

A

note the increased number and report the issue to it can be further investigated

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95
Q

SOP

A

standard operating procedure

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96
Q

in the SOP and LOS, what might it say about the manure and litter management?

A

how often it should be cleaned and how this may modify LOS

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97
Q

what does “if you see something, saw something” mean?

A

if you are concerned at all about anything, notify someone

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98
Q

the scientific name for a chicken

A

gallus domesticus

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99
Q

where is the original chicken, gallus domesticus, from? what was it meant to do?

A
  • from Southeast Asia
  • used for cockfighting
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100
Q

chickens are behaviorally based ______ but domestic chickens cannot really do this anymore (and it they can it is for short distances)

A

flyers

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101
Q

chickens are _____________ meaning they eat both plant and meat based feed

A

omnivores

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102
Q

what are the 4 functions of feathers?

A
  • flight
  • insulation
  • sexual characteristics
  • camouflage
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103
Q

types of feathers (primary, secondary, and more)

A
  • quill (primary)
  • contour (secondary)
  • plumule
  • filoplumule
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104
Q

what are filoplumule?

A

they are hair like feathers that are often found at the base of the thighs and underneath the wings (places with a lot of friction)

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105
Q

on average, chickens have about __________ feathers

A

8,000

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106
Q

feathers go into the ______, which does not have sweat glands but instead produce an oil to keep feathers healthy

A

skin

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107
Q

in the industry feathers are primarily _______ in color

A

white

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108
Q

what are some examples of feather patterns?

A
  • barring (lines across)
  • penciling (rainbow)
  • mottling (dark color dispersed)
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109
Q

what colors can birds be?

A

red, white, black, grey

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110
Q

there are ____ breed varieties of chickens, so there are lots of markings and colors

A

529

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111
Q

what is feather cover affected by?

A
  • genetics
  • hormones
  • environment
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112
Q

when do feathers start to grow in birds?

A

day 5 of incubation

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113
Q

at ____ days of age they should have 50g of feathers

A

40

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114
Q

what affect can heat stress during incubation have on a birds feather cover?

A

helicopter wing (feathers stick out)

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115
Q

what can helicopter wing indicate?

A

may have poor growth and health issues in the future

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116
Q

ZZ: male or female?

A

male

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117
Q

ZW: male or female?

A

female

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118
Q

what does estradiol do to feather growth? what can a lack of estradiol cause?

A
  • estradiol (female) causes faster feather growth
  • lack of estradiol (male) causes longer feathers
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119
Q

the male will use his ________ to show off to females

A

hackle (feathers on the neck)

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120
Q

T/F: molting a natural process

A

True, but it can also be induced

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121
Q

when does molting occur in chicks?

A

4-5 weeks, feathers will grow back in 8 weeks

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122
Q

When does molting occur in adults?

A

first at 18 months and then yearly after that

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123
Q

what is molting?

A

the natural process of shedding and regrowing feathers, resets feather growth and their reproductive tract

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124
Q

how to induce molting

A
  • light stimulation
  • high fiber diet
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125
Q

the bird will lose ___% of their body weight and then they will molt

A

25%

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126
Q

the _______ is larger in males than in females and will get larger with more androgens present, it can be used for heat dissipation

A

wattle

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127
Q

the beak can be used for _____ AND ______

A

eating AND defense

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128
Q

what do ears look like on birds?

A

a tube covered with the feathers with some skin below (earlobe - correlates with color of bird)

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129
Q

spurs

A

pointed part on feet, can use for defense

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130
Q

the shank/foot is covered in scales meaning that it can help with ______ _____________.

A

heat dissipation

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131
Q

saddle

A

feathers on the back

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132
Q

what is important about bird eyes?

A

birds have really good eyes and can recognize other birds within their flock

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133
Q

what is the birds most acute sense?

A

sight

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134
Q

why would the shank change color?

A

primarily based off of what they are fed (chickens are mostly fed corn so they are yellow)

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135
Q

if the legs of a bird are pale in color, what can this mean?

A

they are not absorbing nutrients properly

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136
Q

birds have ______ toes that help the animal balance and move

A

4-5

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137
Q

turkey: the snood

A

a fleshy appendage that hangs down from the top of its beak

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138
Q

turkey: the caruncle

A

a small, fleshy bump on a turkey’s head or neck

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139
Q

turkey: the beard

A

a tuft of dark feathers that grows from a turkey’s chest (mostly males, sometimes females have them)

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140
Q

what parts of the turkey do hunters often collect?

A

the spurs and beards

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141
Q

external anatomy alterations

A
  • beak trimming
  • dubbing
  • clipping
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142
Q

beak trimming

A

taking off the top part (avascular) of the beak

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143
Q

what is the purpose of beak trimming?

A

protects people and the other birds in the flock

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144
Q

dubbing

A

trimming the comb

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145
Q

when should dubbing be done?

A

day 1 of age or earlier

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146
Q

what is the purpose of dubbing?

A

protects the comb during mating because roosters will hold onto the comb

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147
Q

clipping

A

clipping the toes, removal of the last metatarsal

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148
Q

in what bird is clipping mostly done in and why?

A

turkeys because they will spar and scratch, clipping prevents them from getting hurt

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149
Q

chicken skin is _____ giving that crispy texture when cooked

A

thin

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150
Q

uropygial gland

A

Located at the hind end, secretes oil, collects on the beak and when they preen it will be spread on the feathers to keep them conditioned and healthy

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151
Q

preening

A

a maintenance behavior in birds that involves using the beak to position feathers

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152
Q

what effects the color of the skin? what color is the skin typically?

A
  • feed
  • often a yellow color due to corn consumption
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153
Q

why are many of the bones fused?

A

to create a larger and stronger bone, needs to be strong from a flying standpoint

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154
Q

what are the 2 types of bones?

A
  • pneumatic
  • medullary
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155
Q

pneumatic bone

A

for flight, hollow, support air flow and reduce density

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156
Q

examples of pneumatic bones

A

skull, humerus, sternum, clavicle

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157
Q

medullary bone

A

egg laying, a soft center that allows them to store additional minerals for egg production

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158
Q

examples of medullary bones

A

ribs, femur, tibia, pelvic bone

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159
Q

the ______ bone facilitates and supports wings for flight

A

coracoid

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160
Q

laying hens need a lot of ________ from the diet and from bone storage to produce egg shells

A

calcium

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161
Q

what does it mean if the meat is darker in color (more red) vs a whiter meat?

A

meat that is darker in color contains more myoglobin because it has to work more in an aerobic environment

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162
Q

what birds would you expect to have darker meat, what are birds you’d expect to have whiter meat?

A

goose and duck are darker while chicken and turkey are lighter in color

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163
Q

wild birds have more read meat because they have more ___________, they use their muscles more for flight

A

myoglobin

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164
Q

how many air sacs do bird have?

A

9

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165
Q

should birds pant?

A

NO

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166
Q

the lungs in birds do not expand so they need ____ _____ to exchange oxygen

A

air sacs

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167
Q

GI tract of the bird

A
  • beak
  • esophagus
  • crop
  • proventriculus
  • gizzard
  • small intestine
  • pancreas
  • liver
  • gall bladder
  • merkels diverticulum
  • ceca
  • large intestine
  • cloaca
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168
Q

crop

A

where feed is held, stored and softened

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169
Q

proventriculus

A

true stomach

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170
Q

gizzard

A

grinds the feed

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171
Q

merkels diverticulum

A

what is left after yolk absorption, looks like a skin tag

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172
Q

what is the longest part of the gi tract where more digestion occurs?

A

small intestine

173
Q

ceca

A

2 cecum, some fermentation occurs to digest fibers

174
Q

cloaca

A

merger point of urinary, digestive and reproduction system

175
Q

know the bird anatomy!!

176
Q

what is the function of the circulatory system?

A

get oxygen and nutrients to the body and rid of waste

177
Q

what is a common death that can occur is birds (especially turkeys) that involves their heart?

A

pressure on the aorta can cause an aortic rupture

178
Q

the birds heart can get up to _____ bpm

179
Q

T/F: bird’s red blood cells are nucleated

180
Q

why is it difficult to collect blood on a bird?

A

their blood clots very quickly

181
Q

where do you collect blood on a bird?

A

in their wing web

182
Q

blood can help with thermal regulation by moving deep into the body when cold and to the extremities when hot. What can we provide the birds with to help them cool down in the warmer months?

A

cool perches to stand on

183
Q

what is the function of the nervous system

A

take in and respond to stimuli

184
Q

birds have a ______ cerebral cortex, making them not very intelligent animals

185
Q

what are euthanasia methods for birds?

A
  • gas them with CO2
  • cervical dislocation
186
Q

the older the bird the more __________ cervical dislocation is

187
Q

how do you perform a cervical dislocation?

A

hold the feet and push down in a quick twisting motion, this will snap the spinal cord internally decapitating the bird

188
Q

what does the ACUC reccomend for the method of euthanasia in birds?

A

CO2 and then cervical dislocation

189
Q

function of the excretory system

A

to rid of waste

190
Q

what is the function of the bladder?

A

balance salts and fluid in the body

191
Q

what is uric acid? how is it excreted?

A
  • a chemical compound (mostly nitrogen) produced in the body as a byproduct of purine metabolism
  • excreted in urine
192
Q

excreta

A

urine and feces mix in the cloaca making excreta, this exits out the vent

193
Q

endocrine system function

A

getting hormones around the body, hormone regulation

194
Q

hypothalamus function

A
  • reproduction
  • maintain food and water intake (signal from crop)
195
Q

pituitary function

A
  • reproduction
  • aggression and sexual behavior
196
Q

pineal function

A

light receptivity and response

197
Q

birds are _____________ animals, meaning that they will cycle based on light

A

photosensitive

198
Q

because birds are photosensitive animals, birds will produce ______ eggs in the summer vs the winter

199
Q

thymus function

A

disease defense, antibodies

200
Q

thyroid function

what is it related to specific to the bird?

A
  • produce thyroid hormones
  • related to feather growth
201
Q

signals such as decreased feed and light are sent to the ________ gland inducing molting

202
Q

parathyroid function

A

Ca and P balance

203
Q

birds only have _____ ovary develop (usually the left)

204
Q

bursa of fabricius

A
  • creates B cells
  • immune response
205
Q

adrenals function

A

stress response

206
Q

Of the top 20 US egg producers ranking for 2025, how many are located in Missouri?

A

4 (1. Cal-Maine Foods, 2. Rose Acre Farms, 8. Opal Foods, and 19. Vital Farms)

207
Q

of the 4 farms in Missouri that are some of the topUS egg procures, how many have been hit by avian influenza?

A

3 (1. Cal-Maine Foods, 2. Rose Acre Farms, 8. Opal Foods)

208
Q

what is most likely the cause of increased egg prices?

A

avian influenza is killing a lot of our laying hens, increasing the price of eggs due to a shortage of supply

209
Q

what are common trends that we have seen between 2015 and 2022 regarding HPAI?

A

January of 2015 and January of 2022 has the same magnitude of HPAI outbreaks

210
Q

what group of birds is getting mostly impacted by HPAI? Why?

A

layers because they are in a dense concentration

211
Q

what are the top 3 commercial poultry industries (in order of most impacted to least impacted) being impacted by HPAI?

A
  1. layers
  2. broilers
  3. turkeys
212
Q

what is indemnity?

A

the government will pay back some of the bird loss when you lose birds in your population

213
Q

steps to creating a nutritional program?

A
  1. selection of ingredients and additives
  2. set of specifications for production
  3. oversee ingredients quality
  4. optimizing the pricing and ingredients to match specs
  5. feed manufacturing
  6. data analysis

.

214
Q

when creating a nutritional program what are some considerations you need to take into account?

A
  • production type
  • species
  • system
215
Q

why is it important to monitor what is available and at what cost when formulating a nutritional program?

A

you need to understand the challenges and the upcoming challenges so that the diet can be adjusted accordingly so that the producer can continue to afford the feed

216
Q

what did the speaker refer to as “magic dust” in nutrition?

A

there are additives many companies try to sell you that have enzymes and probiotics, they tend to throw data at you

217
Q

what are the most expensive nutrients? Often the nutritionist is spending 90% of their time managing the cost of these three nutrients.

A
  • energy
  • protein
  • phosphorus
218
Q

what are the least expensive nutrients?

A
  • calcium
  • sodium
219
Q

why do we need to avoid too much sodium in the diet?

A

it will cause flushing

220
Q

flushing

A

when birds have diarrhea

221
Q

what is a breaker?

A

raising eggs for liquid use

222
Q

what is a breeder?

A

genetic stocks. raising chicks

223
Q

why is it important to maximize bone development in breeders?

A

they need calcium to produce an egg shell

224
Q

a layers diet is ____% calcium, because she put ___g of calcium in the egg everyday

225
Q

goals of nutrition for layers and breeders

A
  1. slow-moderate growth, minimal muscle development
  2. set proper bone and structural development
  3. maintain body weight and support egg production
  4. supporting level of production with age
226
Q

what is happening during this dip?

227
Q

what is the difference between how they used to molt birds and how we molt birds today?

A

they used to take feed away for 3 days but you cannot do this anymore. So now we use high fiber diets and high salt (they are full and won’t want to eat)

228
Q

what is phase feeding?

A

matching the birds needs as they grow

229
Q

what are some things to keep in mind when formulating a broiler diet?

A
  • growing conditions
  • meat marketing objectives
230
Q

a whole bird (chicken) is grown to ____ lbs

231
Q

turkey toms are ____ lbs in 20 weeks and typically used for deli meats

232
Q

light hens get to ____ lbs, while heavy hens get up to ____ lbs and are typically used for the whole bird market

A

14-16; 20-22

233
Q

broiler growth responds to ____ ______, while turkey growth responses to ___________

A

amino acids; energy

234
Q

ducks have a higher ________ requirement because they do not produce it as well as other species

235
Q

what do you need to keep in mind when making a nutritional program for geese?

A
  • maintain body weight
  • multiple years production
236
Q

game birds have flight needs and very nervous behavior, what are somethings you need to keep in mind when formulating their diet?

A
  • the birds need to fly so you cannot make them weigh too much
  • you can add calming stuff to the feed
237
Q

ingredients used in poultry diets

A
  • cereal grains
  • cereal by-products
  • fats
  • plant protein sources
  • vitamins and mineral supplements
  • crystalline amino acids
  • feed additives
238
Q

energy sources in the poultry diet

A
  • carbohydrates
  • fats and oils
  • excess protein
  • fiber
239
Q

why should you not have excess protein in the diet?

A

protein is expensive so you have excess cost and it is problematic for nitrogen excess

240
Q

what effect does too much soluble fiber have on the bird?

A

will increase mucus production and decrease gut health because the mucus makes a gel over the brush border membrane in the intestine decreasing glucose absorption and lowering efficiency

241
Q

what is the issue with overfeeding non-soluble fibers?

A

they do not dissolve well

242
Q

energy in the diet affects _______, because it is the rate limiting nutrient

243
Q

types of energy feed

A
  • wheat
  • sorgum
  • corn
  • soya
  • soybean meal
  • barley
244
Q

3 important monosaccharides

A
  • glucose
  • fructose
  • galactose
245
Q

3 important disaccharides

A
  • lactose (galactose + glucose)
  • sucrose (glucose + fructose)
  • maltose (glucose + glucose)
246
Q

What are common polysaccharides?

A
  • starch -> (glycogen)
  • cellulose
  • hemicellulose
247
Q

non-starch polysaccharide (NSP)

A
  • cellulose (non-digestible)
  • hemicellulose (fermentable)
248
Q

glucose is ___ times higher in the blood plasma in a chick compared to other livestock species

249
Q

example of oligosaccharides

A
  • raffinose
  • stachylose (SBM)
250
Q

raffinose

A

extension of glucose, helps plants maintain moisture

251
Q

why do we want to avoid too much fermentation in the bird?

A

causes gas and flushing

252
Q

saturated vs unsaturated fat

A
  • unsaturated has double bonds while saturated does not
  • saturated is solid at room temperature while unsaturated is liquid at room temperature
253
Q

______________ fat is easier to digest in younger birds, older birds can digest either

A

unsaturated

254
Q

what is the fat DHA used for?

A

brain development

255
Q

what does fat digestion depend on?

A
  • age of the bird
  • saturation of fat
  • no lacteals
256
Q

what are lacteals? since birds do not have lacteals, how does this affect their fat absorption?

A

lacteals help other species absorb the fat in the diet, without lacteals fat will go directly into the bloodstream which can cause issues

257
Q

what are essential fatty acids for birds?

A

linoleum and arachidonic acid

258
Q

what will happen if the bird does not have its essential fatty acids?

A

poor growth, decrease in egg size, fatty liver

259
Q

all steroids are derived from ____________

A

cholesterol

260
Q

what compounds are derived from lipids?

A
  • hormone synthesis
  • vitamin D precursor
  • cell membranes
261
Q

glucose is stored as __________ in the body

262
Q

do fats slow down or speed up digestion?

263
Q

what organ processes fat?

264
Q

fatty liver syndrome

A

if too much fat enters the bloodstream and the liver has to process it it can cause a fatty liver and kill the bird

265
Q

what are proteins in the diet used for in the body?

A

growth, development, maintenance

266
Q

what is the second most expensive nutrient?

267
Q

there are ____ essential AA in the bird

268
Q

T/F: there is no storage of amino acids in the body

A

True, so we supplement AA into the diet

269
Q

what are the top 3 limiting AA in the bird?

A

methionine and lysine, also it can be threonine

270
Q

when formulating a birds diet we often use the amino acid ________ to base the diet on

271
Q

functions of proteins

A

tissue repair/growth, energy storage, structural, enzymes, hormones, signaling

272
Q

where is the digestion of amino acids taking place?

A

pepsin begins to break it up in the proventriculus and gizzard, most of digestion in the duodenum

273
Q

where does most of absorption of amino acids take place?

A

jejunum and ileum

274
Q

you should feed protein to younger chicks, by day ____ of age they maximize their ability to digest proteins

275
Q

vitamins are ________ compounds that promote normal development and functioning

276
Q

what are fat soluble vitamins?

A
  • A, D, E, K
  • directly transported in the bloodstream and can be stored
277
Q

what are water soluble vitamins?

A
  • vitamin b complexes
  • vitamin C
  • can be synthesized in the birds body
278
Q

when we formulate a birds diet we assume there is ______ vitamin content in the feed, so we add vitamin premixes to all poultry diets

279
Q

roles of vitamins

A
  • catalytic functions
  • oxidative protection
280
Q

choline

A

a common vitamin this is needed to increase efficient in birds and help protect cell membranes

281
Q

what are pseudo or quasi vitamins?

A

man made vitamins that can be given in feed, water, SQ or IV

282
Q

what causes oxidative stress in the body?

A

free radicals

283
Q

minerals are ____________ compounds used for growth and reproduction

284
Q

macro minerals functions

A
  • structural type function
  • electrolyte balance
  • metabolic regulators
285
Q

what are the essential macro minerals that help with osmotic balance, nerve conduction, and muscle conduction

A

sodium, chloride, potassium

286
Q

examples of macro minerals

A

Ca, P, Na, Cl, K, Mg, S

287
Q

micro or trace minerals function

A

co factors, help to maintain health

288
Q

examples of micro or trace minerals

A

iron, copper, manganese, zinc, selenium, molybdenum, fluroine

289
Q

bioavailability

A

the extent to which nutrients are absorbed by the intestine

290
Q

chelation

A

bound electrically to other compounds to increase absorption rate

291
Q

what can decrease bioavailability?

A

physic acid (in plants), Ca, Fe, Zn

292
Q

nutraceuticals

A

provide health benefits, often vitamins and minerals and herbal supplements

293
Q

what are the most common enzymes added to bird feed?

A
  • phytases (break down phosphorus)
  • xylonases (corn and SBM breakdown)
294
Q

what is in additives?

A
  • nutraceuticals
  • enzymes
295
Q

what are important aspects about the feed mill?

A
  • feed integrity
  • accuracy
  • keeping things clean and dry
  • biosecurity
296
Q

what are considered high-risk ingredients?

A

getting ingredients from high risk areas, areas that could have diseases and things different from ours, may go through a holding procedure and be cleaned and disinfected using organic acids and UV light

297
Q

why is it important for a feed mill to have good records?

A
  • know here supplies have been
  • having traceability (what is coming in and out)
298
Q

when we formulate a diet we use ______ cost diet formulation

299
Q

when formulating a diet _____ level is the starting point, then confirm all other nutrient requirements are met after

300
Q

you must have a different diet for each ________ and _______

A

species and purpose

301
Q

B-glucan

A

in hulls and hulled barley and oats, important as it can improve the birds gut health and increase amino sites

302
Q

is Missouri, what are the most common cereal grain used?

A

corn followed by wheat

303
Q

protein sources - legumes

A
  • peas
  • lentils
  • fava beans
304
Q

what is a concern when feeding fava beans?

A

they can have a high amount of tannins which can decrease efficiency and growth laying hens had decreased performance and increased blood spots

305
Q

when feeding legumes as a protein source what amino acid do we need to be concerned about and ensuring we are still meeting the requirements of?

A

methionine

306
Q

protein makes up about __% of the diet

307
Q

diet forms

A
  • mash
  • crumble
  • pellets
  • whole grains
308
Q

out of the diet forms, which is the least efficient ?

A

whole grains

309
Q

what does the veterinary feed directive control in feed?

A

medications

310
Q

_________ is a common feed additive that is not under the veterinary feed directive but protects them against coccidiosis

A

coccidiostats

311
Q

what is coccidiosis?

A
  • kills the birth through death of the gi tissue
  • signs include: decrease eating and drinking, off on their own, off color or bloody droppings, paleness, standing hunched
312
Q

list the most to least cost of the diet and percent inclusion in the diet

A
  • energy (65%)
  • protein (30%)
  • minerals (2.5%)
  • vitamins (1.5%)
  • additives (1%)
313
Q

various poultry diets

A
  • starter diets
  • broiler diets
  • turkey diets
  • growing and developing diets in layers
  • laying diets
314
Q

brooding

A

warm environment, an environment for chicks to thrive

315
Q

chicks are functional ______________, which means that they are bad at regulating body temperature

A

poikilotherms

316
Q

spot brooding

A

local heat source near the floor (often a heat lamp)

317
Q

for spot brooding, it should be ___ degrees at the edge of the brooding spot

318
Q

whole house brooding

A

common in a commercial setting, utilize the entire barn or a large portion of the barn using heaters to keep the barn warm

319
Q

other brooding strategies

A
  • under-floor heating system
  • heat exchangers
  • hatching within broiler houses
  • hatch-brooding systems
320
Q

goal of brooding

A

feed intake and activity

321
Q

brooding set up should be done at least ____ hours before the chicks come in so you have proper feed, water, heat, and humidity when they arrive

322
Q

the humidity in a brooding barn should be _____%, which is less than it would be in a hatchery

323
Q

the floor of the brooding barn should be between _____ degrees and should not be below ____ degrees. It can also not be too hot as it can burn shavings.

324
Q

in a brooding barn, feeders should be placed on the _____, so they can easily find their feed source

325
Q

we do not want to blast birds with air so we want to have less than ____ feet per minute of air flowing in the barn

326
Q

there should be an _______ light distribution in the brooding barn so that the chicks will eat

327
Q

after the chicks are dropped off the need to be monitored after the first couple of _______ to make sure they are still eating and drinking

328
Q

the chick should not have to walk any further than ____ feet to get to a feed source in the brooding barn

329
Q

why is paper cover used in brooding barns?

A

helps prevent feed waste and keep the bedding dry

330
Q

the ___-drinker can be removed when the birds are older

331
Q

be able to label this image

A

brooder barn

332
Q

in whole house brooding, as the chicks get older the temperature in the house (decreases or increases)?

333
Q

for spot brooding, you will mange 2 temperatures the first 12 days of life. what are the two temperatures?

A
  • brooder edge
  • 2 m from brooder edge
334
Q

what is kept warmer, the brooder edge or the 2 m from brooder edge?

A

brooder edge

335
Q

as the chicks get older the spot brooding temperature will (increase or decrease)?

336
Q

chick placement during brooding

A

birds are dumped into the pens and put near the feed and water sources

337
Q

what is the importance of ventilation in a brooding barn?

A
  • need an exchange of gases because we worry about CO2, CO, and ammonia
  • use fans or air flow
338
Q

what is normal chick behavior?

A

clean, moving around, making noises

339
Q

when checking the crop, what are you feeling for?

A

want a smooth round crop, make sure they are eating

340
Q

if a chicks crop feels like there are chunks, what may the chick need?

A

it may need to increase water consumption

341
Q

average chick temperature from the vent

342
Q

as the chicks grow the waterers need to be adjusted to the levels of the chicks _____

343
Q

our goal of chicks is to gave less than ___% of mortality

344
Q

weight of a chick at day 7 should be ____ times as much than day 1

345
Q

after a week, the light in the brooding barn should be decreased _____ to keep the birds calm and quiet

346
Q

after 48 hours our target for chicks with full crop is _______%

347
Q

ABF

A

antibiotic free

348
Q

what does antibiotic free mean?

A

the birds are not provided antibiotics during the grow out phase

349
Q

NAE

A

no antibiotics ever

350
Q

cut up

A

the carcass being cut up into smaller pieces for further processing, often done in larger birds

351
Q

FCR

A

feed conversion ratio

352
Q

ADG

A

average daily gain

353
Q

the _____ the FCR the more efficient the bird is

354
Q

FCR equation

A

total feed consumed / total live weight

355
Q

10 birds has total live weight of 31,480 g and they have consumed a
total feed amount of 36,807 g. What is the average feed conversion?

356
Q

A group of 15 broiler chickens has a total live weight of 45,250 g. They consumed a total of 52,300 g of feed. What is the average feed conversion ratio (FCR)?

357
Q

A farmer raised 20 turkeys that reached a total live weight of 96,000 g. The total feed consumption was 112,500 g. Calculate the FCR.

358
Q

A farmer raises 12 broiler chickens with a total live weight of 75 lbs. Over their growth period, they consumed a total of 90 lbs of feed. What is their average feed conversion ratio (FCR)?

359
Q

Flock A has an FCR or 1.75 and Flock B has an FCR of 1.17. Which flock is more efficient?

A

Flock B (they have a lower number meaning they are more efficient)

360
Q

adjusted FCR

A

want to measure how a flock is performing against a common target weight

361
Q

adjusted FCR equation

A

Actual FCR + (target body weight - actual body weight / 10 lbs)

362
Q

PEF

A

production efficiency factor

363
Q

a ________ value of PEF the better the technical performance

364
Q

PEF equation

A

(livalibily x live weight (kg)) / (age in days x FCR) x 100

365
Q

A farmer raises 1,000 broiler chickens to an average live weight of 2.5 kg at 42 days of age. The flock has a 96% livability rate and an average feed conversion ratio (FCR) of 1.6. What is the Production Efficiency Factor (PEF)?

366
Q

A poultry farm raises 2,000 broiler chickens to an average live weight of 2.8 kg at 40 days of age. The flock has a 95% livability rate, and the average feed conversion ratio (FCR) is 1.7. What is the Production Efficiency Factor (PEF)?

367
Q

an average PEF is ______, but ______ is considered excellent

368
Q

Flock A has a PEF of 357 and Flock B has a PEF of 391, which flock has the better technical performance?

369
Q

why is bird uniformity important?

A

we want our flock to be very uniform because the entire group is going out as the same product. If they are not uniform it is harder on the processor

370
Q

coefficient of variation (CV) equation

A

standard deviation / average

371
Q

the ________ the percentage of coefficient of variation the more uniform the flock

372
Q

we aim to have a value of _____% variation to mark the birds as a uniform flock

373
Q

bird sizes:
- small birds (<____lbs)
- medium birds (________ lbs)
- average birds (________ lbs)
- big birds (>_______lbs)

A
  • small birds (<4.25lbs)
  • medium birds (4.26-6.25 lbs)
  • average birds (6.26-7.75 lbs)
  • big birds (>7.76 lbs)
374
Q

what are average birds typically used for?

A

cuts of the bird (thighs, breast, ect.)

375
Q

what are the big birds used for?

A

further processing (found up, chicken nuggests, other shapes, etc)

376
Q

what are medium sized birds used for?

A

the whole bird (rotisserie)

377
Q

what is a conventional system?

A

indoors, controlled lights, feed and water are continuously available

378
Q

what is a specialty-free range or organic system look like?

A

the birds have access to the outdoors at least 51% of its life, this means that have access to sunshine and fresh air (does not mean they have access to the ground)

379
Q

to be considered specialty-free range the bird must have access to the outdoors at least _____% of its life

380
Q

broiler production goals

A
  • meet increased demands for high-quality product
  • comply with animal welfare guidelines
  • minimize variability in flocks and product
  • utilize genetic potential
  • avoid disease
  • maximize salable carcass

.

381
Q

during grow out ________ are 6-7 weeks and 6.5 pounds

382
Q

during growout ________ are 10-11 weeks and 9 pounds

383
Q

during growout birds are on the floor of a ___ x ____ barn with a 25,000-27,000 bird capacity

A

40’ x 500’

384
Q

what is a straight run?

A

both sexes are housed together

385
Q

why is it okay to house broilers of different sexes together?

A

they never reach sexual maturity

386
Q

contract growers

A

a farm has a contract with a company that has incentives and removes some risks

387
Q

tournament system

A

in a contract, you have a base pay but you you do better than you can get incentives (reduced mortality, uniform flock, FCR, feed costs)

388
Q

what does the chicken company often provide in a contract?

A
  • chicks
  • shipping
  • veterinary care
  • processing
  • feed
389
Q

what does the farmer often provide in a contract?

A
  • day to day care
  • gout houses
  • utilities
  • housing maintenance
390
Q

what is one of the largest expenses when raising a flock?

A

feed (about 65% of the cost)

391
Q

removed risk in contract growing

A
  • feed
  • consumers/buyers
  • product demand
  • market volatility
392
Q

growout concerns

A
  • skeletal concerns
  • ascites
  • sudden death or flip over disease
393
Q

skeletal concerns for growout birds

A

getting less common, we were pushing birds to grow so quickly their skeletons could not hold the weight

394
Q

ascites growout concerns

A

fluid in the body cavity, heart failure from pulmonary hypertension

395
Q

sudden death or flip over disease

A

metabolic disorder that makes chickens more susceptible to cardiac arrhythmia

396
Q

woody breast disease and spaghetti meat

A

poor meat quality, making the meat tough, have white striping, and stringy meat

397
Q

at the end of growout, feed should be removed ____ hours before processing but they still have access to water

398
Q

why is feed removed before processing?

A

so the gi tract is not full during processing, this can cause a contamination risk

399
Q

when does a team ususally come in to remove birds to prepare them for processing?

A

a night or in the dark

400
Q

poultry liter is a ______ fertilizer option

401
Q

what is the number one expense in poultry production (after buying the barn)?

A

nutrition / feed

402
Q

6 basic classes of nutrients

A

energy, protein, vitamins and minerals, water, non-nutritive feed additives

403
Q

non-nutritive feed additives

A

utilized a lot in the poultry industry (especially antibiotic free), contains probiotics, prebiotics, oils

404
Q

In a graph of animal response and total nutrient intake from feed we want to be in the optimal range. Where exactly where do we want to feed in the optional range and why?

A

feed the entire flock to potential but keep costs down

405
Q

______% loss in body water is fatal within days

406
Q

animals consume ___ parts water and ___ part feed

407
Q

functions of water

A
  • solvent in the body
  • carries nutrients and waste
  • chemical reactions
  • lubricant and shock absorption
  • body temperature and regulation
  • blood volume
408
Q

the blood in birds is ____% water

409
Q

chicks can easily dehydrate because they are ___% water, so we need to ensure we give the chick and started to ensure they have proper water absorption

410
Q

what chemical should not be used to clean a contaminated well and why?

A

chlorine, it can kill live vaccines and be highly corrosive to metal and oxidize ribber

411
Q

often we will use _______ to clean the lines between birds

412
Q

what percent of pathogens are ideal to have in the water?

A

0%!! there should not be pathogens in the water source

413
Q

ideally water should be at a pH of ____

414
Q

pH of water should ideally be 7, however if the pH of water is under _____ there is corrosion, pH under ____ and the birds will react to the water, pH less than ____ and they will stop drinking it

A

6.5; 6.3; 4

415
Q

why is nitrogen in the water source bad for birds?

A

nitrate will turn to nitrite in the body which will decrease hemoglobin performance

416
Q

hardness and mineral content in the water lines can occur gunking it up. calcium can make ______, magnesium and copper give a ________ _________, iron causes ________, excess Na causes _________, and zinc can be _________.

A

calcium can make stains, magnesium and copper five a bitter taste, iron causes rust, excess Na causes flushing, and zinc can be toxic.

417
Q

zinc greater than ______ mg/ml will be toxic

418
Q

turbidity

A

the clearness of the water

419
Q

birds like their water temperature between ___ and ____ degrees, but they will drink water up to _____ degrees and will stop drinking at ______ degrees

A

50-55 degrees; 90 degrees; 112 degrees

420
Q

what affects water intake

A
  • body size
  • temperature
  • what the animal is doing
421
Q

if you notice that water consumption is down, what could be the cause?

A
  • birds are sick
  • water lines are not functioning
  • something is wrong with the water
422
Q

caged birds will drink ____ water

423
Q

the _____ the water source the more they drink, the ______ the water pressure the more they will drink

A

higher; higher

424
Q

what is an acceptable amount of pathogens in the water?

A

we want 0%, however, up to 100 CFU (colony forming units) is acceptable

425
Q

energy is measured in ________

A

calories (kcals, Mcals)

426
Q

a birds metabolism is slower at _______ than during the _______

A

night, day

427
Q

calorie

A

heat required to increase temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius

428
Q

energy partitioning

429
Q

what can affect water consumption?

A
  • temperature
  • dietary proteins (more N, more water consumption)
  • dietary minerals (more Na, drink more)
  • feed form
  • ingredients
  • housing
  • bacteria