Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Preoperative

A

Begins when the decision
to have surgery is made
and ends with transfer
onto the Operating Room
(OR) bed

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2
Q

Intraoperative

A

Begins when pt is transferred onto the PR bed and ends with admission to the PACU

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3
Q

Post-operative

A

Begins when patients is admitted to the PACY and ends with a follow-up eval in clinic or home

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4
Q

Pre-op nursing interventions

A

Patient safety, manage nutrition and fluid-status (npo), prepare bowel if abdominal or pelvic surgery, prepare the skin, admin meds, maintain pre-op record, patient warming to prevent hypothermia, coordinate with family

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5
Q

Urinary post-op complications

A

-unable to void 8-10 hrs post op
-palpable bladder
-frequent, small amount of voiding
-pain in the suprapubic area

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6
Q

respiratory post-op complications

A

atelectasis and pneumonia

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6
Q

atelectasis

A

-dyspnea
-tachypnea
-dec. breath sounds
-asymm chest movement
-tachycardia
-increased restlessness

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7
Q

pneumonia

A

-rapid respirations
-shallow respirations
-fever
-wet breath sounds
-asymm chest movements
-productive cough
-hypoxia
-tachycardia
-leukocytosis

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8
Q

circulatory post-op complications

A

pulmonary embolism and hypovolemic shock
-monitor for fluid deficit or volume excess
-Foley needs at least 30mL/hr
-voiding at least 240 mL/8hr
-labs (HGB, HCT, lytes, Cr, BUN
-encourage PO fluid replacement

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9
Q

pulmonary embolism

A

-chest pain
-dyspnea
-increased resp. rate
-tachycardia
-increased anxiety
-diaphoresis
-dec. orientation
-dec. BP
-blood gas changes

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10
Q

hypovolemic shock

A

-dec urine
-dec BP
-weak pulse
-cool clammy
-restlessness
-increased bleeding
-increased thirst
-dec. CVP

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11
Q

wound post-op complications

A

infection, dehiscence, evisceration

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12
Q

infection

A

-redness
-purulent drainage
-fever
-tachycardia
-leukocytosis

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13
Q

dehiscence

A

-disruption of surgical incision/wound
-sutures give way (infection, distention, cough, older age, poor nutritional status)
-can be prevented by: abd. binder, pillow when coughing, using leg muscles not bd muscles

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14
Q

evisceration

A

-evidence of bowel through incision
-increased pain + vomiting
-moist NS dressings
-NPO
-will be returning to OR

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15
Q

G.I complications

A

gastric dilation, paralytic ileus

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16
Q

gastric dilation

A

-nausea and vomiting
-abd distention

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17
Q

paralytic ileus

A

-dec. bowel sounds
-no stool or flatus
-nausea
-vomiting
-abd distention
-abd tenderness

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18
Q

gastric dilation

A

-nausea + vomiting
-abd distention

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19
Q

on arrival to the med-surg unit, nurse must assess:

A

-pt’s appearance
-vital signs
-neuro
-cardiac
-respiratory
-CSMT
-surgical site
-toileting
-GI > bowel sounds > nausea
-pain level
-drains
-IVs

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20
Q

treatment of pulmonary issues

A
  • early AMBULATION!
    -must re-expand lungs
    -turn, cough, deep breathe, I/S, acapella (“pickle”)
    -clear secretions
    -splinting of incision
    -pain management
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21
Q

urinary retention

A

-anesthetics, anticholinergics, opioids
-abd. pelvic, hip surgeries= increased likelihood
-pt should void within 8 hours
-must be assessed on arrival to unit and freqently
-bladd scan and possible catheterization if cannot void

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22
Q

bowel function post-op

A

-constipation very common
-assess bowl sounds, monitor BMs, flatus, hiccups, burping, N/V, distention
-decreased mobility, oral intake, opioid analgesics
-irritation/gastric dilation
-manipulation of bowel, trauma
-best course: ambulation, turning/repositioning, prophylactic stool softeners, improved dietary intake
-no BM for 2-3 days = notify

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23
Q

VTE to DVT

A

-stress response from surgery makes blood hypercoagulable
-dehydration, low cardiac output
-immobility (blood pooling in extremities)
DVT!

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24
Q

prophylactic treatment for DVT

A

-SCDs/TED hose
-prophylactic anticoagulants (ex: low dose heparin or enoxaprin)
-ambulation
-hourly leg exercises
-adequate hydration

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25
Q

wound infection

A

-s/sx: increased in pulse, temp, WBC
-wound swelling, warmth, tenderness, discharge
-local signs may be absent if incision is deep
-may not be present until at least 5 days PO

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26
Q

wound infection risk factors

A

-contamination
-foreign body
-faulty suturing technique
-debilitation
-dehydration
-malnutrition
-drains/foreign material
-advanced age
-obesity
-Diabetes mellitus

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27
Q

Tx of wound infections

A

-insertion of drain or wound vac
-I+D procedure
-culture
-antibiotics
-wound care will be in place

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28
Q

managing drains

A

-allows escape of blood and serous fluids
-some have suction (JP,hemovac, wound-vac)
-gravity
-must carefully record I/Os
-may have to flush tubing per orders
-multiple drains must be labeled

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29
Q

managing the dressing

A

-monitor drainage (outline)
-1st drsg change done by surgeon
-nurse performs subsequent dressing changes
-wound assessment (aprox. of edges, integrity of sutures or staples)
-redness, warmth, swelling, unusual tenderness, or drainage

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30
Q

Surgical categories

A

-elective
-urgent
-required
-emergent
-optional

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31
Q

emergent class of surgery

A

-life threatning
-immediate attention
-severe bleeding
-bladder or intestional obstruction
-fractured skull
-GSW or stab wounds
-extensive burns

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32
Q

urgent class of surgery

A

-requires prompt attention
-within 24-30 hours
-acute gallbladder infection
-kidney stones
-certain fractures (hip)

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33
Q

required class surgery

A

-pt. needs to have surgery
-plan within a few weeks/months
-thyroid
-cataracts
-prostate resection
-BPH

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34
Q

Elective class surgery

A

-pt should have surgery
-failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic
-hernia repair

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35
Q

optional class surgery

A

-decision rests with patient
-personal preference
-cosmetic surgery

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36
Q

Gerontologic considerations for surgery

A

-anesthesia can lead to dysregulation of physiology
-cardiac reserves are lower, renal and hepatic function is depressed, GI activity is reduced
-decrease in subq fat = more susceptible to temp changes and skin damage
-memory and cognition are more vulnerable

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37
Q

bariatric patient surgery considerations

A

-increased adipose tissue can delay wound healing and increase risk of infection
-higher weight has increased risk for joint replacement failure
-higher risk of obstructive sleep apnea = intubation and postop complications

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38
Q

disability patient surgery considerations

A

-needs assistive devices: hearing aids, glasses, protheses, technology
-may need modification in preoperative education
-may need special positioning to prevent pain and injury
-any respiratory impairment from MS etc. may cause intubation anesthesia complications

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39
Q

informed consent: role of surgeon

A

-name, type, reason for surgery
-name of the surgeon
-reason surgery will benefit pt. + risks
-all alternative options to surgery
-potential outcomes if surgery not performed
-consent for anesthesia
-consent for blood products

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40
Q

informed consent: role of the nurse

A

-ensure pt. has all information + understands
-no psychoactive medication before informed consent
-place signed consent in prominent place in the pts. record + accompanies pt. to OR

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41
Q

pre-op assessment questionnaire

A

-verify name/DOB
-vital signs
-allergies
-assess pain, nut. status. mobility
-psych status
-spiritual and cultural considerations
-medications- OTC vs. Herbal
-last oral intake?
-personal or family hx of malignant hyperthermia
-alcohol/substance use/tobacco use
-special considerations
-informed consent done?
-physical assessment

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42
Q

pre-op check-list

A

-lab work
-radiologic orders
-remove all metal and piercings, nail polish
-surgical site is prepped and marked per orders
-insert IV
-IV fluids, antibiotics, anxiolytics, antiemetics, preemptive analgesia
-bowel/bladder prep (have pt. void)
-prepare for transfer to OR, beside report with OR nursing staff

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43
Q

pre-op nursing interventions

A

-pt safety
-manage nut. and fluid status
-prepare bowel if abd. or pelvic surgery
-prepare the skin
-admin meds
-pt. warming to prevent hypothermia
-coordinate with family

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44
Q

circulating RN-non sterile

A

-OR manager
-supply management
-assists with positioning pt.
-documenter
-assists with counting
-verifies informed consent
-initiates the “time out”

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45
Q

time out

A

-is this the right patient
-is it the correct location
-is it the correct procedure

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46
Q

general anesthesia

A

requires intubation

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47
Q

regional anesthesia

A

spinal, epidural

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48
Q

moderate sedation

A

combo of benzodiazepine and narcotic

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49
Q

monitored anesthesia care (MAC)

A

combo of local and light sedation (pt breathes on own)

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50
Q

local anesthesia

A

its local idk

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51
Q

common adverse effects of anesthesia

A

-hypotension
-headache
-delirium
-hypothermia
-nausea, vomiting
-anxiety
-shivering

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52
Q

complications of anesthesia

A

-anaphylaxis
-hypoxia
-malignant hyperthermia
-seizure
-resp. arrest
-cardiac arrest
-stroke
-nerve damage, hematoma, abscess
-anesthesia awareness (rare)

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53
Q

what is malignant hyperthermia

A

-rare, genetic muscular disorder induced by anesthetic agents
-hypermetabolic state > sustained muscular contractions
-reaction begins soon after exposure

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54
Q

s/sx of malignant hyperthermia

A

-tachycardia (above 150)
-skeletal muscle rigidity (early sign)
-tetanus-like movement of the jaw “lock jaw”
-dark brown urine from muscle breakdown
-hyperthermia ** late sign
-increased CO2
-HTN

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55
Q

tx of malignant hyperthermia

A

dantrolene (muscle relaxant), cooling pt.

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56
Q

PACU

A

-can remain in unit 1-6 hrs before discharge
-discharge = home, med-surg unit, ICU, other facility
-GOAL = provide care until patient has recovered from anesthesia effects

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57
Q

process in PACU

A

-pt arrives with anesthesia provider +team
-PACU rn connects pt. to monitors + obtains vitals
-PACU rn gets report from anesthesia provider
-PACU rn completes thorough assessment, continuous monitoring

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58
Q

PACU nursing

A

-head-to-toe
-frequent monitoring of: RR, SPO2, RR, BP, skin color, dressings, drains, LOC, CSMT (when applicable)
-ensures IV fluids are infusing per orders
-assesses effects of anesthesia agents
-assesses for post-op complications
-provides comfort and pain relief

59
Q

immediate post-op complications

A

-airway
-cardiovascular
-pain and anxiety
-nausea and vomiting

60
Q

immediate airway complications

A

-hypoxia or hypercapnia
-hypopharyngeal obstruction

61
Q

hypoxia or hypercapnia

A

s/sx: RR and depth, ease of resp, O2 sat, breath sounds
tx: administer supplemental O2, identify underlying cause

62
Q

hypopharyngeal obstruction

A

-choking, noisy/irregular resp, dec. SPO2
-movement of the thorax doesn’t mean air is moving
tx: tilting head back and jaw forward (opens airways), may need to admin oral/nasal airway

63
Q

assessment + management of hypotension and shock in the PACU

A

-loss of fluids or plasma, hypoventilation, medications
-must replace fluids, pt. at risk for hypovolemic shock
-blood loss (>500cc)
-report: systolic BP <90 or downward trend of 5mmhg/q15 min
-promote normothermia

64
Q

assessing for hemorrhage

A

-always look under blankets, gown!
-apprehension
-rapid thready pulse
-disorientation
-restlessness
-oliguria
-cold, pale skin
-increase pulse + RR
-dec. cardiac output (dec. BP, Hgb, Hct)
-hypothermic

65
Q

treatment of hemorrhage

A

-blood transfusion
-determine the cause
-always inspect surgical site
-if bleeding from surgical site = hold pressure
-reinforce drsg
-internal needs to return to OR

66
Q

neurologic complications

A

-stroke
-delayed emergence
-emergence delirium

67
Q

s/sx of stroke

A

facial droop; PERRLA not intact; unilateral weakness or flaccidity, aphasia; change in LOC; dysarthria; visual changes; numbness/tingling; balance/coordination

68
Q

s/sx of delayed emergence

A

prolonged sedation; lack of response to stimuli

69
Q

s/sx of emergence delirium

A

agitation; hyperactivity; thrashing; kicking; looks like a night terror

70
Q

pain, anxiety, post-op nausea/vomiting

A

-utilize a wide variety of pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic therapies
-psychosocial support
-family/visitor support when possible
-heated blankets, ice packs, music etc.
-popsicles

71
Q

leaving the PACU

A

-stable vital signs
-orientation to baseline
-uncompromised pulmonary function
-urine output 30mL/hr
-pulse ox reading >93%
-N+V under control
-pain control
-anesthesia discharge

72
Q

what’s included in a CBC?

A

-RBC
-Hgb
-Hct
-WBC
-Platelets

73
Q

pathology of anemia

A

-decreased RBC (production, destruction, bleeding)
-decreased Hgb = dec. oxygen delivered to tissues
-impairs body’s ability for gas exchange

74
Q

what happens after blood donation?

A

-tested for diseases
-blood type is determined
-ABO and Rh system
-Rh antigen = present in 85%

75
Q

autologous donation

A

-patient’s own blood collected and stored
-pre-op 4-6 weeks before surgery
-iron supplementation
-prevention of viral infections and transfusion reactions
-discarded if not used

76
Q

1 unit whole = how much blood and anticoagulant?

A

450 mL of blood and 50 mL of anticoagulant

77
Q

pre-transfusion assessment

A

-history of past reactions?
-cardiac issues, pulmonary, vascular disease
-baseline vital signs
-resp assessment
-cardiac assessment-fluid volume status
-skin + sclera

78
Q

pre-transfusion procedure

A

-ensure order and type crossmatch
-ensure informed consent
-explain procedure + special attention to reaction symptoms
-ensure 20 gauge IV or larger
-filter tubing for blood admin
-baseline vitals

79
Q

blood pre-transfusion

A

-must be started within 30 min
-2 RNs must verify ABO group, RH type, pt identification, expiration time
-check blood for bubbles, color, cloudiness

80
Q

actual infusion

A

-no faster than 5mL/min for first 15 min
-observe carefully for first 15-30 min
-may increase rate after 15 min
-must finish infusion in 4 hours
-continuous observation
only 2 units via same tubing

81
Q

symptoms of transfusion reaction

A

-restlessness
-hives
-N/V
-back/torso pain
-SOB
-flushing
-fever
-hematuria

82
Q

post-transfusion

A

-obtain last set of vitals
-dispose of materials
-document
-monitor for response and effectiveness

83
Q

febrile nonhemolytic reaction

A

-most common accounts for 90% of reaction
-caused by antibodies to donor leukocytes
-non life threatening
-stop transfusion and notify

84
Q

s/sx of febrile nonhemolytic reaction

A

chills follow by fever, and muscle stiffness, headache, tachycardia

85
Q

acute hemolytic reaction

A

-MOST DANGEROUS
-occurs when donor blood is incompatible with recipient blood

86
Q

s/sx of acute hemolytic reaction

A

chills, fever, tachycardia, constricting chest pain, hypotension, hemoglobinuria, lumbar pain

87
Q

tx of acute hemolytic reaction

A

-stop transfusion immediately
-maintain blood volume, renal profusion, manage DIC

88
Q

allergic transfusion reaction

A

-1-3% of transfusions
-caused by sensitivity to a plasma protein in the donor blood
-s/sx: hives, itching, flushing
-tx: antihistamines
-may resume transfusion unless severe

89
Q

what to do if you notice a transfusion reaction

A

-stop the transfusion, maintain IV line with NS through new IV tubing
-assess pt carefully
-notify provider and blood bank
-send the blood container and tubing to the blood bank for repeat typing and culutre
-obtain blood and urine samples from pt
-document!

90
Q

transfusion associated circulatory overload

A

-hypervolemia
-likely to happen in pt’s w/ inc. circulatory volume
-may be prevented by slow administration
-diuretics may be administered after transfusion
-oxygen and morphine for severe dyspnea

91
Q

s/sx of TACO

A

dyspnea, tachycardia, anxiety, JVD, crackles, inc. BP

92
Q

transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)

A

-potentially fatal idiosyncratic reaction-develops within 2-6 hours after transfusion
-all components can cause it, but most likely is plasma
-most common cause of transfusion related death
-involves antigens in donor’s plasma that react to recipients blood
-abrupt onset: SOB, hypoxia, fever, hypotension, pulmonary edema

93
Q

what is shock?

A

circulatory failure that leads to hypoperfusion which leads to clotting cascade and death

94
Q

key symptoms of shock

A

tachycardia, hypotension, anxiety, restlessness, inc. resp rate, cyanosis, dec. urine output, cold, clammy, mottled skin

95
Q

measuring/monitoring shock and perfusion

A

-ABGs = can see metabolic acidosis
-lactate levels: elevated = tissue damage
-CBC: anemia, infection, coagulopathies
-Urine output (30mL/hr)
-MAP and pusle pressure
-BMP: glucose, lytes, BUN, Cr

96
Q

compensatory shock findings

A

-HR >100
-inc. resp.
-cold, clammy skin, slow cap refill
-dec. urine output
-mental: confused or agitated
-acid-base balance: respiratory alkalosis

97
Q

progressive shock findings

A

-BP: sys<100, <65 map, requires fluids resucitation to support blood pressure
-HR >150
-skin: mottling, petechia, very slow cap refill
-minimal to no urinary output
-acid-base balance: metabolic acidosis

98
Q

irreversible shock findings

A

-bp require mechanical or pharm support
-HR: erratic
-skin: jaundice
-urinary output: requires dialysis + anuric
-mental: unconscious
-acid-base balance: profound acidosis
-MODS
-death is likely to occur

99
Q

early signs of shock

A

-systolic bp <100 or drop of 40mmhg or more from baseline
-MAP less than 65 and narrowing pulse pressure
-resp. rate greater than 22
-chances in LOC, reduced urinary output
-skin changes: mottling, prolonged cap refill
-lab values: lactic acid, elevated sodium, elevated glucose, blood cx

100
Q

vasoactive medications

A

-used when fluid therapy alone does not maintain a MAP >65
-require continuous monitoring and never stop it abruptly
-central line preferred, extravasation, necrosis of distal extremities

101
Q

hypovolemic shock

A

-empty tank/pipes
-fluid replacement
-oxygenation
-potential vasoactive medications
-can be caused be external fluid loss or internal fluid shifts (burns, hemorrhage, ascites, surgery)

102
Q

cardiogenic shock

A

-pump malfunction
-dec. CO
-caused by MI/cardiac arrhythmias, valve stenosis, medication overdose, lyte imbalances
-chest pain/SOB/sweating
-fluid replacement but never rapid bolus
-correct underlying cause
-monitor labs, BP/MAP, I/Os

103
Q

obstructive shock

A

-clogged pipes
-decreased cardiac function by noncardiac factor
-caused by: PE, cardiac tamponade, tension pneumo
-s/sx: hypotension, tachycardia, chest pain, tachypnea/dyspnea, hypoxia
-needle decompression if tension pneumo

104
Q

distributive shock

A

-pipe malfunction
-excessive vasodilation
-caused by sepsis, spinal cord injury, anaphylaxsis
-loss of sympathetic tone or biochemical mediators that cause vasodilation
=

105
Q

neurogenic distributive shock

A

-damage to nervous system (loss of sympathetic tone)
-causes: SCI above T6, spinal anesthesia complications, guillain-barre syndrome, other causes of nervous system damage
-s/sx: dry, warm skin (SQ vasodilation)

106
Q

neurogenic shock managemnt

A

-support cardiovascular and neurologic functioning (fluid replacement+vasoactive meds to maintain MAP and manage bradycardia)
-treat underlying cause
-if pt. receives spinal or epidural anesthesia, elevate HOB at least 30 degrees to prevent spread of anesthetic agent up the spinal cord
-monitor closely for VTE because of increase pooling of blood

107
Q

anaphylactic distributive shock

A

-severe allergic reaction
-s/sx 2-30 min: can sometimes manifest hours later, HA, lightheadedness, N/V/abd pain, pruitis
-recognition: erythema, generalized flushing, pruitis, dyspnea, laryngeal/angioedema, bronchospasm, stridor, hypotension

108
Q

anaphylactic distributive shock management

A

-rapid recognition and response: remove causative agent, remove items around swollen extremities, elevated legs
-IM epinephrine, IV diphenhydramine
-Supp. O2
-fluid therapy/vasoactive meds
-intubation for resp. arrest
-CPR for cardiac arrest

109
Q

distributive shock: sepsis and septic shock

A

-most common type of distributive shock
-bloodstream, lungs, urinary tract
-systemic inflammatory response syndrome results in hypoperfusion, mirrors stages of shock
-fever, elevated WBC, flushed skin, bounding pulses, elevated RR, mental status changes

110
Q

risk factors for distributive shock: sepsis and septic shock

A

-large open wounds
-invasive devices
-age (older adults, children)
-immunosuppression
-type 2 diabetes mellitus
-malnutrition
-recent surgery

111
Q

medical management of septic shock

A

-early recognition
-obtain lab work (lactate, CBC, Cr, BG, BUN)
-removal of all invasive devices in suspected pts
initiate abx therapy (broad spectrum first, then targeted once culture results come back
-fluid theraoy
-vasoactive medications for MAP >65
-nutritional therapy

112
Q

healthcare associated infections

A

-central line assocaited bloodstream infections
-catheter-associated urinary tract infections
-pneumonia (due to ventilator)
-1/31 hospitalized pts. affected by an HAI at any one time
-increased mortality/length of stay
-many are preventible
-MRSA, C.diff, vancomycin resistant enterococci (VRE)
-carpapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae (CRE)
-multi-drug resistant gram-negative rods (MDR-GNR)

113
Q

HA pneumonia

A

-develops 48 hours or more after admission to facility
-most common HAI
-high mortality
-usually bacterial
-caused by inhilitation of organisms, aspiration of secretions, contaminated respiratory equipment

114
Q

preventing pneumonia

A

-hand hygiene
-proper use of standard precautions
-turn,cough,deep breathe
-incentive spirometry
-early ambulation
-hydration
-oral care

115
Q

CLABSI prevention

A

-hand hygiene prior to insertion
-avoid femoral vein if possible
-maximum sterile barrier precautions
-chlorhecidine for skin prep
-use of checklist

116
Q

bloodstream infection prevention

A

-hand hygiene prior to handling catheter
-scrub the hub for 15 sec
-assess the site
-maintain closed system if possible
-dont get the site wet
-change tubing and drsg per facility protocol
-wear gloves

118
Q

CDC appropriate recommendations for urinary catheter use

A

-acute urinary retention or bladder outlet obstruction
-need for accurate measurement of urine output in critically ill pts.
-perioperative use for selected surgical procedures
-to assist in healing of open sacral or perineal wounds in incontinent pts.
-pts. who require prolonged immbolization
-improve comfort for end of life care

119
Q

proper foley care and maintenance

A

-regular foley and perineal care using soap and water
-ensure tubing is without kinks/loops
-maintain drainage bag below the level of the bladder
-keep bag off of the floor
-maintain the seal
-empty the bag regularly
-secure after insertion
-proper specimen collection
-remove asap!

120
Q

COVID-19

A

-droplets, exhaled aerosols (breathing, speaking, coughing, sneezing)
-can remain indoors for hours

121
Q

Zika

A

-bites of infected mosquito
-can cause microcephaly in infants infected in the womb
-avoid travel to high-risk areas

122
Q

Ebola

A

-direct contact w/ blood or fluids, breast milk/semen
-avoid contact with fluids until the virus is gone from everything

123
Q

infectious diseases that require droplet precautions

A

-influenza
-rubella
-mumps
-meningitis

124
Q

infectious diseases that require airborne precautions

A

-TB
-covid-19

125
Q

infectious diseases that require contact precautions

A

-MDR-GNR
-C-diff.
-MRSA
-Ebola
Anything skin

126
Q

genomics

A

The study of the interaction of all genes in the human genome

127
Q

genome

A

Complete set of genetic instructions

128
Q

genotype

A

Genetic structure and variations that we inherit from parents

129
Q

phenotype

A

physical, biochemical, and physiologic genetic makeup that
generates our physical presentation

130
Q

epigenetics

A

changes in the expression of a gene due to environmental
exposure; personal health activity

131
Q

pharmacogenetics

A

Study of safety and efficacy of medication admin based
on a person’s genotype

132
Q

DNA

A

-code tells our cells how to make proteins
-Complete set of DNA = genome (~20,000 genes and 23 pairs of chromosomes)
-each nucleotide contains sugar, phosphate group and nitrogen base (4 types)

133
Q

nitrogen bases

A

-Adenine (A)
-Thymine (T)
-Cytosine (C)
-Guanine (G)
A with T and G with C

134
Q

mutations + DNA damage

A

-mutations are permanent changes in DNA
-diseases such as cystic fibrosis, sickle cell, cancer, heart disease +

135
Q

genes + chromosomes

A

-genes are arranged in chromosomes
-each cell has 46 chromosome pairs (except eggs and sperm (23))
-of the 23 chromosomes: 22 are autosomes, and 1 sex chromosome

136
Q

down syndrome

A

-not typically inherited
-Three copies of the 21 chromosome
-can lead to cardiac defects, thyroid, muscular tone issues, cognitive function, eyes, motor skills

137
Q

autosomal dominant inheritance

A

child has inherited a mutation in a gene that gives them a higher chance of developing a condition compared with someone without mutation (50% chance per child)

138
Q

autosomal recessive inheritance

A

one mutated gene is inherited from each parents. Parents each carry one mutated gene and one normal gene (parent does not have disease) (50% chance child is carrier, 25% chance not affected/affected)

139
Q

X-linked inheritance

A

-genetic conditions associated w/ mutations in genes on the X chrmosome
-can be recessive or dominant pattern
-if a male carries the mutation they will be affecyed with the dieases becasue he only has 1 X chromosome

140
Q

most common x-linked recessive inheritance situation

A

-female carrier (x-linked recessive)
-50% chance of passing mutation to son (would have disease)
-50% chance of passing to daughter who would be a carrier like the mother

141
Q

multifactorial inheritance

A

-birth defects, heart disease, cancer, osteroarthritis, diabetes, neural tube defects
-may see clusters in families, but nor predictable pattern of inheritance

142
Q

genetic screening

A

-used when no signs/symptoms of a disorder
-estimate whether an individual’s risk of having of having a condition is increased/decreased compared with risk of similar population
-can be false positives or false negatives

143
Q

genetic testing

A

-used w/ signs and symptoms
-used to confirm or rule out certain conditions
-can also help to confirm or rule out certain conditions
-can also help inform a persons’ chance of developing a condition and passing down to a child
-can be performed before birth or during life