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Psychology 203: Abnormal Psychology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

one of a group of disorders involving severe and enduring disturbances in emotionality ranging from elation to severe depression

A

mood disorders

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2
Q

most common and severe experience of depression, including feelings of worthlessness, disturbances in bodily activities such as sleep, loss of interest, and inability to experience pleasure, persisting at least 2 weeks

A

major depressive episodes

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3
Q

what is mania?

A

period of abnormally excessive elation or euphoria associated with some mood disorders

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4
Q

what is a hypomanic episode?

A

less severe and less disruptive version of a manic episode that is one of the criteria for several mood disorders

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5
Q

condition in which the individual experiences both elation and depression or anxiety at the same time. also known as dysphoric manic episode or mixed manic episode

A

mixed features

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6
Q

a mood disorder involving one (single episode) or more (separated by at least 2 months without depression, recurrent)

A

major depressive disorder

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7
Q

what does recurrent mean?

A

repeatedly occurring

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8
Q

a mood disorder involving persistently depressed mood, with low self-esteem, withdrawal, pessimism, or despair, present for at least 2 years, with no absence of symptoms for more than 2 months

A

persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

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9
Q

what is double depression?

A

severe mood disorder typified by major depressive episodes superimposed over a background of dysthymic disorder

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10
Q

what is integrated grief?

A

grief that evolves from acute grief into a conditions in which the individual accepts the finality of a death and adjusts to the loss

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11
Q

grief characterized by debilitating feelings of loss and emotions so painful that a person has trouble resuming a normal life; designated for further study as a disorder by DSM-5

A

complicated grief

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12
Q

clinically significant emotional problems that can occur during the premenstrual phase of the reproductive cycle of a woman

A

premenstrual dysphoric disorder

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13
Q

a condition in which a child has chronic negative moods such as anger and irritability without any accompanying mania

A

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

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14
Q

what is bipolar II disorder?

A

alternation of major depressive episodes with hypomanic episodes (not full manic episodes)

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15
Q

what is bipolar I disorder?

A

alternation of major depressive episodes with full manic episodes

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16
Q

chronic (at least 2 years) mood disorder characterized by alternating mood elevation and depressive levels that are not as severe as manic or major depressive episodes

A

cyclothymic disorder

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17
Q

what are neurohormones?

A

a hormone that affects the brain and is increasingly the focus of study in psychopathology

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18
Q

Martin Seligman’s theory that people become anxious and depressed when they make an attribution that they have no control over the stress in their lives (whether or not they actually have control)

A

learned helplessness theory of depression

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19
Q

thinking errors by depressed people negatively focused in 3 areas; themselves, their immediate world, and their future

A

depressive cognitive triad

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20
Q

a medication used in the treatment of mood disorders, particularly bipolar disorder, that is effective in preventing and treating pathological shifts in mood

A

mood-stabilizing drug

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21
Q

biological treatment for severe, chronic depression involving the application of electrical impulses through the brain to produce seizures. the reasons for its effectiveness are unknown.

A

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

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22
Q

treatment approach that involves identifying and altering negative thinking styles related to psychological disorders such as depression and anxiety and replacing them with more positive beliefs and attitudes - and, ultimately, more adaptive behavior and coping styles

A

cognitive therapy

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23
Q

brief treatment approach that emphasizes resolution of interpersonal problems and stressors, such as role disputes in marital conflict, forming relationships in marriage, or a new job. it has demonstrated effectiveness for such problems as depression.

A

interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)

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24
Q

combination of continued psychosocial treatment, medication, or both designed to prevent relapse following therapy

A

maintenance treatment

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25
Q

what is suicidal ideation?

A

serious thoughts about committing suicide

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26
Q

what is suicidal plans?

A

the formulation of a specific method of killing oneself

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27
Q

what is a suicidal attempt?

A

effort made to kill oneself

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28
Q

postmortem psychological profile of a suicide victim constructed from interviews with people who knew the person before death

A

psychological autopsy

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29
Q

a devastating disorder that may involve characteristic disturbances in thinking (delusions), perception (hallucinations), speech, emotions, and behavior

A

schizophrenia

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30
Q

what is catatonia?

A

a disorder of movement involving immobility or excited agitation

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31
Q

what is hebephrenia?

A

a silly and immature emotionality, a characteristic of some types of schizophrenia

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32
Q

what is paranoia?

A

people’s irrational beliefs that they are especially important (delusions of grandeur) or that other people are seeking to do them harm

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33
Q

the Latin term meaning premature loss of mind; an early label for what is now called schizophrenia, emphasizing the disorder’s frequent appearance during adolescence

A

dementia praecox

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34
Q

a separation among basic functions of human personality (for example, cognition, emotion, and perception) seen by some as the defining characteristic of schizophrenia

A

associative splitting

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35
Q

what is psychotic behavior?

A

a severe psychological disorder category characterized by hallucinations and loss of contact with reality

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36
Q

what are positive symptoms?

A

a more overt symptom, such as a delusion or hallucination, displayed by some people with schizophrenia

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37
Q

what is a delusion?

A

a psychotic symptom involving disorder of thought content and presence of strong beliefs that are misrepresentations of reality

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38
Q

a psychotic symptom of perceptual disturbance in which something is seen, heard, or otherwise sensed although it is not actually present

A

hallucination

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39
Q

what are negative symptoms?

A

a less outgoing symptom, such as flat affect or poverty of speech, displayed by some people with schizophrenia

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40
Q

what is avolition?

A

an inability to initiate or persist in important activities. also known as apathy

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41
Q

what is alogia?

A

a deficiency in the amount or content of speech, a disturbance often seen in people with schizophrenia

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42
Q

what is anhedonia?

A

an inability to experience pleasure, associated with some mood and schizophrenic disorders

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43
Q

what is the flat affect?

A

an apparently emotionless demeanor (including toneless speech and vacant gaze) when a reaction would be expected

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44
Q

a style of talking often seen in people with schizophrenia, involving incoherence and a lack of typical logic patterns

A

disorganized speech

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45
Q

what is an inappropriate affect?

A

an emotional display that is improper for the situation

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46
Q

what is catatonic immobility?

A

a disturbance of motor behavior in which the person remains motionless, sometimes in an awkward posture, for extended periods

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47
Q

what is schizophreniform disorder?

A

a psychotic disorder involving the symptoms of schizophrenia but lasting less than 6 months

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48
Q

what is schizoaffective disorder?

A

a psychotic disorder featuring symptoms of both schizophrenia and major mood disorder

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49
Q

a psychotic disturbance in which individuals develop a delusion similar to that of a person with whom they share a close relationship. also known as folie a deux.

A

shared psychotic disorder

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50
Q

what is substance-induced psychotic disorder?

A

psychosis caused by the ingestion of medications, psychoactive drugs, or toxins

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51
Q

condition that is characterized by hallucinations or delusions that is the direct result of another physiological disorder, such as stroke or brain tumor

A

psychotic disorder associated with another medical condition

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52
Q

a psychotic disturbance involving delusions, hallucination, or disorganized speech or behavior but lasting less than 1 month; often occurs in reaction to a stressor

A

brief psychotic disorder

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53
Q

disorder involving the onset of psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which puts a person at high risk for schizophrenia; designated for further study by DSM-5

A

attenuated psychosis syndrome

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54
Q

period of 1-2 years before serious symptoms of schizophrenia occur but when less severe yet unusual behaviors start to appear

A

prodromal stage

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55
Q

according to an obsolete, unsupported theory, a cold, dominating, and rejecting parent who was thought to cause schizophrenia in her offspring

A

schizophrenogenic mother

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56
Q

according to an obsolete, unsupported theory, the practice of transmitting conflicting messages that was thought ti cause schizophrenia

A

double blind communication

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57
Q

hostility, criticism, and over-involvement demonstrated by some families toward a family member with a psychological disorder. this can often contribute to the person’s relapse

A

expressed emotion (EE)

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58
Q

a social learning behavior modification system in which individuals earn items they can exchange for desired rewards by displaying appropriate behaviors

A

token economy

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59
Q

an enduring maladaptive pattern for relating to the environment and self, exhibited in a range of contexts that cause significant functional impairment or subjective distress

A

personality disorder

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60
Q

a cluster A (odd or eccentric) personality disorder involving pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others such that their motives are interpreted as malevolent

A

paranoid personality disorder

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61
Q

a cluster A (odd or eccentric) personality disorder featuring a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships with a restricted range of expression of emotions

A

schizoid personality disorder

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62
Q

a cluster A (odd or eccentric) personality disorder involving a pervasive pattern of interpersonal deficits featuring acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior

A

schizotypal personality disorder

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63
Q

a cluster B (dramatic, emotional, or erratic) personality disorder involving a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. similar to the non-DSM-5 label psychopathy but with greater emphasis on overt behavior than on personality traits

A

antisocial personality disorder

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64
Q

a non-DSM-5 category similar to antisocial personality disorder but with less emphasis on overt behavior. indicators include superficial charm, lack of remorse, and other personality characteristics

A

psychopathy

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65
Q

a cluster B (dramatic, emotional, or erratic) personality disorder involving a pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, affect, and control over impulses

A

borderline personality disorder

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66
Q

a promising treatment for borderline personality disorder that involves exposing the client to stressors in a controlled situation, as well as helping the client regulate emotions and cope with stressors that might trigger suicidal behavior

A

dialectical behavior therapy

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67
Q

a cluster B (dramatic, emotional, or erratic) personality disorder involving a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking

A

histrionic personality disorder

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68
Q

a cluster B (dramatic, emotional, or erratic) personality disorder involving a pervasive pattern of grandiosity in fantasy or behavior, need for admiration, and lack of empathy

A

narcissistic personality disorder

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69
Q

a cluster C (anxious or fearful) personality disorder featuring a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism

A

avoidant personality disorder

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70
Q

a cluster C (anxious or fearful) personality disorder characterized by a person’s pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, a condition that leads to the submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation

A

dependent personality disorder

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71
Q

a cluster C (anxious or fearful) personality disorder featuring a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency

A

obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

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72
Q

eating disorder involving recurrent episodes of uncontrolled excessive (binge) eating followed by compensatory actions to remove the food

A

bulimia nervosa

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73
Q

what is a binge?

A

relatively brief episode of uncontrolled, excessive consumptions of food or alcohol

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74
Q

what is anorexia nervosa?

A

eating disorder characterized by recurrent food refusal, leading to dangerously low body weight

75
Q

pattern of eating involving distress-inducing binges not followed by purging behaviors; being considered as a new DSM diagnostic category

A

binge-eating disorder

76
Q

what is the definition of obesity?

A

excess of body fat resulting in a body mass index of 30 or more

77
Q

in the eating disorder bulimia nervosa, the self-induced vomitting or laxative abuse used to compensate for excessive food ingestion

A

purging techniques

78
Q

surgical approach to extreme obesity, usually accomplished by stapling the stomach to create a small stomach pouch or bypassing the stomach through gastric bypass surgery

A

bariatric surgery

79
Q

periodic intervals of sleep during which the eyes move rapidly from side to side, and dreams occur, but the body is inactive

A

rapid eye movement (REM) sleep

80
Q

what are dyssomnias?

A

problems in getting to sleep or in obtaining sufficient quality sleep

81
Q

what are parasomnias?

A

abnormal behaviors such as nightmares or sleep walking that occur during sleep

82
Q

an assessment of sleep disorders in which a client sleeping in the lab is monitored for heart, muscle, respiration, brain wave, and other functions

A

polysomnographic (PSG) evaluation

83
Q

small electronic device that is worn on the wrist like a watch and records body movements. this device can be used to record sleep-wake cycles

A

actigraph

84
Q

what is sleep efficiency?

A

percentage of time actually spent sleeping of the total time spent in bed

85
Q

what are microsleeps?

A

short, seconds-long periods of sleep that occur in people who have been deprived of sleep

86
Q

what is insomnia disorder?

A

condition in which insufficient sleep interferes with normal functioning

87
Q

what is primary insomnia?

A

difficulty in initiating, maintaining, or gaining from sleep; not related to other medical or psychological problems

88
Q

in a person with insomnia, the worsened sleep problems that can occur when medications are used to treat insomnia and then withdrawn

A

rebound insomnia

89
Q

what are hypersomnolence disorders

A

sleep dysfunction involving an excessive amount of sleep that disrupts normal routines

90
Q

what is sleep apnea?

A

disorder involving brief periods when breathing ceases during sleep

91
Q

what is narcolepsy?

A

sleep disorder involving sudden and irresistible sleep attacks

92
Q

sleep disruption leading to excessive sleepiness or insomnia, caused by a breathing problem such as interrupted (sleep apnea) or labored (hypoventilation) breathing

A

breathing-related sleep disorders

93
Q

sleep disturbances resulting in sleepiness or insomnia, caused by the body’s inability to synchronize its sleep patterns with the current pattern of day and night

A

circadian rhythm sleep disorder

94
Q

frightening and anxiety-provoking dreams occurring during rapid eye movement. the individual recalls the bad dreams and recovers alertness and orientation quickly

A

nightmares

95
Q

what is disorder of arousal?

A

category of sleep disorder during NREM sleep that includes sleepwalking and sleep terrors

96
Q

episodes of apparent awakening from sleep, accompanied by signs of panic, followed by disorientation and amnesia for the incident. these occur during non rapid eye movement sleep and so do not involve frightening dreams

A

sleep terrors

97
Q

what is sleepwalking?

A

parasomnia that involves leaving the bed during non rapid eye movement sleep

98
Q

legal proceedings that determines a person is mentally disordered and may be hospitalized, even involuntary

A

civil commitment laws

99
Q

term formerly used to mean psychological disorder but less preferred because it implies that the causes of the disorder can be found in a medical disease process

A

mental illness

100
Q

tendency to violence that, contrary to popular opinion, is not more likely among mental patients

A

dangerousness

101
Q

systematic removal of people with severe mental illness or intellectual disability from institutions like psychiatric hospitals

A

deinstitutionalization

102
Q

movement of people with severe mental illness from large psychiatric hospitals to smaller group residencies

A

transinstitutionalization

103
Q

legal procedure by which a person found not guilty of a crime by reason of insanity must be confined in a psychiatric hospital

A

criminal commitment

104
Q

evidence of an abnormal mental condition in people that causes criminal charges against them requiring intent or knowledge to be reduced to lesser offenses requiring only reckless or criminal neglect

A

diminished capacity

105
Q

ability of legal defendants to participate in their own defense and understand charges and the roles of the trial participants

A

competence

106
Q

mental health professional’s responsibility to break confidentiality and notify the potential victim whom a client has specifically threatened

A

duty to warn

107
Q

person who because of special training and experience is allowed to offer opinion testimony in legal trials

A

expert witnesses

108
Q

one of a proposed set of guidance for evaluating clinical interventions on the evidence of their effectiveness

A

clinical efficacy axis

109
Q

one of the proposed set of guidelines for evaluating clinical interventions by whether they can be applied effectively and cost effectively in real clinical settings

A

clinical utility axis

110
Q

what is anhedonia?

A

loss of pleasure

111
Q

symptoms of major depressive episode

A

indecisiveness
feelings of worthlessness
fatigue
appetite change
restlessness or slowing down
sleep disturbance

112
Q

symptoms of a manic episode

A

inflated self-esteem
decreased need to sleep
excessive talking
flight of ideas or sense that thoughts are racing
easy distractibility
increase in goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation
excessive involvement in pleasurable but risky behaviors

113
Q

average onset of bipolar 1 disorder

A

15-18

114
Q

average onset of bipolar 2 disorder

A

19-22

115
Q

what percentage of cases of bipolar 2 disorder progress to full bipolar 1 disorder?

A

10-25%

116
Q

what gender is more likely to have major depression?

A

women 2x

117
Q

what gender is more likely to have bipolar disorder?

A

equal

118
Q

what gender is more likely to experience rapid cycling?

A

women

119
Q

what gender is more likely to be in depressive period?

A

women

120
Q

mood disorders are related to low levels of _____

A

serotonin

121
Q

concordance rates for mood disorders are highest in…

A

identical twins

122
Q

heritability rates for mood disorders are higher in what gender?

A

women

123
Q

what is arbitrary interference?

A

overemphasize the negative aspects of a mixed situation

124
Q

what is depressive attributional style?

A

negative outcomes are one’s own fault
believing future negative outcomes will be one’s fault
believing negative events will disrupt many life activities

125
Q

what is cognitive triad?

A

thinking negatively about oneself, the world, and the future

126
Q

marital dissatisfaction is strongly related to depression, more so in what gender?

A

males

127
Q

what percent of females have major depression or have had major depression?

A

70%

128
Q

which gender is more likely to have an anxiety disorder?

A

females

129
Q

what are some possible explanations for the gender disparity for mood disorders?

A
  • women socialized to have stronger perception of uncontrollability
  • parenting style/culture makes girls less independent
  • women more sensitive to relationship disruptions
  • women ruminate more than men
  • women more likely to be discriminated against or abused
130
Q

how many patients see benefits in taking medication/treatment?

A

50%

131
Q

how many patients achieve normal functioning taking medication/treatment?

A

25%

132
Q

what so SSRIs do?

A

block reuptake of serotonin so more serotonin is available to the brain

133
Q

what do SNRIs do?

A

block reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
- have fewer side effects than SSRIs

134
Q

what do tricyclic antidepressants do?

A

block reuptake of epinephrine and other neurotransmitters
- many negative side effects

135
Q

what do MAO inhibitors do?

A

block monoamine oxidase, an enzyme that breaks down serotonin/norepinephrine
- too many dietary restrictions

136
Q

what does the term schizophrenia mean?

A

splitting of the mind

137
Q

what portion of the brain is most active during auditory hallucinations?

A

broca’s area

138
Q

what is Broca’s area responsible for?

A

speech production

139
Q

1

A

broca’s area

140
Q

2

A

wernicke’s area (hearing)

141
Q

3

A

visual cortex

142
Q

4

A

sylvian or lateral fissure

143
Q

what is avolition?

A

lack of initiation and persistence

144
Q

what is alogia?

A

relative absence of speech

145
Q

what is the prevalence of schizophrenia world wide?

A

1%

146
Q

when is the usual onset for schizophrenia?

A

early adulthood

147
Q

what gender is more likely to have schizophrenia

A

equal
women usually have better prognosis
onset earlier than males

148
Q

what is the dopamine hypothesis?

A

schizophrenia caused by overactive dopamine

149
Q

drugs that increase the targeted effect

A

agonists

150
Q

drugs that decrease the targeted effect

A

antagonists

151
Q

what are some historical medical treatments for schizophrenia?

A

insulin induced coma
ECT
psychosurgery

152
Q

what are some psychological treatments for schizophrenia?

A

behavioral interventions on inpatient: reward adaptive behavior
community care programs
social and living skills training
behavioral family therapy
vocational rehabilitation

153
Q

what is the 5 factor model of personality?
(OCEAN)

A

openness to new experience
conscientiousness
extraversion
agreeableness
neuroticism

154
Q

what are cluster A personality disorders?

A

odd or eccentric
- paranoid
- schizoid
- schizotypical

155
Q

what are cluster B personality disorders?

A

dramatic, emotional, erratic
- antisocial
- borderline
- histrionic
- narcissistic

156
Q

what are cluster C personality disorders?

A

fearful or anxious
- avoidant
- dependent
- obsessive compulsive

157
Q

prevalence of personality disorders in general population?

A

1%

158
Q

what gender is more likely to have antisocial personality disorder?

A

males

159
Q

what gender is more likely to have histrionic personality disorder?

A

females

160
Q

what 3 things must an individual demonstrate to be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder?

A

inadequately motivated behavior
lack of conscience or responsibility to others
emotional poverty

161
Q

what is the triple vulnerability model of borderline personality disorder?

A

generalized biological vulnerability (reactivity)
generalized psychological vulnerability (lash out)
specific psychological vulnerability (stressors elicit)

162
Q

treatment options for borderline personality disorder?

A

antidepressant medications - short term
dialectic behavior therapy most promising

163
Q

treatment options for histrionic personality disorder?

A

focus on attention seeking and long-term negative consequences
targets may also include problematic interpersonal behaviors
little evidence that treatment is effective

164
Q

treatment options for narcissistic personality disorder?

A

focus on grandiosity, lack of empathy, unrealistic thinking

165
Q

what percent of 9 year old girls have dieted?

A

40%

166
Q

what percent of bulimia cases are female?

A

90%

167
Q

when is the typical onset for bulimia?

A

adolescence

168
Q

what health problems can arise from bulimia?

A

electrolyte imbalance
erosion of dental enamel
intestinal problems, permanent colon damage

169
Q

treatments for bulimia?

A
  • CBT
  • interpersonal therapy
  • antidepressants
170
Q

treatments for anorexia?

A
  • general goals and strategies
  • intensive residential treatments
  • prevention
171
Q

is the long term prognosis worse in bulimia or anorexia?

A

anorexia

172
Q

managing care for people with serious mental illness requires a balance between 3 things:

A
  • patients right as an individual
  • patient’s individual safety
  • society’s right to safety and security
173
Q

what are the laws determining when one can be committed involuntarily to a mental hospital?

A

vary by state

174
Q

previously, before the government made laws in the 1800s, who was usually responsible for the mentally ill?

A

family or abandoned

175
Q

what was the liberal era?

A

1960-1980
emphasize rights of individual

176
Q

what was the neoconservative era?

A

1980-present
emphasize rights of majority

177
Q

what are the possible commitment criteria?

A
  • person has “mental illness” and needs tx
  • dangerous to self or others
  • “gravely disabled” - inability to care for self
178
Q

legal proceedings to assess status:

A
  • personal fails to seek help
  • others feel that help is needed
  • petition is made to a judge on the behalf of the person
  • individual must be notified on the comittment process
  • judge makes decision - informed by exert opinion
179
Q

what is the criteria for having a “mental illness”?

A

severe thought/emotional disturbance affecting health/safety
- often excludes drug abuse, personality disorders, and intellectual disabilities

180
Q

what is the criteria for dangerousness?

A

predicting general tends, but not specific acts
vats majority of people with mental illness are not dangerous

181
Q

what is rouse v cameron?

A

right to treatment and not just therapeutic environment
- must use proven treatments
- supposed to treat individual, not punish

182
Q

what is wyatt v stickney?

A

constitutional right to treatment
- right to privacy and dignity
- right to least restrictive regimen necessary
- freedom of unnecessary/excessive meds
- right to send sealed mail and use telephone
- individual tx plan that is periodically reviewed

183
Q

what is the mental health systems act (1980)?

A

advisory law-not mandated
- appropriate tx and services
- no tx w/o informed consent
- not restrained unless extreme circumstances
- confidentiality of records
- inform about tx/condition in timely manner
- participate in/be informed about tx course

Psychology 203: Abnormal Psychology (2 decks)

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