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AP2 -Sameer Verma > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

1) What is the outcome of NOT producing pulmonary surfactant?
A. Decrease the change in intrapleural pressure required to achieve a given tidal volume
B. It will result in decreased lung compliance
C. It will decrease the work of breathing
D. It will decrease the surface tension in the alveoli

A

B. It will result in decreased lung Compliance

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2
Q

2) What is an example of Type Ill hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Tuberculosis
C. Mismatched blood transfusion reaction
Contact dermatitis

A

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus

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3
Q

3) Functional residual capacity is
A. ERV+TV+IRV
B. TV+IRV
C. ERV+RV
D. TV+IRV+ERV+RV

A

C. ERV+RV

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4
Q

4) Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed
A. Chemotaxis
B. Diapedesis
C. Opsonization
D. Agglutination

A

C. Opsonization

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5
Q

5) The pulmonary function test of a 45 year old healthy man is depicted below. What is his vital capacity?
(Fig. 1)

A. C
B. D
C. E
D. C+D
E. E-D

A

A. C

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6
Q

6) What happens if a naive T cell binds to an antigen without receiving a Co-stimulatory signals?
A. The T cell is activated
B. The T cell enters a state of energy
C. The T cell becomes a memory cell
D. The T cell releases interferons

A

B. The T cell enters a state of energy

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7
Q

7) Airflow is________related to the pressure gradient and________related to resistance.

A. Directly; inversely
B. Inversely; inversely
C. Inversely; directly
D. Directly; directly

A

A. Directly; inversely

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8
Q

8) Fats absorbed from the small intestine are transported to the bloodstream via____

A. Tonsils
B. Lacteals
C. Lymph nodes
D. Peyer’s patches

A

B. Lacteals

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9
Q

9) A student is in primary care office for regular checkup. The student’s alveolar ventilation rate is 6750 ml/min with a tidal volume of 600 ml. Calculate the breathing rate for this patient?

A.) 15 breaths/min
B. 10 breaths/min
C. 25 breaths/min
D. 5 breaths/min

A

A. 15 beats/min

VA= R(VT—VD),
Where, VA is Aveolar Ventilation; R is respiratory rate; VT is tidal volume; VD is dead space volume (about 150ml in healthy adult)

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10
Q

10) The pressure that is responsible for reabsorption and for pulling fluids into the venous end of capillaries is called

A. Hydrostatic pressure in interstitial fluid (HPif)
B. Osmotic pressure in interstitial fluid (OPif)
C. Hydrostatic pressure in a capillary (HPc)
D. Osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc)

A

D. Osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc)

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11
Q

11) Which mechanism(s) of antibody action triggers the response of a plasma protein that will result in a membrane attack complex?
A. Complement activation
B. Neutralization
C. Precipitation
D. Agglutination

A

A. Complement Activation

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12
Q

12) What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?
A. Dissolved in plasma
B. As carbon monoxide in plasma
C. As bicarbonate ion in plasma
D. Chemically bound to hemoglobin

A

C. As BioCarbonate ion in plasma

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13
Q

13) The lymphocytes that act as the bridge between the cellular and humoral responses are

A. Helper T cells
B. Regulatory T cells
C. B cells
D. Cytotoxic T cells

A

A. Helper T cells

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14
Q

14) In order to prevent spread of infection, often a virus-infected cell will release

A. Histamine
B. Complement
C. interferon
D. Perforin
E. Serotonin

A

C. Interferon

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15
Q

15) Regulatory T cells

A. May function in preventing autoimmune reactions
B. Release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells
C. Aid B cells in antibody production
D. Decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decrease

A

A. May function in preventing autoimmune reactions

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16
Q

16) What is the function of C3b?

A. Opsoinzation
B. Agglutination
C. Attracting neutorphils
D. Chemotaxis

A

A. Opsonization

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17
Q

17) Using pulmonary function test, a patient discovers their forced expiratory volume (FEV1) is 40%, What does this suggest?

A. It is suggestive of obstructive lung disease
B. It is suggestive of restrictive lung disease
C. The patient has normal health lungs
D. Need more information to interpret

A

A. It is suggestive of obstructive lung disease

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18
Q

18) Which of the following antibody fixes and activates the complement?
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. IgA

A

A. IgM

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19
Q

19) How do vaccines work

A. Vaccines work by priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure
B. Vaccines work by suppressing inflation to help speed healing
C. Vaccines work by boosting innate immunity with cytokines
D. Vaccines work by providing the necessary antibodies to fight infections

A

A. Vaccines work by priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

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20
Q

20) How would you describe the function of Th 17 cells?

A. Th 17 cells activates cellular immunity
B. Th 17 cells plays a role in autoimmune disease
C. Th 17 cells help fight against parasitic infections
D. Th 17 cells release perforins

A

A. Th 17 cells activates cellular immunity

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21
Q

21) The phenomenon in which a complement protein and antibodies coat a microorganism, enable macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the microorganism is called

A. Opsonization
B. Agglutination
C. Diapedesis
D. Chemotaxis

A

A. Opsonization

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22
Q

22) During external respiration, what physiological change will occur if the alveolar PCO2 is high?

A. The pulmonary bronchioles will dilate
B. The pulmonary bronchioles will constrict
C. No Changes will occur
D. The pulmonary arterioles will dilate

A

A. The pulmonary bronchioles will dilate

23
Q

23) The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called

A. It is called inspiratory reserve volume
B. It is called vital capacity
C. It is called total lung capacity
D. It is called expiratory capacity
E. It is called residual volume

A

A. It is called inspiratory reserve volume

24
Q

24) T cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: CD4 or CD8. Which of the following is true of CD4 T cells?

A. They become antigen presenting cells (APC)
B. They become cytotoxic T cells
C. They become plasma cells
D. They become T helper cells

A

D. They become T helper cells

25
Q

25) The clumping of foreign cells that occurs when antibodies cross-link their antigens is known as

A. Agglutination
B. Neutralization
C. Precipitation
D. Opsonization
E. Fixation

A

A. Agglutination

26
Q

26) What is the mostly likely location to find a MALT?

A. MALT is found in the lining of the small intestine
B. The inguinal region is a common location to find MALT
C. The pharynx is a common location to find MALT
D. in the center of a lymph node

A

A. MALT is found in the lining of the small intestine

27
Q

27) What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells?

A. Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells
B. Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs)
C. Helper T (TH) cells
D. Regulatory T (TReg) cells

A

A. Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells

28
Q

28) Which of the following is TRUE of incomplete antigens (haptens)?

A. Incomplete antigens include pollen grains, microogranism and viruses
B. Incomplete antigens are nonreactive
C. incomplete antigens are typically large macromolecules such as proteins
D. Incomplete antigens are only immunogenic when attached to protein carriers

A

D. Incomplete antigens are only immunogenic when attached to protein carriers

29
Q

29) Which of the following is NOT a role of activated complement?

A. Prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
B. Insertion of MAC and cell lysis
C. Opsoinzation
D. Enhancement of inflammation

A

A. Prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions

30
Q

30) What happens during positive selection of T-lymphocytes?

A. Those cells that bind self antigens are eliminated
B. Those cells that can bind MHC survive
C. Those cells that bind to self antigens survive
D. Those cells that bind to MHC class Il are eliminated

A

B. Those cells that can bind MHC survive

31
Q

31) Suppose that at a given point along a capillary, the following forces exist:

Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (OPc) = 2 mmHg
Net filtration pressure = 7 mmHg
Based on the above valves, what is the Capillary hydrostatic pressure?

A. -30 mmHg
B. 30 mmHg
C. -7 mmHg
D. 7 mmHg

A

B. 30

32
Q

32) Immediate and subacute hypersensitivities are caused by ____
that trigger the release of ____

A. Memory T cells; perforins
B. Viruses; interferon
C. Memory B cells; antibodies
D. Antibodies; histamine

A

D. Antibodies; histamine

33
Q

33) In the classical pathway of complement activation

A. Complement is activated within liver cells and released into the blood
B. Complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance
C. Complement binds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall
D. Complement inhibits inflammation and binds to opsonins

A

B. Complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance

34
Q

34) Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?

A. Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure
B. Hydrostatic pressure only
C. Plasma and formed element concentration
D. Blood volume and viscosity

A

A. Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

35
Q

35) The correct sequence of EXOGENOUS antigen presentation is

A. Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, which fuses with a vesicle containing class II MHCs in the Golgi apparatus, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane
B. Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, that fuses with a vesicle containing class I MHCs in the Golgi apparatus, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane
C. Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, fuse with a vesicle containing class Il MHCs in the Golgi apparatus, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane
D. Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, combined with class II MHCs, move to the Golgi apparatus, then to the plasma membrane
E. Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, combined with class I MHCs, move to the Golgi apparatus, then to the plasma membrane

A

A. Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, which fuses with a vesicle containing class II MHCs in the Golgi apparatus, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane

36
Q

36) Intrapulmonary pressure is the ____

A. Pressure within the pleural cavity
B. Negative pressure in the intrapleural space
C. Pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
D. Difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure

A

C. Pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

37
Q

37) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is___

A. Amount of air moved into and out of lung with each breath
B. Amount of air that can be inspired forcibly beyond the tidal volume
C. Amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from lungs
D. Amount of air that always remains in lungs

A

B. Amount of air that can be inspired forcibly beyond the tidal volume

38
Q

38) Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by____

A. Providing a passage for antibodies to enter into the bacterial cytosol
B. Disrupting the selective permeability of a bacteria’s plasma membrane
C. Allowing the organelles to spill free from the bacteria
D. Penetrating the capsule of the bacteria giving antibiotic drugs access to bacterial cells

A

B. Disrupting the selective permeability of a bacteria’s plasma membrane

39
Q

39) What characterizes flattening of neutrophils to squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls?

A. Diapedesis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Margination
D. Leukocytosis

A

A. Diapedesis

40
Q

40) The Bohr effect describes the tendency for hemoglobin to more readily unload oxygen under which conditions?

A. Decreased pH and increased Pco2
B. Decreased pH and Pco2
C. Increased pH and Pco2
D. Increased pH and decreased Pco2

A

A. Decreased pH and increased Pco2

41
Q

41) Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A. Numbness
B. Swelling
C. Heat
D. Redness
E. Loss of function

A

A. Numbness

42
Q

42) Which factor will shift the oxygen-hemoglobin curve to RIGHT?

A. Low Temperature
B. Low 2,3 BPG
C. Low pH
D. High Oxygen concentration
E. High Nitric oxide levels

A

C. Low pH

43
Q

43) The pulmonary function test of a 30 year old health woman is depicted below. What is her expiratory reserve volume?
(Fig. 2)

A. C
B. D
C. E
D. C+D
E. E-D

A

E. E—D

44
Q

44) All but one of the following occurs during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does NOT describe the process of inflammation.

A. Vasoconstriction prevents excessive blood loss due to injury
B. Inflammation increases capillary permeability
C. Release of prostaglandins results in pain
D. Chemotaxis draws leucocytes to the site of injury

A

A. Vasoconstriction prevents excessive blood loss due to injury

45
Q

45) The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is____

A. Always fatal
B. Shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea
C. The form of shock caused by anaphylaxis
D. Any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally

A

B. Shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea

46
Q

46) The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by_____

A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Complement production
D. Phagocyte mobilization

A

A. Vasodilation

47
Q

47) Which of the following is TRUE statement regarding antibodies?

A. IgG is the first antibody produced by the body
B. IgE is made from secondary and late primary responses
C. Both IgG and IgM can cross the placenta
D. Only IgG can cross the placenta
E. IgD is a pentamer

A

D. Only IgG can cross the placenta

48
Q

48) For inspiration of air, which of the following happens FIRST during inspiration?

A. Air (gases) flows into lungs
B. Diaphragm descends, thoracic volume begins to increase and rib cage rises.
C. Thoracic cavity volume decreases
D. Intrapulmonary pressure drops

A

B. Diaphragm descends, thoracic volume begins to increase and rib cage rises.

49
Q

49) Which muscles are activated during forced expiration?

A. The diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
B. The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
C. The scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, and pectoralis minor muscles
D. The internal intercostal, oblique, and transversus muscles

A

D. The internal intercostal, oblique, and transversus muscles

50
Q

50) Which of the following best describes the chloride shift?
A. Chloride is removed from hemoglobin when carbon dioxide binds to it.
B. Chloride binds to bicarbonate, which allows more of it to be carried in the bloodstream
C.) Chloride rushes into RBCs to counterbalance the outflow of bicarbonate
D. Chloride is taken out of the blood to counterbalance the inflow of carbon dioxide

A

C.) Chloride rushes into RBCs to counterbalance the outflow of bicarbonate

51
Q

51) Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ?

A. Appendix
B. Thymus
C. Tonsils
D. Spleen

A

B. Thymus

52
Q

52) Which of the following antibody is found in secretions?

A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. IgA

A

E. IgA

53
Q

53) Boyle’s law states that:
A. P1V1 = P2V1
B. P1V1 = P2V2
C. P2V1 = P1V2
D. P1V2 = P2V2
E. P1V2 = P2V1

A

B. P1V1 = P2V2

AP2 -Sameer Verma (2 decks)

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