Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is public health surveillance, an aspect of emergency and trauma nursing?

A

-reporting frequent symptoms of patients that have similar histories

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2
Q

Example of an ER nurse using public health surveillance ?

A

-multiple patients have sx of gastroenteritis and ate at the same restaurant –> ER nurse reports this to the community

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3
Q

Why does disaster preparedness matter for a nurse working in the ER?

A

-contains policies and procedures so nurses know how to respond
-determines how many patients they can accept

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4
Q

What is a critical access hospital?

A

-small community hospital with 24/7 emergency areas

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5
Q

Requirements to be considered a critical access hospital?

A

-25 beds or less
- >35 miles from another hospital
-24/7 emergency area

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6
Q

How do inter professional specialty teams work in emergency and trauma nursing

A

-respond to specific patient scenarios
-ex : STEMI team, rapid response team, code team

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7
Q

What is the environment like in the emergency department?

A

-fast-paced
-challenging
-stimulating

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8
Q

Why is it important for nurses to continuously monitor patients in the ED?

A

patient acuteness changes very rapidly

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9
Q

What are a few of the most common reasons patients seek care in the ED?

A

-abdominal pain
-breathing difficulties
-CP
-fever
-Head ache
-injuries (common in older adults due to falls)
-pain (the most common sx)

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10
Q

who are vulnerable populations seen as patients in the ED

A

-homeless/ poor
-mental illness pts
-substance abuse concerns
-older adults

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11
Q

What are reasons why a person experiencing homelessness may come to the ED?

A

-cannot be refused
-no insurance
-shelter and food

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12
Q

What is important to remember as a nurse in the ED when a patient is homeless?

A

-help them find resources in the community
-do not bring bias

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13
Q

Examples of members of the inter professional team we encounter in the ED?

A

-SANE nurses
-Psychiatric crisis nurse team
-ER physicians
-ED techs
-physician specialties (cardiologist, neurologist)
-NPs, PAs, Residents

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14
Q

Communication in emergency settings uses the _____ method

A

SBAR
-situation
-background
-assessment
-recommendation

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15
Q

Why is the SBAR method an efficient way to communicate?

A

-offers precise communication
-reduces confusion
-reduces med errors

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16
Q

Most medication errors are a result of?

A

poor communication

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17
Q

How to identify patients in the emergency room to maintain their safety?

A

-use ID bracelet
-use two identifiers (name and DOB)

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18
Q

If an identity is unknown or privacy is to be protected, what is used to identify patients in the ER?

A

-special identification systems

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19
Q

What is a very common injury for patients in the ED?

A

-skin breakdown, falls, errors, misidentifications

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20
Q

How to prevent injury to patients in the ED

A

-keep rails up on stretcher
-orient to call light
-have someone at the bedside for confused patients
-minimize risk of skin breakdown
-perform frequent skin assessments

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21
Q

How to prevent adverse events/ errors in the ED?

A

-get thorough patient and family hx
-check pt for med alert bracelet or necklace
-search belongings for weapons or drugs

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22
Q

How to prevent injury to staff working in the ED?

A

-use standard precautions
-anticipate hostile or violent behavior
-have a plan for violence
-contact security

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23
Q

Core competencies of the ED RN include?

A

-multitasking
-critical thinking
-priority setting
-adaptability
-time management
-documentation
-assessment

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24
Q

What kind of system is used to triage patients in the ED?

A

-3 tier system

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25
Q

Triage is based on patients from _____ to _____ acuity

A

highest -> lowest

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26
Q

What are the components of the 3 tier system used in triage

A

-emergent / life threatening
-urgent /quickly (not life threatening)
-non urgent (can wait w/o fear of deterioration)

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27
Q

Why may triage in the ED be frustrating to some patients

A

-it is not a first come first serve system like they are used to

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28
Q

Ex of triaging: PNA in older adult

A

urgent

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29
Q

Ex of triaging: pt has a rash

A

non urgent

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30
Q

Ex of triaging: pt has abd pain

A

urgent

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31
Q

Ex of triage: pt has abd pain, BP of 85/60, and HR 140

A

emergent

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32
Q

Example of triage: sx of stroke

A

emergent

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33
Q

Example of triage: simple fracture

A

nonurgent

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34
Q

What is disposition in the ED?

A

-where they will go after
-med-surg, surgery, ICU, SNF, rehab

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35
Q

Who is involved in the decision making of disposition for a patient

A

-case management
-nurses, physicians
-patient and family

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36
Q

Trauma centers are graded by what levels?

A

1 - 4

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37
Q

Explain a level 1 trauma center

A

-urban area
-large teaching hospital
-full spectrum of trauma services and specialties
-includes peds
-research is required

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38
Q

Explain a level 2 trauma center

A

-community based
-cares for most injuries
-transfers if needed

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39
Q

Explain a level III trauma center

A

-community based
-stabilizes major injuries but usually transfers

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40
Q

Describe a level IV trauma center

A

-rural and remote communities
-basic trauma stabilization and ACLS
-arranges transfers

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41
Q

What is the primary survey?

A

a very quick focused initial assessment

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42
Q

components of the primary survey

A

A - airway and cervical spine
B - breathing
C - circulation
D - neuro status
E - exposure
(exposure of body such as removing clothes, exposure to chemicals, extreme cold or heat, environment)

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43
Q

For massive uncontrolled bleeding, the primary survey changes to

A

CABDE

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44
Q

A spinal cord injury at C2 can lead to

A

airway and breathing difficulties

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45
Q

When addressing airway and cervical spine, which one is done first

A

-airway still before cervical spine
ex: clear airway then apply c-collar

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46
Q

What does the secondary survey consist of?

A

-comprehensive head to toe
-tubes, lines, diagnostics
-treatments, dressings

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47
Q

Heat-related illnesses usually occur in temperatures and humidity greater than

A

> 95 degrees f
80% humid

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48
Q

Sx of heat exhaustion include

A

-faint or dizzy
-excessive sweating
-cool, pale, clammy skin
-rapid, weak pulse
-muscle cramps

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49
Q

Why do we get muscle cramps with heat exhaustion

A

electrolyte imbalances

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50
Q

Interventions for heat exhaustion include

A

-get in cool water (shower, lake)
-get to a cool, air conditioned place
-cool fluids
-cold compresses to face, neck, groin, underarms, etc

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51
Q

Is heat stroke considered a medical emergency

A

yes

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52
Q

Manifestations of heat stroke include

A

-throbbing headache
-no sweating
-red, hot, dry skin
-rapid, strong pulse
-unconsciousness

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53
Q

Is it important to call 911 for heat stroke?

A

YES

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54
Q

What internal body temperature is considered heat stroke

A

> 104

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55
Q

Why do we use cool IV fluids for those with heat stroke

A

decrease internal body temp

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56
Q

What kind of thermometer should we use for those with heat stroke

A

rectal bc it is most accurat

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57
Q

Why should we reduce shivering in patients with heat stroke

A

shivering raises BMR and increases use of energy and stress on the body

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58
Q

What can we give to reduce shivering in clients with heat stroke>

A

Benzes or muscle relaxers

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59
Q

Cooling guidelines for heat stroke include

A

use interventions until internal temp 102, then slowly back off measures

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60
Q

Can cooling blankets be used for heat stroke>

A

yes

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61
Q

Who is at increased risk of heat related injuries

A

old age, children, construction workers, people experiencing homelessness, those that are dehydrated

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62
Q

Prevention is key in reducing the occurrence of

A

cold related injuries (hypothermia or frostbite)

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63
Q

Clothing recommendations to prevent cold weather injuries

A

-use synthetic fabric and fleece thermal layers
-use wool clothing
-do NOT wear cotton

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64
Q

why should clients out in the cold not wear cotton

A

-cotton holds water

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65
Q

Using thick wool socks are important to preventing cold related injuries, but what is one aspect we should consider

A

too many layers can decrease circulation

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66
Q

Other education we should provide to prevent cold related injuries

A

carry cold weather supplies at all times
carry extra clothes, food, and water

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67
Q

Mild hypothermia temp ranges

A

90-95 degrees F

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68
Q

Moderate hypothermia temp ranges

A

82.4-90

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69
Q

Severe hypothermia temp rages

A

< 82.4

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70
Q

risk factors for cold related injuries include

A

-low BMI
-circulatory disorders
-hypothyroidism
-being submerged in water
-children and older adults
-homelessess
-alcohol and other substances

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71
Q

Pre-hospital interventions for hypothermia

A

-remove wet clothes
-blanket
-warm fluids

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72
Q

Hospital interventions for hypothermia

A

-bear hugger
-warming blankets

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73
Q

Should we re-warm the periphery or core first in hypothermia

A

core!

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74
Q

What is after-drop>

A

When extremities get warmed before the core

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75
Q

Why is after-drop important to prevent?

A

warming the periphery first sends cold blood back to the core and vital organs

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76
Q

Interventions to warm the core of the body include

A

-warm IV fluids
-warmed oxygen
-dialysis (warm blood)
-cardio-pulmonary bypass machines

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77
Q

Can someone be pronounced dead before they are completely re-warmed?

A

NO

-cannot effectively evaluate neurologic status until they are re-warmed

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78
Q

What is the definition of frost bite?

A

inadequate insulation from cold leading to freezing tissue

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79
Q

Frostbites is graded on a ____ to ____ scale

A

1 to 4

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80
Q

Grade 1 frostbite characteristics

A

red, swollen

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81
Q

Grade 2 frostbite characteristics

A

blisters filled with white fluid

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82
Q

Grade 3 frostbite characteristics

A

-red-brown, dark colored fluid
-nonblancheable
-may require debridement

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83
Q

Grade 4 frostbite characteristics

A

-necrosis
-infection and gangrene
-amputation

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84
Q

Pre-hospital treatment of frostbiteq

A

-get out of cold
-place hands in armpits, between groin
-get blankets

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85
Q

Hospital treatment of frostbite

A

-water bath
-pain control
-elevate extremities (prevent edema)
-tetanus immunization

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86
Q

What is a water bath treatment for frost bite?

A

-take extremity and place in water > 99 degrees

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87
Q

considerations for water bath treatment

A

-it is extremely painful! premedicate
-do not hit the sides of the container

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88
Q

Poisonous snakes in North America include

A

rattlesnakes, copperheads, cottonmouths, coral snakes

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89
Q

red on yellow

A

kills a fellow

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90
Q

red on black

A

venom lacks

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91
Q

Prevention of snake bite

A

-dont touch
-wear long pants
-do not grab mouth after decapitation

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92
Q

Main risk from snake bites include

A

-losing the airway
(snake venom can cause loss of airway)

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93
Q

Pre-hospital interventions from snake bite

A

-remain very calm
-remove jewelry due to swelling
-immobilize at the level of the heart
-do NOT use ice

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94
Q

Why do we not use ice for a snake bite

A

Ice decreases blood flow

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95
Q

Can we use a tourniquet in a snake bite

A

no

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96
Q

Should clients try and suck the venom out of snake bites

A

no

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97
Q

Hospital interventions for snake bites

A

-intubation supplies
-IV start
-anti-venom administered
-fluids
-pain meds
-EKG
-tele

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98
Q

What can we do to monitor the site of snake bite

A

-mark the site to note any changes

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99
Q

Arthropods that can bite or sting humans include

A

spiders, scorpions, bees, wasps

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100
Q

Spiders that produce toxic reactions include

A

-brown recluse
-black widows

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101
Q

How to prevent bites from spiders

A

-do NOT stick hands in dark places
-spray your home
-long sleeve clothes and boots

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102
Q

Prehospital interventions for spider bites

A

-cold compress and ice
- do NOT apply heat
- elevate limb

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103
Q

Hospital interventions for spider bites

A

-tetanus shot
-epinephrine
-circle site
-airway, oxygen, EKG, etc

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104
Q

Where do most lightning strikes occur

A

Florida (due to golf)

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105
Q

Adverse effects of lightning strikes include

A

-heart stopping
-dysrhythmias
-burns
-falling
-spinal cord injuries
-neuro status changes

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106
Q

Hospital interventions for lightning strike

A

-apply tele
-obtain EKG
-intubation supplies
-tetanus shot
-neuro assessment

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107
Q

the O2 percent at sea level is

A

21 % and decreases as you get higher in altitude

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108
Q

Altitude related illnesses risk occur at this elevation

A

2500+

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109
Q

Increased altitude = _____ barometric pressure

A

decreased (which means less oxygen)

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110
Q

What MUST be done to help prevent altitude related illnesses

A

acclimate to the changes in O2 slowly

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111
Q

What are HAD and AMS

A

-high-altitude disease
-acute mountain sickness

-can occur as altitude related illnesses

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112
Q

what is HACE

A

-high altitude cerebral edema

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113
Q

manifestations of HACE

A

-neuro changes
-loss of balance
-tremors
-confusion
-increased ICP
-headaches
-etc

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114
Q

treatment for HACE

A

dexamethasone

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115
Q

what is HAPE

A

high altitude pulmonary edema

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116
Q

manifestations of HAPE

A

-resp changes
-SOB, cough, dyspnea, etc

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117
Q

Treatment of HAPE

A

slidenafil

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118
Q

ALL altitude related illnesses will cause

A

Manifestations of hypoxia

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119
Q

What medication can be given to reduce the risk of altitude related illnesses

A

acetazolamide

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120
Q

When should acetazolamide be taken>

A

-24 h prior to ascent and the next two days into trip

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121
Q

How does acetazolamide work

A

Induces metabolic acidosis –> increases RR –> increases O2 saturation

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122
Q

Prehospital treatment of altitude related illnesses

A

go back down
O2

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123
Q

Hospital treatment of altitude related illenss

A

-give O2
-treat symptoms

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124
Q

The leading cause of accidental deaths in the US is

A

drowning

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125
Q

Prevention of drownign

A

-do not swim alone
-check the depth of water
-teach swimming
-no drinking or drugs
-fences around pool
-signage
-etc

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126
Q

Why is it important to check the depth of water

A

people dive in shallow water –> cervical spine injury –> drown

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127
Q

What is key to assess in drowning situations

A

quantity and makeup of the water

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128
Q

Do fresh and salt water produce relatively the same effects?

A

yes

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129
Q

One key thing to note about salt water drowning?

A

-pulls water from other tissues into the lungs
therefore increases risk for hypovolemia

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130
Q

Why are clients that drowned at increase risk of PNA

A

contaminates in the water may cause infection

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131
Q

Pre-hospital interventions for drowning

A

-spine stabilization
-maintaining airway
-performing CPR

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132
Q

Hospital interventions for drowning

A

-CPR
-defibrillation
-NGT
-tele, EKG
-abx right away

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133
Q

Why do we insert NGT for clients who have drowned

A

-water can also accumulate in stomach, esophagus, intestines, etc
-helps decrease vomiting

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134
Q

Internal disasters occur

A

in the hospital (such as flooding or fire)

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135
Q

External disasters occur

A

outside (tornadoes, flooding)

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136
Q

When is something classified as a disaster

A

illness or injury exceeds resources available

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137
Q

START triage vs normal triage

A

-start triage includes class IV

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138
Q

Class I of START triage

A

-emergent
-immediate threat to life
-red tag

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139
Q

Class II of START triage

A

-urgent or class II
-major injuries sustained
-yellow tag

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140
Q

Class III of START triage

A

-nonurgent
-minor injuries
-green tag

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141
Q

What is the meaning of walking wounded?

A

-those that can walk after mass casualty are a green tag

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142
Q

Class IV of START triage

A

-expectant
-allowed to die
-black tag

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143
Q

tagging during a mass casualty event should take how long

A

less than one minute per person

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144
Q

A person who is bleeding can die from blood loss within

A

5 minutes

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145
Q

How to stop the bleed

A
  1. apply pressure with both hands
  2. apply pressure with dressing or clothing
  3. apply tourniquet
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146
Q

Where should a tourniquet be applied

A

2-3 inches closer to the torso than the bleed

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147
Q

Who is the Hospital Incident Commander

A

-physician or administrator in charge of implementing and leading disaster plan

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148
Q

Who is the Medical Command Physician

A

-physician who decided the number, acuity, and resource needs of patients

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149
Q

Who is the triage officer

A

-physician or nurse who rapidly evaluates each patient to determine priority treatment

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150
Q

Who is the Community Relations or Public Information Officer

A

-the liaison between HCF and outside media

151
Q

What should be done after a disaster occurrence?

A

-hospital staff debriefing
-addresses needs of HCP

152
Q

During the debriefing period following a disaster, what is important to remember

A

the psychosocial and response of survivors

-meaning HCP

153
Q

How are burns classified

A

-by the degree of burns
-by the degree of thickness

154
Q

What skin layer is a superficial first degree burn

A

only top of epidermis

155
Q

Characteristics of superficial first degree burns

A

-red, dry, pain
-no edema, blisters, eschar

156
Q

How quickly do superficial first degree burns heal

157
Q

What skin layer is a superficial partial thickness second degree burn

A

epidermis and into dermis

158
Q

Characteristics of a superficial partial thickness burn

A

-moist red, blanches
-mild-mod edema
-pain worse
-blistering occurs

159
Q

How long does a superficial partial thickness burn take to heal

160
Q

What skin layer is a deep partial thickness second degree burn

A

entire epidermis and deep into dermis

161
Q

Characteristics of a deep partial thickness burn

A

-less moist, less blanching, less painful
-moderate edema
-blistering rare
-soft/dry eschar

162
Q

Healing of a deep partial thickness burn

A

-2-6 weeks
-possible skin graft
-scarring, contraction, and issues re-epithelializing occur

163
Q

What layer is a full thickness 3rd degree burn

A

entire dermis and into subcutaneous fat

164
Q

Characteristics of a full thickness burn

A

-dry, black/brown/yellow/white
-may be red
-severe edema
-no pain
-no blisters

165
Q

Healing process of a full thickness burn

A

-hard eschar
-skin is non elastic
-will take weeks to months
-skin grafts needed
-contraction and scar deposition

166
Q

What layers are a deep full thickness 4th degree burn

A

damage to bone, muscle, tendon

167
Q

Characteristics of a deep full thickness burn

A

-black
-severe edema
-no pain or blisters
-hard eschar

168
Q

healing process of deep full thickness burn

A

weeks - months
grafting may not work

169
Q

What is the Rule of 9’s?

A

used to calculate TBSA burned

170
Q

Examples of dry heat burns

A

-open flames
-explosions
-flash burns

171
Q

Examples of moist heat burns

A

-scalding injuries
-water, steam, hot liquids, thermal burns to lungs

172
Q

Examples of contact burns

A

-hot metal
-hot tar
-hot grease
-touching hot surface

173
Q

Examples of chemical burns

A

-anything involving chemical
-could be occupational
-could occur at home

174
Q

The longer a chemical is on the skin can cause

A

more severe burns

175
Q

What is important to remember about chemical burn

A

may cause systemic effects

176
Q

What are examples of electrical burns

A

-from an outlet
-from lightning strike

177
Q

How do electrical burns occur?

A

the current of the electricity generates heat

178
Q

What is a key consideration for electrical burns

A

-may see clear entry and exit wounds
-wound may be small
-internal damage can be MUCH greater

179
Q

Examples of radiation burns

A

-cancer treatments
-industrial exposure
-sun exposure
-x-rays

180
Q

Water heaters at home should be set less than ___ to prevent burns

A

140 degrees

181
Q

Fire places should be cleaned ____ to prevent fires

182
Q

where should co2 and smoke detectors be placed

A

-every bedroom
-each hallway
-in kitchen
-in stairways
-entrances of home

183
Q

How long is the emergent (resuscitation) phase of burn treatment

A

time of injury up to 48 hours

184
Q

What interventions are done during the resuscitation phase of burn treatmen

A

-based on severity of burns
-airway and circulation
-help regulate body temp
-pain relief and emotional support

185
Q

How long is the acute (healing phase) of burn treatment

A

begins 36-48 h after injury and lasts until burn injury is complete

186
Q

What interventions are done during the acute healing phase of burn treatment

A

-prevent fluid shifting
-promote rest
-respiratory, wound care, and nutrition begin to play a role

187
Q

How long is the Rehabilitative (restorative) phase of burn treatmet

A

-begins at time of admission through highest level of function

(longest phase)

188
Q

What interventions are implemented during the rehabilitative phase of burn treatmetn

A

-psychosocial funcitoning
-preventing scarring
-preventing contractures
-help to resume activities

189
Q

Why should we know the patient’s Ht and Wt before the burn injury

A

-help determine how much fluid resuscitation is needed
-helps know how much edema is present

190
Q

Should clients with burns receive the tetanus shot

191
Q

Other things we need to know to treat burn injuries?

A

-how it ocured
-source of injury
-current meds taken or other conditions
-other injuries sustained
-allergies

192
Q

Black around a persons nose, face, neck may indicate

A

inhalation injury

193
Q

How can heat from burns affect the airway

A

causes lining of bronchi to slough off –> airway swells –> gas exchange worsens

194
Q

Wheezing heard on auscultation of lung sounds after burns may indicat

A

-partial obstruction
-need for intubation

195
Q

The cardiac assessment following burns should include

A

-addressing fluid shifts
-BP and hypovolemia
-tachycardia presence
-cardiac output
-increasing IV fluids if needed

196
Q

The skin assessment following a burn should include

A

-calculation of TBSA
-determining depth of burns
-determining risk of infection

197
Q

The inflammatory response following a burn can do what

A

suppress the immune system’s ability to fight off infection

198
Q

What can hypovolemia due to the gi tract

A

decrease blood flow –> decrease peristalsis –> increase risk of paralytic ileus

199
Q

Other than bowel sounds, nurses should perform a gastrointestinal assessment following burns to evaluate

A

-presence of gi distention which can be caused by increased intestinal secretions and gases

200
Q

What is a curlings ulcer?

A

peptic ulcer commonly found in patients with burn

201
Q

How to prevent curlings ulcer in patients with burn

A

-put them on prophylactic medications
-PPI or histamine blockers

202
Q

Burns can increase the release of these hormones?

A
  1. catecholamines (epi and norepinephrine)
  2. ADH
  3. aldosterone
  4. cortisol
203
Q

Diet for patients following a burn includes

A

-increased need for proteins, fat, calories

204
Q

Can intubation be performed prophylactically in patients with burns?

A

yes
-may be done to reduce airway swelling

205
Q

What is important to remember before performing a dressing change on a burn wound

A

-extremely panful
-premedicate at least 30 minutes before

206
Q

Infection control for patient with burns interventions

A

-tetanus
-prophylactic abx

207
Q

Wound healing for patients with burns interventions

A

-compression garments

208
Q

Compression garments can be used to prevent

A

contractures and hypertrophic scars

209
Q

What formula is used to calculate burn resuscitation needs?

A

parkland formula

210
Q

What fluids are used for burn resuscitation

A

-crystalloid fluids
-LR or NS (LR more common)

211
Q

what is the parkland formula?

A

4ml x kg x TBSA (rule of 9’s)

212
Q

What is the actual leading cause of death from fires?

A

CO2 poisoning

213
Q

Why is CO2 poisoning so common

A

-released during combustion
-tasteless, odorless, and colorless making it undetectable

214
Q

How does CO2 poisoning affect the body

A

-binds to hemoglobin in replace of oxygen
-knocks out oxygen carrying capacity

215
Q

Patients skin color with CO2 poisoning will be

A

cherry-red

216
Q

Manifestations of CO2 poisoning

A

-headache
-breathlessness
-drowsiness
-AMS
-death

217
Q

During co2 poisoning, BP will _____ and HR will _____

A

decrease ; increase

218
Q

Antibiotics for wound management of burns may be given

A

topical, IV, or PO

219
Q

Dressings for wound management of burns are typically managed by

A

wound care nurse

220
Q

Handwashing for wound management of burns is so important because

A

reduces risk of infection

221
Q

What is the primary concern in initial management of burns

A

fluid resuscitation

222
Q

What is the most common cause of death in burn patients in the first 24 hours

A

hypovolemic shock

223
Q

What is the importance of escharotomy in burn patients

A

to relieve pressure and improve circulation

224
Q

Which of the following is a priority in the acute phase of burn treatment?

A

fluid resuscitation

225
Q

What is so important to remember about electrical burns

A

-risk of dysrhythmias very high

226
Q

What is the role of silver in burn wound management

A

infection prevention

227
Q

Can burns cause compartment syndrome?

A

Yes
-remember 6 P’s

228
Q

what is the purpose of skin graft in burn treatment

A

-skin closure

229
Q

What is the recommend nutritional guidelines for burn patients

A

-high protein, high calorie

230
Q

What is the needed urine output for fluid resuscitation to be considered successful?

A

0.5-1ml / kg / h

231
Q

Psychological issues than can appear in patients following burns include

A

-PTSD
-anxiety
-depression

232
Q

All types of shock lead to issues with

A

perfusion and oxygenation

233
Q

What is hypovolemic shock

A

when there is inadequate volume of fluid in the body

234
Q

causes of hypovolemic shock include

A

-bleeding, DHD, vomiting, diuresis, burns, diarrhea

235
Q

What is cardiogenic shock

A

-when heart fails to pump, leading to decreased cardiac output

236
Q

Causes of cardiogenic shock include

A

-filling problem
-contraction problem
-conduction problem
-structural problem

237
Q

What can cause filling problems in patients that may lead to cardiogenic schock

A

-diastolic heart failure (pre-load affected because not enough stretch on heart)

238
Q

What can cause contraction problems in patients that may lead to cardiogenic shock

A

-systolic heart failure
-cardiomyopathy

239
Q

What can cause conduction problems in patents that may lead to cardiogenic shcok

A

-v-tach, v-fib, a-fib, bradycardias

240
Q

What are structural problems in the heart that my lead to cardiogenic shock in patients

A

-valvular disease

241
Q

What is obstructive shock?

A

caused by obstruction of cardiovascular system

242
Q

Causes of obstructive shock

A

-cardiac tamponade
-tension pneumothorax
-PE

243
Q

What is distributive shock

A

when blood volume is redistributed to interstitial tissues

244
Q

Causes of distributive shock include

A

-sepsis
-anaphylaxis
-spinal cord injuries –> neurogenic shock

245
Q

How does sepsis cause distributive shock

A

vessels dilate –> vessels leak into tissues –> intravascular space depletes

246
Q

How does anaphylaxis cause distributive shock

A

histamine is released –> bronchospasm and vasodilation occur

247
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylactic shock

A

epinephrine

(epi vasoconstricts and bronchodilates)

248
Q

How does a spinal cord injury lead to neurogenic shock

A
  1. vessels not getting sympathetic stimulation –> tone decreases and vessels dilate

heart not getting sympathetic stimulation –> HR and CO decrease

249
Q

Why is neurogenic shock special

A

it also affects the heart so we have no compensatory mechanism

250
Q

Neurogenic shock is the ONLY shock where we give what medication?

251
Q

What are the four stages of shock?

A
  1. initiation
  2. compensatory
  3. progressive
  4. refractory
252
Q

What is happening during the initiation phase of shock?

A
  1. Hypoperfusion
  2. Baseline MAP decreased by <10 mmhm
  3. BP decreases by 10 pts
  4. HR barely increases
253
Q

What does MAP tell us

A

how well organs are being perfused

254
Q

Why is the initiation phase of shock often missed

A

changes are not large enough to promote concern

255
Q

What occurs during the compensatory phase of shock?

A

-compensatory mechanisms begin to work

256
Q

What are the compensatory mechanisms we will see during the compensatory phase of shock?

A
  1. increased HR
  2. increased blood sugar
  3. reabsorption of sodium and water
  4. hyperventilation
257
Q

Why do we see increase in HR and contractility during the compensatory stage of shcok

A

-trying to increase CO to increase perfusion and oxygenation to tissues

258
Q

What is the only type of shock where we will not see an increase in HR as a compensatory mechanism

A

neurogenic

259
Q

Why does blood sugar increase during the compensatory stage of shock

A

-body is under stress which triggers the release of cortisol

260
Q

Why is increased blood sugar bad during septic shock

A

-gives bacteria something to feed on –> can make the sepsis worse and harder to treat

261
Q

Why do the kidneys reabsorb sodium and water during the compensatory stage of shock

A

increase volume of circulating blood and help retain fluid

262
Q

What hormones are used to help kidneys reabsorb water and sodium

A

-aldosterone
-antidiuretic hormone

263
Q

During the compensatory stage of shock, we will begin to notice urine output

A

decrease (due to kidneys)

264
Q

Why does a patient hyperventilate during the compensatory stage of shock

A

help receive more oxygen

265
Q

T or F: patients during the compensatory phase may begin to look better?

266
Q

what happens during the progressive stage of shock?

A

-compensatory mechanisms begin to fail
-MAP decreases by >20 mmHg

267
Q

During the progressive stage of shock, the HR may be very high but the BP will

A

be very low (compensatory mechanism failing)

268
Q

During the progressive stage of shock, the patient may be hyperventilating still, but our O2 saturation will be

A

continuously droppign

269
Q

A map of less than ____ indicates poor perfusion

270
Q

T or F: weak pulses and skin color changes can occur during the progressive stage of shock

271
Q

What happens during the refractory period of shock>

A

-become unresponsive to therapy
-MODS (organ failure)

272
Q

Cardiac symptoms of shock include

A

-tachycardia (not neurogenic)
-decreased BP
-pale and cool skin
-decreased cap refill
-diminished pulses

273
Q

Respiratory symptoms of shock include

A

-hyperventilation
-cyanosis
-decreased oxygenation

274
Q

Renal symptoms of shock include

A

-decreased urinary outpt

275
Q

Skin changes seen during shock include

A

-pale, cyanotic
-cool to touch
-mottled

276
Q

Gastrointestinal changes during shock

A

blood is shunted away to vital organs
-hypoactive bowel sounds
-constipation

277
Q

Why is lactate increased during shock

A

cells do not have enough oxygen –> anaerobic metabolism begins

278
Q

the higher the lactate, the ____ the hypoxia

279
Q

the ABG of a client with shock will show

A

respiratory acidosis

280
Q

A caveat to the ABG in a patient with shock

A

-O2 may be increased during compensatory stage

281
Q

What lab evaluating cardiac muscle damage may be elevated during shock?

A

-Troponin (due to inadequate oxygenation of heart muscle)

(this is very common in cardiogenic)

282
Q

T or F? hematocrit and hemoglobin levels will be different based on which type of shock is occurring?

283
Q

Shock caused by hemorrhage will have increased or decrease H&H

284
Q

Shock caused by DHD will have increased or decreased H&H

285
Q

Everyone with shock should receive what interventions?

A

-fluids (blood, vasopressors, etc)
-O2 (via NC or ventilator)

286
Q

Hob positioning is very dependent on the patient because?

A

-HOB down promotes perfusion
-HOB down also increases WOB

(some patients may not be able to tolerate it, BUT if MAP is very low –> head dow)

287
Q

Glucose levels should be monitored how often during shock

288
Q

what is the only kind of insulin that can be given IV

289
Q

What is a central venous pressure line?

A

-measures the volume of blood in the heart
-great for patients with shock

290
Q

What are vasoconstrictors patients with shock may be given?

A

Norepinephrine
Phenylephrine

291
Q

Important nursing consideration for levofed/norepinephrine

A

-it is such an extreme vasoconstrictor pts can lose their fingers and toes due to decreased peripheral circulation

292
Q

What are inotropic agents that can be given during shock (mostly cardiogenic)

A

-dobutamine
-milrinone

293
Q

What are agents that enhance myocardial perfusion and given during shock?

A

-nitroprusside
-nitroglucerin

294
Q

What is HIV

A

human immunodeficiency virus

295
Q

What are T cells?

A

cells in our immune system

296
Q

What are CD4 cells?

A

-a type of T cell
-AKA T-helper cells

297
Q

CD4 cell function

A

-invite more immune cells to come help fight infection

298
Q

How does HIV affect CD4 cells

A

-invades T cells and destroys CD4 cells
-injects own genetic material into cells to create more

299
Q

What are the three stages of HIV

A

1: acute infection
2: clinical latency
3: AIDS

300
Q

What occurs during the first stage of HIV

A

-CD4 cells destroyed
-virus replicating rapidly

301
Q

What symptoms may occur during the first month of HIV infection?

A

Flu like symptoms
-bodyaches, fever, sweating, muscle aches, sore throat, rash, fever, etc

302
Q

Why is HIV often not detected during the acute infection stage?

A

Flu- like symptoms are often missed as HIV

303
Q

Can HIV be detected during the acute phase of infection?

A

No, because body has not had enough time to produce anti-bodies

-traditional HIV tests assess for antibodies

304
Q

What occurs during the clinical latency stage of HIV infection?

A

-body begins making antibodies
-flu like symptoms go away
-may be completely sx free

305
Q

How long can the clinical latency phase of HIV last

A

-decades even without tx

306
Q

What occurs during the AIDS stage of HIV infection

A

-HIV virus overwhelms the immune system again
-Immune system destroyed
-AIDS defining illnesses can occur

307
Q

A CD4 count of less than ___ is indicative of an AIDS diagnosis?

308
Q

Can a patient with HIV and a CD4 count greater than 200 be diagnosed with AIDS

A

yes, IF they have an AIDS-defining illness

-any patient with an AIDS defining illness will be considered as having AIDS

309
Q

What are AIDS-defining illnesses?

A

illnesses that would normally be able to fight off

-including certain types of cancers

310
Q

Is transmission possible in all stages of HIV- AIDS

311
Q

What are examples of AIDS defining illnesses?

A

-cytomegalovirus retinitis (with loss of vision)
-pneumocystitis Jiroveci pneumonia
-chronic intestinal cryptospoirdiosis
-HIV - related encephalopathy
-tuberculosis
-invasive cervical cancer

312
Q

can HIV be transmitted to the fetus during pregnancy>

313
Q

Women with HIV who are pregnant are at higher risk of

A

-premature delivery
-LBW
-transmission of virus

314
Q

How does HIV transmit from mom to baby

A

-placenta
-breasat milk

315
Q

Most cases of HIV are

A
  1. men who have sex with men
  2. either gender IVDA
316
Q

How many new cases of HIV are discovered annually?

A

40,000 with 25 % being women

317
Q

Is there a cure for HIV and AIDS

318
Q

What are the most common transmission of HIV?

A

-sexual
-parenteral (sharing needles)
-needlesticks (occupational_
-perinatal

319
Q

Can HIV spread via casual contact or insects?

320
Q

What fluids can spread HIV?

A

-blood
-semen
-vaginal fluid
-breastmilk
-amniotic cluid
-urine
-feces
-CSF

321
Q

How should we handle all patients to reduce the risk of spreading blood borne pathogens

A

use standard precautions for everyone
-gloves, handwashing, goggles, etc

322
Q

How to prevent transmission of HIV parenterally?

A

use standard precautions, educate on IV drugs, needle exchange programs

323
Q

We should educate IVDA to not do these things to limit their risk of HIV

A

-share needles
-reuse needles

324
Q

Prevention of perinatal transmission include

A

education on risk of transmisson

325
Q

Occupational prevention of HIV transmission includes

A

-reducing needlesticks
-use safety devices
-do not recap needles
-follow procedures

326
Q

T or F: HIV is more easily transmitted from infected male to unaffected female than vice versa

A

True! due to vaginal mucosa membranes, it is easier for vagina to enter body

327
Q

T or F: HIV can spread through anal intercourse

A

true (due to risk of tearing mucous membranes)

328
Q

Safe sex practices include?

A

-abstinence
-monogamous
-condoms

329
Q

all adults are recommended to be screened for HIV once between the ages of

330
Q

Are all pregnant women screened for HIV?

331
Q

Should those that use injection drugs be tested annually?

332
Q

How often should those who have been to prison, those are sex workers, or those who have had sex in countries where HIV is prevalent be tested

333
Q

If a patient received a blood transfusion between the years 1978-1985, how often should they be screened for HIV

334
Q

What is pre-exposure prophylaxis (PREP)

A

-medication for those who are at high risk of contracting HIV to take and lower their risk
-does NOT replace safe sex practices

335
Q

does PREP lower the risk of other STIs

336
Q

What medications are the PREP regimen

A

-Truvada (tenofovir and emtricitabine)
-Discovy (emtricitabine and tenofovir)

337
Q

Patient education for PREP

A

-take one tab daily
-Miss a day: you’re okay!
-Miss 2 days: must start over

338
Q

If a patient misses their PREP dose, two days in a row, how long are they not protected from HIV?

339
Q

PREP has a BBW for

A

hepatitis B

340
Q

those on PREP need RFT’s how often

341
Q

What is Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

A

Combination anti-retroviral therapy (cART) used after exposure to HIV to prevent contracting the infection

342
Q

What are three possible exposure categories that may be eligible for PEP?

A
  1. occupational exposure
  2. non-occupational exposure
  3. sexual assault
343
Q

PEP is a ____ drug regimen

344
Q

PEP should be started within how many hours or it is not as effective?

A

-preferrably start within 2 h of exposure
-loses effectiveness after 36 hours

345
Q

HIV testing following exposure, even while on PEP, should occur at

A

1 month
3 month
6 month

346
Q

What is the initial testing for HIV

A

rapid antibody test

347
Q

What labs are monitored in patients with HIV

A

-lymphocytes
-WBCs
-CD4 T cells

348
Q

What is the ELISA test?

A

-antibody antigen test
-enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay tests a patient’s blood sample for antibodies

349
Q

What is the Western blot?

A

-antibody-antigen test
-separates blood proteins and detects HIV antibodies
-used to confirm a positive ELISA

350
Q

How accurate are combined ELISA and western blot tests

351
Q

What is the HIV IgG antibodies test

A

immunoglobulin G most common antibody in blood

-HIV is associated with elevated IgG antibodies

352
Q

What are common respiratory infections seen in HIV

A

-pneumocystitis
-TB

353
Q

What are common brain infections seen in HIV

A

-encephalitis
-meningitis

354
Q

T or F: those with HIV are more at risk of intestinal infections

355
Q

What fungal infections are those with HIV at higher risk of contracting

356
Q

What other virus are those with HIV at risk of contracting

357
Q

What malignancy is a complication of HIV

A

kaposi sarcoma

358
Q

Psychosocial impacts of HIV include

A

-anxiety
-coping
-depression
-SI

359
Q

What should we do to prevent infection in hospitalized HIV patients at with reduced immunity

A

-wash hands frequently
-private room
-clean frequently used equipment or get their own
-clean room and bathroom

360
Q

What frequent assessments should we perform on hospitalized HIV patients at risk of infection

A

-IV site
-vitals sign monitoring
-mouth assessment
-skin assessment
-wound assessment

361
Q

Do we need to limit visitors for patients with HIV at risk of decreased immunity

362
Q

How can we prevent pneumonia in patients with HIV

A

-turn, cough, deep breathe
-encourage activity

363
Q

Do patients on cART require a lot of support

A

-yes; compliance to drugs is very burdensome and tiring

364
Q

What are some downsides of cART to treat HIV

A

-very expensive
-multiple drugs daily
-lifelong

365
Q

Patient teaching points for those with HIV taking cART

A

-specific food and timing requirements
-numerous side effects

366
Q

What medication is used to treat oral candida

A

-fluconazole (diflucan)

367
Q

Other nursing interventions for oral candida include

A

-ice chips
-frequent oral care
-antiemetics

368
Q

Nutritional requirements for HIV patients

A

-increased calories and protein

369
Q

Clients with HIV should avoid this dietary food

370
Q

Why should clients with HIV avoid fats in food?

A
  1. HIV virus makes people fat intolerant
  2. cART regimen side effects also include fat intolerance
371
Q

Nursing interventions to promote nutrition in those with HIV

A

-daily weights
-small frequent meals
-tube feedings/ TPN

372
Q

Should a registered dietitian be consulted for patients with HIV

373
Q

Should patients with HIV used alcohol-based mouthwash?