Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

actions that are unexpected and often evaluated negatively because they differ from typical or usual behavior

A

abnormal behavior

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2
Q

describe the start of psychiatric hospitals

A

???
John P. Grey was a psychiatrist stated that causes of insanity were physical so all mentally ill patients should be treated as physically ill
He caused conditions in hospitals to improve but they became so large that individual attention was impossible.
Mental hospitals

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3
Q

describe the mental hygiene movement

A

Dorothea Dix campaigned for reform in the treatment of the insane and made it her life work to inform the American public and their leaders about the abuse
This work became known as the mental hygiene movement
Worked to make sure everyone who needed care received it and humane treatment became more widely available in the US institutions

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4
Q

mid 19th century effort to improve care of the mentally disordered by informing the public of their mistreatment

A

mental hygiene movement

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5
Q

assessment and therapy pioneered by Sigmund freud that emphasizes exploration of, and insight into, unconscious processes and conflicts

A

psychoanalysis

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6
Q

explanation of human behavior including dysfunction, based on principles of learning and adaptation derived from experimental psychology

A

behaviorism

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7
Q

in the 14th century, bizarre behavior of people afflicted with psychological disorders was seen as what?

A

work of devil and witches
individuals were “possessed by evil spirits
treatment was exorcism

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8
Q

how was stress and melancholy viewed in the 14th century?

A

mental depression and anxiety were recognized as illnesses but symptoms like despair and lethargy were identified by the church as sin

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9
Q

describe mass hysteria

A

large scale outbreaks of bizarre behavior
emotional contagion: experience of an emotion spreads to those around us
mob psychology

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10
Q

treatment practices that focus on social and cultural factors, as well as psychological influences. these approaches include cognitive, behavioral, and interpersonal methods

A

psychosocial treatment

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11
Q

psychosocial approach in the 19th century that involved treating patients as normally as possible in normal environments

A

moral therapy

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12
Q

causes for the decline in moral therapy?

A
  • after the civil war, immigrants came in and increased the number of patients in hospitals and there were not enough workers to give individual treatment
  • Dorothea Dix campaigned for the reform in the treatment of insanity - mental hygiene movement
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13
Q

the psychological theory made by frued and describes the unconscious, anger, aggression, sex, and death

A

psychoanalytical theory

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14
Q

the psychological theory dealing with Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, treating people as individuals, conditions of worth, and unconditional positive regard

A

humanistic theory

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15
Q

the psychological theory dealing with humans as a blank slate, being shaped by environment and experiences, classical condition and operant conditioning, believes positive outcomes make you more likely to do something again, and punishment has limitations

A

behavioral theory

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16
Q

the psychological theory that you learn from the people around you, the “bobo doll experiment” also called the social learning theory, and we act like people we admire

A

cognitive behavioral theory

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17
Q

what do the different parts of the mind do according to frued?

A

superego: conscious thinking and driven by moral principles
ego (mediator): logical and rational thinking and driven by reality principle
Id: illogical, emotional, irrational thinking, driven by pleasure principle

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18
Q

what was the process used to induce fear in little Albert?

A

conditioned stimulus
he was not afraid of rats, but a loud sound was paired with a rat to create a correlation between those 2 things

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19
Q

the model that explains how individuals inherit tendencies to express certain traits or behaviors which may then be activated under conditions of stress

A

diathesis-stress model

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20
Q

the model that explains that people with a genetic predisposition for a disorder may also have a genetic tendency to create environmental risk factors that promote the disorder

A

gene-environment correlation model

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21
Q

why is the limbic system important for mental health?

A

it regulates our emotional experiences and expressions and our ability to learn and control our impulses

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22
Q

what is the GABA neurotransmitter?

A

it reduces the activity across the synaptic cleft and thus inhibits a range of behaviors and emotions, especially generalized anxiety

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23
Q

what is the serotonin neurotransmitter?

A

involved in processing of information and coordination of movement as well as inhibition and restraint
also assists in the regulation of eating, sexual, and aggressive behaviors, all of which may be involved in different psychological disorders
interaction with dopamine is present in schizophrenia

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24
Q

what is the norepinephrine neurotransmitter?

A

active in the central and peripheral nervous systems, controlling heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration.
may also contribute generally and indirectly to panic attacks

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25
Q

what is the dopamine neurotransmitter?

A

generalized function is to activate other neurotransmitters and to aid in exploratory and pleasure-seeking behaviors (balance serotonin)

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26
Q

what is the theory that people become anxious and depressed when they make an attribution that they have no control over the stress in their lives

A

learned helplessness

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27
Q

what system controls fight or flight?

A

sympathetic

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28
Q

what is comorbidity ?

A

presence of 2 or more disorders in an individual at the same time

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29
Q

variations over time, in one or more characteristic, among groups of individuals defined by some shared experience such as year or decade of birth, or years of a specific experience

A

cohort effect

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30
Q

how does the DSM -5 measure disorders?

A

dimensional axes for rating severity, intensity, frequency, and duration of specific disorders
these are added on to categorical disagnoses in order to provide clinicians with additional information for assessment, treatment planning, and treatment monitoring

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31
Q

correlation vs experimental studies

A

correlational:
degree to which 2 variables are associated
in a positive correlation, 2 variables increase or decrease together
in a negative correlation, one increases while the other decreases
naturally occurring

experimental:
can establish causation by manipulating the variables in question and controlling fro alternative explanations if any observed affects

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32
Q

what is the control group?

A

group of individuals in a study that are similar experimental subjects in every way but are not exposed to the treatment received by the experimental group

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33
Q

what is an analogue model?

A

approach to research that employs subjects who are similar to clinical clients, allowing replication of a clinical problem under controlled conditions

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34
Q

independent vs dependent variable

A

independent:
manipulated

dependent:
what is being studied

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35
Q

a mood state characterized by negative affects and bodily symptoms of tension where a person anticipated danger or misfortune

A

anxiety

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36
Q

present oriented mood state

A

fear

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37
Q

abrupt experience of intense fear even though nothing “real” to be afraid of

A

panic attack

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38
Q

who is anxiety most prevalent in?

A

early adulthood-elderly

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39
Q

treatment for anxiety?

A

CBT
Benzodiazapines - has risk
Antidepressants

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40
Q

causes of phobias?

A

direct experience
traumatic conditioning
biological and evolutionary vulnerability
preparedness
cultural

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41
Q

treatment for phobias?

A

CBT
- exposure based exercises

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42
Q

extremely fear or discomfort in social or performance situations

A

social anxiety disorder

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43
Q

causes of social anxiety disorder?

A

biological and evolutionary vulnerability
adaptive to fear rejection

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44
Q

treatment for social anxiety disorder?

A

CBT

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45
Q

rare childhood disorder characterized by a lack of speech

A

selective mutism

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46
Q

how long does selective mutism usually occur?

A

more than one month

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47
Q

treatment for selective mutism?

A

CBT

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48
Q

disorder characterized by unrealistic and persistent worry that something will happen to self or loved ones when apart as well as anxiety about leaving loved ones?

A

separation anxiety disorder

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49
Q

what are the most common traumas of PTSD?

A

combat and sexual assault

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50
Q

what is often diagnosed before PTSD?

A

acute stress disorder

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51
Q

causes of PTSD?

A

intensity of trauma and ones reaction to it
learned alarms - direct conditioning/observational learning
biological vulnerability
uncontrollability and unpredictability

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52
Q

difference between obsession and compulsions?

A

obsession: intrusive and nonsensical thoughts, images, or urges
compulsions: thoughts or actions to neutralize anxious thoughts

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53
Q

who most likely has OCD?

A

early adolescents and young adults

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54
Q

treatment for OCD?

A

clompramine and other SSRIs
psychosurgery in extreme cases
CBT
exposure and response prevention

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55
Q

what is exposure and response prevention?

A

exposure to anxious cues and prevention of ritualized response
ex: touching a door knob and not washing hands after
used for OCD

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56
Q

disease characterized by excessively collecting or keeping items regardless of value and difficulty discarding item, usually due to a fear that they will need the item later

A

hoarding disorder

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57
Q

the urge to pull out one’s own hair from anywhere on the body

A

trichotillomania

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58
Q

receptive and compulsive picking of the skin, leading to tissue damage

A

excoriation

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59
Q

disease characterized by a preoccupation with some imagined defect in appearance

A

body dysmorphic disorder

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60
Q

treatment of body dysmorphia?

A

CBT
exposure to anxiety (ex: not wearing makeup)
plastic surgery (don’t recommend!)

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61
Q

conversion disorder is a ______ disorder

A

somatic symptom

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62
Q

factitious disorder is a _____ disorder

A

somatic symptom

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63
Q

illness anxiety disorder is a _____ disorder

A

somatic symptom

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64
Q

dissociative identity disorder is a _____ disorder

A

dissociative

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65
Q

a psychological disorder where physical malfunctioning of sensory or motor functioning occurs

A

conversion disorder

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66
Q

a psychological disorder where physical symptoms are faked for no obvious external gain

A

factitious disorder

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67
Q

what is the difference between factitious disorder and malingering?

A

factitious: purposely faking physical symptoms for no obvious external gain

malingering: physical symptoms are faked for the purpose of achieving a concrete object
- a legal term, not DSM diagnosis

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68
Q

what was previously known as Muchausen syndrome by proxy?

A

factitious disorder imposed on another

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69
Q

a family of disorders that share a common core of symptoms ranging from amnesia to alternate identities

A

dissociative disorders

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70
Q

a psychological disorder where one adopts several new identities.

A

dissociative identity disorder

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71
Q

an altered state of consciousness in which people firmly believe they are possessed by spirits; considered a disorder only where there is distress

A

dissociative trance

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72
Q

what is an alter(s)?

A

a shorthand tern for alter ego, one of the different personalities or identities in dissociative identity disorder

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73
Q

loss of memory of all personal information, including identity

A

general amnesia

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74
Q

memory loss limited to specific times and events, particularly traumatic events

A

localized or selective amnesia

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75
Q

what is dissociative fugue dissociative disorder?

A

featuring sudden, unexpected travel away from home, along with an inability to recall the past, sometimes with assumption of a new identity

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76
Q

what is derealization?

A

situation in which the individual loses a sense of the reality of the external world

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77
Q

what is depersonalization-derealization disorder?

A

type of dissociative disorder
feelings of depersonalization are so severe they dominate the client’s life and prevent normal functioning

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78
Q

what is dissociative amnesia?

A

the inability to recall personal information; usually of a stressful or traumatic nature

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79
Q

what is a somatic symptom disorder?

A

a disorder involving extreme and long-lasting focus on multiple physical symptoms for which no medical cause os evident

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80
Q

what is a dissociative disorder?

A

a disorder in which individuals feel detached from themselves or their surroundings and feel reality, experience, and identity may disintegrate

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81
Q

clinically significant emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to one or more specific stressors

A

adjustment disorder

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82
Q

an attachment disorder in which a child with disturbed behavior neither seeks out a caregiver nor responds to offers of help from one; fearfulness and sadness are often evident

A

reactive attachment disorder

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83
Q

what is a disinhibited social engagement disorder?

A

condition in which a child shows no inhibitions whatsoever in approaching adults

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84
Q

what is acute severe reaction immediately following a terrifying event, often including amnesia about the event, emotional numbing, and derealization. many victims later develop posttramatic stress disorder

A

acute stress disorder

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85
Q

what are trauma and stressor-related disorders?

A

a group of mental disorders distinguished by their origin in stressful events

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86
Q

a type of cognitive behavioral treatment for panic attacks, involving gradual exposure to feared somatic sensations and modification of perceptions and attitudes about them

A

panic control treatment

87
Q

what is agoraphobia?

A

anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult

88
Q

what is the behavioral inhibition system?

A

brain circuit in the limbic system that responds to threat signals by inhibiting activity and causing anxiety

89
Q

limit on the generalizability of longitudinal research because the group under study may differ form others in culture and experience

A

cross-generational effect

90
Q

what is a sequential design?

A

combination of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs involving repeated study of different cohorts over time

91
Q

what is a genetic marker?

A

inherited characteristics for which the chromosomal location of the responsible gene is known

92
Q

what are association studies?

A

research strategy for comparing genetic markers in groups of people with and without a particular disorder

93
Q

what is a cross-sectional design?

A

methodology to examine a characteristic by comparing individuals of different ages

94
Q

what is a cohort?

A

participants in each age group of s study with cross-sectional design

95
Q

“the view back”; data collected by examining records or recollections of the past. it is limited by the accuracy, validity, and thoroughness of the sources

A

retrospective information

96
Q

what is a longitudinal design?

A

systematic study of changes in the same individual or group examined over time

97
Q

what is a phenotype?

A

observable characteristics or behaviors of an individual

98
Q

what are genotypes?

A

specific genetic makeup of an individual

99
Q

what is the humane genome project?

A

ongoing scientific attempt to develop a comprehensive map of all human genes

100
Q

genetic mechanism that contributes to the underlying problems causing the symptoms and difficulties experienced by people with psychological disorders

A

endophenotypes

101
Q

what is a proband?

A

in genetics research, the individual displaying the trait or characteristic being studied

102
Q

a single-case experimental design in which measures are taken on two or more behaviors or on a single behavior in two or more situations. a particular intervention is introduced for each at different times. if behavior change is coincident with each introduction, this is strong evidence the intervention caused the change.

A

multiple baseline

103
Q

research tactic in which an independent variable is manipulated for a single individual, allowing cause-and-effect conclusions but with limited generalizability

A

single-case experimental design

104
Q

removing a treatment to note whether it has been effective

A

withdrawal design

105
Q

procedure in outcome research that prevents bias by ensuring that neither the subjects nor the providers of the experimental treatment know who is receiving and who is receiving a placebo

A

double-blind control

106
Q

what is comparative treatment research?

A

outcome research that contrasts two or more treatment methods to determine which is most effective

107
Q

research procedure in which a single person or small group is studied in detail. the method does not allow conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships, and findings can be generalized only with great caution

A

case study method

108
Q

what is patient uniformity myth?

A

tendency to consider all members of a category as more similar than they are, ignoring their individual differences

109
Q

extent to which the results of a study can be attributed to the independent variable after confounding alternative explanations have been ruled out

A

internal validity

110
Q

what is external validity?

A

extent to which research findings generalize, or apply, to people and settings not involved in the study

111
Q

any factor occurring in a study that makes the results uninterpretable because its effects cannot be separated from those of the variables being studied

A

confound

112
Q

system for categorizing disorders using both essential, defining characteristics a range of variation on other characteristics

A

prototypical approach

113
Q

what is familial aggregation?

A

extent to which a disorder would be found among a patient’s relatives

114
Q

what is the idiographic strategy?

A

a close and detailed investigation of an individual emphasizing what makes that person unique

115
Q

indentification and examination of large groups of people with the same disorder to note similarities and develop general laws

A

nomothetic strategy

116
Q

what is nosology?

A

classification and naming system for medical and psychological phenomena

117
Q

classification method founded on the assumption of clear-cut differences among disorders, each with a different known cause.

A

classical categorical approach

118
Q

psychoanalytically based measure that presents ambiguous stimuli to clients on the assumption that their responses can reveal their unconscious conflicts. such tests are inferential and lack high reliability and validity

A

projective tests

119
Q

what is equifinality?

A

developmental psychopathology principle that a behavior or disorder may have several causes

120
Q

what is the circumplex model?

A

a model describing different emotions as points in a 2-dimensional space of valence and arousal

121
Q

learning through observation and imitation of the behavior of other individuals and consequences of that behavior

A

modeling

122
Q

what is prepared learning?

A

ability adaptive for evolution, allowing certain associations to be learned more readily than others

123
Q

what is implicit memory?

A

condition of memory in which a person cannot recall past events despite acting in response to them

124
Q

what is an agonist?

A

a chemical substance that effectively increases the activity of a neurotransmitter by imitating its effects

125
Q

what is reuptake?

A

action by which is a neurotransmitter is quickly drawn back into the discharging neuron after being released into a synaptic cleft

126
Q

behavioral therapy technique to diminish excessive fears, involving gradual exposure to the feared stimulus paired with a positive coping experience, usually relaxation

A

systematic desensitization

127
Q

process emphasized in humanistic psychology in which people strive to achieve their highest potential against difficult life experiences

A

self-actualizing

128
Q

therapy method in which the client, rather than the counselor, primarily directs the course of discussion, seeking self-discovery and self-responsibility

A

person-centered therapy

129
Q

fundamental learning process first described by pavlov. an event that automatically elicits a response is paired with another stimulus event that does not. after repeated pairings, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that by itself can elicit the desired response

A

classical conditioning

130
Q

psychoanalytical theory that emphasizes the role of the ego in development and attributes psychological disorders to failure of the ego to manage impulses and internal conflicts

A

ego psychology

131
Q

psychoanalytical therapy method in which a dream content is examined as symbolic of id impulses and intrapsychic conflicts

A

dream analysis

132
Q

psychoanalytic concept suggesting that clients may seek to relate to the therapist as they do to important authority figures, particularly to their parents

A

transference

133
Q

what is intrapsychic conflicts?

A

in psychoanalytic theory, a struggle among the id, ego, and superego

134
Q

​in studies conducted by Elizabeth Loftus and her colleagues, individuals were told about false events that had supposedly occurred when they were children. The results of these studies indicate that ________.

a.
people can become quite convinced of events that never happened

b.
people can become convinced of events that did not happen only during hypnosis or other dissociative events

c.
only children younger than age 8 can be convinced of events that never happened

d.
people cannot be convinced of events that did not happen

A

a. people can become quite convinced of events that never happened

135
Q

Joe just ate 20 super hot buffalo wings and drank a 2 liter bottle of Mountain Dew. If Joe suffers from illness anxiety disorder, he would probably interpret any resulting stomach discomfort as ________.

a.
his own fault for eating too much

b.
“gas” pains related to overeating

c.
a sign that something is seriously wrong with his stomach

d.
the result of eating poor quality food

A

c. a sign that something is seriously wrong with his stomach

136
Q

The experience of dissociation (feelings of unreality; blunting of emotional experience and physical pain) during or immediately following a life-threatening situation is ________.

a.
seen frequently in children, but rarely seen in adults

b.
a sign of psychopathology

c.
extremely rare in people who do not have a DSM-5 diagnosis

d.
a normal reaction to the trauma

A

d. a normal reaction to the trauma

137
Q

The common feature in almost every case of dissociative identity disorder is ________.
a.
chronic, unrelenting substance abuse (usually alcohol or narcotic drugs)

b.
frequent hallucinations and delusions

c.
a previous diagnosis of body dysmorphic disorder

d.
a history of severe child abuse

A

d

138
Q

Some theorists suggest that dissociative identity disorder is an extreme subtype of __________.

A

PTSD

139
Q

During a fugue state, patients diagnosed with dissociative fugue ________.

a.
permanently lose memory of who they are and seldom recover any sense of their own identity

b.
demonstrate total loss of self, lose all memory of recent events, and typically will not leave their home for several weeks

c.
travel and typically experience memory loss during their trip

d.
feel compelled to travel to new places, but do not experience memory loss

A

c

140
Q

Jason suddenly notices that the world looks weird to him. Some objects look bigger than normal and others look smaller. Cars passing by seem oddly shaped, and people appear dead or mechanical. Jason is likely experiencing ________.

A

derealization

141
Q

According to your textbook, which of the following statements is true about the treatment of conversion disorder?

a.
The use of medication (e.g., atypical antipsychotics) is generally the most effective treatment.

b.
Freudian psychoanalytic methods to access the unconscious are the most effective treatment.

c.
The primary treatment strategy is to identify and attend to the traumatic or stressful life event.

d.
Social support and sustained attention are the most effective method of treatment for conversion disorder.

A

c

142
Q

In factitious disorders, the patient ________.

a.
voluntarily makes up symptoms in an effort to avoid work or receive some type of financial benefit (e.g., insurance benefits, money from a lawsuit)

b.
voluntarily makes up symptoms with no apparent external motivation

c.
is completely unaware that he/she is making up the symptoms

d.
truly experiences symptoms that have no apparent physical cause

A

b

143
Q

Which of the following would be typical for a patient suffering from a conversion disorder?

a.
Ability to name everything in the visual field even though the patient reports blindness.

b.
Performance far below average when asked to name objects in the visual field when the patient reports blindness.

c.
Ability to avoid walking into things even though the patient reports being unable to see anything.

d.
Ability to see some bright objects when calm but suffering complete loss of sight during a stressful period or emergency.

A

c

144
Q

Kaito is constantly worried that he will get sick. Although he feels fine now and believes that he is healthy, Kaito worries endlessly about developing a serious illness. Kaito would most likely be diagnosed with ________.

A

illness anxiety disorder

145
Q

James has been experiencing repeated seizures. However, none of the neurologists that he has visited could find any abnormal EEG activity in his brain. It is likely that James is exhibiting a case of ________.

A

psychogenic nonepileptic seizures

146
Q

A main difference between somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder is ________.

a.
none; the two terms refer to the same disorder starting with DSM-5

b.
somatic symptom disorder is associated with physical exacerbation of real symptoms, whereas illness anxiety disorder is associated with distorted beliefs about normal bodily function

c.
somatic symptom disorder is heritable, but illness anxiety disorder is not

d.
somatic symptom disorder has a real medical basis, but illness anxiety disorder does not

A

b

147
Q

In terms of conversion disorder, which of the following statements is TRUE?

a.
The primary treatment strategy is to identify and attend to the traumatic or stressful life event

b.
Medications are the primary treatment mode and should be started as soon as the diagnosis has been made

c.
Increasing social support and social skills is the most effective method of treatment

d.
Psychoanalytic methods (specifically those developed by Freud and Jung) to access the unconscious are the most effective treatment

A

a

148
Q

Stephanie experiences persistent feelings of detachment from herself. During these episodes, she indicates that it seems like she was observing herself from outside her body. Typically, the experience is so intense that she has trouble remembering who she is and finds it difficult to function in a coherent manner. Stephanie most likely would be diagnosed with ________.

A

dissociative disorder

149
Q

The alarm reaction to danger that is triggered by anxiety primarily involves the ________ nervous system.

A

autonomic

150
Q

According the textbook, for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), the typical pharmacological treatment of choice has been the category of drugs known as ________.

a.
tricyclics

b.
SSRIs

c.
benzodiazepines

d.
MAO inhibitors

A

c

151
Q

​DSM criteria of panic attacks include all of the following symptoms EXCEPT __________.

a.
fear of losing control or going crazy

b.
migraine headaches

c.
trembling or shaking

d.
sweating

A

b

152
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the treatment of specific phobias?

a.
Exposure-based exercises actually change brain functioning

b.
Avoiding a phobic situation weakens the phobic response

c.
Structured exposure-based exercises are no longer considered necessary

d.
Individuals with “blood” phobias must learn to relax their muscles to keep their blood pressure high enough to prevent fainting

A

a

153
Q

In Japan, the anxiety syndrome termed taijin kyofusho involves a fear of ________.

a.
speaking to attractive females

b.
personally offending others

c.
performing onstage or in public

d.
embarrassing oneself

A

b

154
Q

Unlike most of the anxiety disorders in which female sufferers predominate, the sex ratio is almost equal in ________.

a.
social anxiety disorder

b.
agoraphobia

c.
panic disorder

d.
specific phobias

A

a

155
Q

Trevor suffers from panic disorder. Often, he becomes anxious about exercising or being in rooms that are very hot. According to Trevor, this anxiety stems from the fact that these activities produce bodily sensations that are similar to ones he experiences when he has a panic attack. In behavioral terms, exercising and hot rooms contribute to Trevor’s anxiety because they have become ________.

a.
unconditioned responses

b.
conditioned stimuli

c.
conditioned responses

d.
unconditioned stimuli

A

b

156
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered an example of social anxiety disorder (SAD)?

a.
A person who can only eat comfortably when he is alone

b.
A young person who frequently gets into arguments with authority figures (e.g., parents), which triggers fainting spells

c.
A student who is reluctant to speak up in a classroom due to fear of embarrassing herself

d.
A male who has difficulty urinating in a public restroom when others are present

A

b

157
Q

Children experience many different types of fears. There is a developmental sequence to these fears - i.e., some typically appear earlier in life than others). Which of the following statements shows the typical developmental progression of fears in the proper order (from youngest to oldest)?

a.
separation from parents…loud noises…imaginary creatures…evaluation from peers

b.
separation from parents…imaginary creatures…loud noises…evaluation from peers

c.
loud noises…separation from parents…imaginary creatures….evaluation from peers

d.
imaginary creatures…separation from parents…evaluation from peers…loud noises

A

c

158
Q

Which of the following is an example of the treatment technique known as “exposure and response prevention”?

a.
Callie has a hoarding compulsion. She becomes anxious whenever she has to throw something away; she even keeps stuff that she doesn’t need and will never use. Her therapist has arranged for all of Callie’s junk to be removed and discarded while Callie is at work one day.

b.
Carrie has an obsessive fear of contamination, which has led to excessive hand-washing rituals. Her therapist is treating her by making her touch dirty laundry, but now allowing her to wash her hands for increasingly longer periods of time.

c.
Kerry has an obsessive fear of contamination, which has led to compulsive hand-washing rituals. Her therapist is treating her by forcing Kerry to wash her hand repeatedly, even when she does not feel anxious.

d.
Kelly has religious obsessions. She feels that if she does not read Bible passages every hour of the day, she will do something evil. Her therapist is treating her by having Kelly attend religious services more frequently so that “good” thoughts will replace the “bad” ones.

A

b

159
Q

Individuals suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) display a characteristic set of symptoms including all of the following EXCEPT ________

a.
sudden “flashbacks” in which the traumatic event is relived.

b.
memories and nightmares of the event.

c.
persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the traumatic event(s).

d.
decreased startle response and chronically decreased autonomic arousal

A

d

160
Q

For most people with body dysmorphic disorder (BDD), the most likely treatment option is to visit a __________.

a.
plastic surgeon

b.
psychologist

c.
gynecologist

d.
people with BDD think they are “perfect” and would never seek any sort of treatment by a professional

A

a

161
Q

Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

a.
Most people diagnosed with acute stress disorder do not eventually develop PTSD.

b.
A diagnosis of acute stress disorder will change to a diagnosis of PTSD one month after the traumatic event occurs.

c.
PTSD occurs in more than 90% of people who experience a traumatic event.

d.
Acute stress disorder is diagnosed (instead of PTSD) if a person’s symptoms begin 6 months or more after the traumatic event.

A

b

162
Q

Two days ago, Taylor was severely assaulted and ended up with multiple injuries that required a visit to the hospital emergency department. Taylor’s response has included symptoms such as emotional numbing, derealization, and some amnesia related to the attack. It seems that Taylor could be diagnosed with ________.

a.
panic disorder

b.
posttraumatic stress disorder

c.
social anxiety disorder

d.
body dysmorphic disorder

A

b

163
Q

Which category or type of obsession is most common (i.e., has the highest prevalence rate), according to the text?

a.
Cleaning and contamination

b.
Symmetry

c.
Forbidden thoughts or actions

d.
Hoarding

A

b

164
Q

A patient who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of appetite received different diagnoses about this condition from several psychologists. In terms of assessment, this indicates a problem with​ ________.

A

reliability

165
Q

n a mental status exam, a psychologist may assess all of the following EXCEPT​ ________.

a.
thought processes

b.
intelligence quotient (IQ)

c.
speech content

d.
appearance and behavior

A

b

166
Q

The reactivity phenomenon of self-monitoring procedures has been shown to __________.

a.
increase desired behaviors

b.
increase undesired behaviors

c.
both increase desired behaviors and decrease undesired behaviors

d.
both decrease desired behaviors and increase undesired behaviors

A

c

167
Q

DSM-5 is based on a ________ classification system.​

a.
prototypical

b.
categorical

c.
dimensional

d.
psychoanalytic

A

b

168
Q

A hypothesis is __________.

a.
a variable that is manipulated by researchers in an experimental study

b.
the same thing as a theory

c.
an educated guess

d.
an empirical conclusion

A

c

169
Q

While studying the impact of nutrition on intelligence, a researcher has one group of rats on a vitamin-rich diet while the other rat group eats Big Macs. While observing the rats run a complicated maze, the researcher notes that the vitamin-enhanced rats’ maze is more brightly lit than the Big Mac rats’ maze. The difference in lighting in this study is a(n) ________.

a.
confound

b.
dependent variable

c.
Type I error

d.
independent variable

A

a

170
Q

Placebos are used in experiments to ______.

a.
control for the variability of individuals who tend to volunteer for research studies

b.
help determine whether an independent variable actually causes a statistically significant change in a dependent variable

c.
make certain that the treatment and control group are randomly selected

d.
control for the expectations of some research participants that they will improve just because they are in a research study

A

d

171
Q

Use of a cross-sectional design would be appropriate in trying to find an answer to all of the following questions EXCEPT __________.

a.
“How does panic disorder differ in children and adults?”​

b.
​“Does exposure therapy tend to be more or less effective when it is used in the treatment of children versus adults?”

c.
​“What early behaviors did adult panic disorder patients tend to display when they were young?”

d.
​“Are the cognitive triggers for panic disorder different in children and adults?”

A

c

172
Q

It can be important to use a double-blind procedure in a research study in order to prevent the ________.

a.
independent variable from influencing the dependent variable

b.
confusion of correlation with causation

c.
researcher’s expectations from biasing the outcome

d.
participants’ expectations from biasing the independent variable

A

c

173
Q

Given what we know about the effects of genes and the environment, which of the following pairs of children would be expected to be most similar in terms of overall personality, psychological disorders, and intelligence?​

a.
Adopted children from different biological families raised in the same home

b.
Biological siblings raised in the same house

c.
Biological siblings, each adopted immediately after birth, one raised in New Orleans and the other in New York City

d.
Monozygotic twins, one raised in a wealthy family living in a modern city and the other raised in poverty in a developing nation

A

b

174
Q

Jada is conducting a study as part of her doctoral dissertation. She is testing the effects of sunlight on depression levels in teenagers. In her study, ________ is the independent variable.

a.
biological sex of the teenagers

b.
amount of sunlight exposure

c.
levels of depression

d.
age of the individual teenagers

A

b

175
Q

Dr. Bernard is studying the relationship between cell phone use during class and college students’ exam scores. Dr. Bernard finds that students who use their phone more frequently tend to have lower exam scores. In an interview on Fox News, Dr. Bernard says that he is unsure if the results generalize to other young adults that are already working in “real world” jobs. It seems like Dr. Bernard is acknowledging the issue of ________.

a.
external validity

b.
statistical significance

c.
cohort effects

d.
internal validity

A

a

176
Q

The most accurate way to think of genes is that they __________.

a.
determine both our physical and psychological characteristics.

b.
actually have very little to do with any of the characteristics that we display.

c.
set boundaries for our development.

d.
determine physical but not psychological characteristics.

A

c

177
Q

The influences of culture and gender on psychopathology are most clearly evident in the disorder of __________.

a.
bulimia nervosa

b.
depression

c.
panic disorder

d.
bipolar disorder

A

a

178
Q

Referring to behavior and personality as polygenic means that both are ________.

a.
influenced by many genes, with each individual gene contributing a relatively small effect.

b.
influenced by individual genes only rarely.

c.
influenced by only a few genes, but each has a large effect.

d.
a result of our genetic structure only.

A

a

179
Q

In a landmark study by Caspi et. al. (2003), researchers studied the stressful life events and genetics of 847 individuals. For individuals who had at least four stressful life events, the risk of major depression __________.

a.
doubled if they possessed two short alleles of the gene being studied.

b.
was entirely related to the genetic makeup and not the number of life stressors.

c.
was reduced by half if they possessed two short alleles of the gene being studied.

d.
remained unchanged regardless of genetic makeup.

A

a

180
Q

The brain and the spinal cord comprise the ________.

A

CNS

181
Q

Functions of the limbic system include control or regulation of ________.

a.
body posture, coordinated movement, and involuntary responses such as reflexes

b.
basic body functions (e.g., breathing)

c.
sleep cycles

d.
emotional experiences, expressions, impulse control, and basic drives such as aggression, sex, hunger, and thirst.

A

d

182
Q

The neurotransmitter associated with regulation of mood, behavior, and thought processes is _________.

A

serotonin

183
Q

In the 1992 studies conducted by Baxter et al., OCD patients were provided with cognitive-behavioral therapy (exposure and response prevention) but no drugs. This study is important because brain imaging showed that ________.

a.
neither OCD symptoms nor neurotransmitter function had improved.

b.
neurotransmitter circuits are the direct and only cause of OCD.

c.
the neurotransmitter circuits of the brain had been normalized.

d.
the patients’ OCD symptoms improved without changes in neurotransmitter function.

A

c

184
Q

Placing a rat in a cage where electrical shocks (over which the rat has no control) are occasionally administered through the floor is a way to create _____________.

A

learned helplessness

185
Q

According to modern cognitive science, the unconscious __________.

a.
clearly exists but in a very different way than Freud imagined.

b.
may or may not exist, as it is impossible to study material that we are not aware of.

c.
clearly exists in much the same way that Freud imagined.

d.
clearly does not exist.

A

a

186
Q

During our “emergency” or “alarm” responses, our bodies become hyper-aroused. Returning the body to a state of “normal” arousal requires the work of the ________.

A

parasympathetic

187
Q

Roberto and Javier are identical twins. They are raised in the same household by their biological parents. Which of the following statements about these two boys is correct, based on the parameters of the diathesis-stress model?

a.
They have no more likelihood of sharing a particular disorder than any other two boys who are randomly selected from the population

b.
They will not necessarily have the same disorders, because of potential differences in their stress

c.
They will have the same disorders, because their diathesis and stress are exactly the same

d.
The boys will not necessarily have the same disorders, because of potential differences in their individual diathesis

A

b

188
Q

Soo-jung had an aggressive tumor that damaged a large part of her somatic nervous system. As a result, she is likely to have difficulties in ________.

a.
moving her muscles

b.
remembering new information that she learns in her college classes

c.
remembering factual demographic information such as the breed of her first dog or the name of her first teacher

d.
seeing brightly-colored objects as they enter her visual field

A

a

189
Q

1

A

dendrite

190
Q

2

A

Schwann cell

191
Q

3

A

nodes of ranvier

192
Q

4

A

axon terminal

193
Q

5

A

myelin sheath

194
Q

6

A

cell body

195
Q

a

A

frontal lobe

196
Q

b

A

parietal lobe

197
Q

c

A

occipital lobe

198
Q

d

A

temporal lobe

199
Q

e

A

cerebellum

200
Q

The criterion that a particular behavior be atypical or not culturally expected is insufficient to define abnormality because _________.

a.
society is less willing to tolerate eccentricity in people who are productive.

b.
behaviors vary very little from one culture to another.

c.
behavior that occurs infrequently is considered abnormal in every culture.

d.
many people behave in ways that deviate from the average, but this doesn’t mean that they have a disorder.

A

d

201
Q

Marie was bitten by a dog when she was five years old. Now she is afraid of any dog she sees. According to a behavioral psychologist, her fear of dogs is a(n) __________.

a.
systematic desensitization

b.
negative reinforcement

c.
conditioned response

d.
stimulus discrimination

A

c

202
Q

Prevalence refers to __________

a.
the percentage of males and females who have a disorder.

b.
how many new cases of a disorder occur during a given period of time.

c.
how many people have recovered from a disorder in a given year.

d.
how many people in the population as a whole have a particular disorder.

A

d

203
Q

Which of the following accurately describes common beliefs about people with psychological disorders during the 14th century?

a.
They were regarded as basically good individuals who were not responsible for their abnormal behavior.

b.
They were considered to be suffering from religious delusions and were cared for by members of the church communities.

c.
They were provided with medical treatments and sometimes hospitalized because mental illness was regarded as equivalent to physical illness.

d.
They were seen as possessed by evil spirits and blamed for all misfortunes.

A

d

204
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the causes of psychopathology suggested by the Greek physician Hippocrates (400 BC)?

a.
Genetics

b.
Spirit possession

c.
Head trauma

d.
Brain pathology

A

b

205
Q

The concept of hysteria, which traditionally meant physical symptoms for which no organic pathology could be found, is now associated with which DSM-5 classification?

a.
Anxiety disorders

b.
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

c.
Somatic symptom disorders

d.
Neurosis

A

c

206
Q

Moral treatment for mental patients involved __________.

a.
treating institutionalized patients as normally as possible.

b.
judging abnormal behavior on the basis of religiously-themed “moral values.”

c.
the use of negative consequences to shape behavior.

d.
isolating institutionalized patients until they behaved “morally” (as determined by individual physicians).

A

a

207
Q

According to Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, the id operates on the “pleasure principle,” so it __________.

a.
thinks in an unemotional, logical, and rational manner.

b.
strictly adheres to social rules and regulations.

c.
is sexual, aggressive, selfish, and envious.

d.
utilizes secondary process thinking.

A

c

208
Q

The psychoanalytic concept of “defense mechanisms” is referred to as ____________ in contemporary terminology.

a.
self-efficacy

b.
coping styles

c.
maladaptive thinking

d.
cognitive dissonance

A

b

209
Q

Unconditional positive regard is critical to the ________ approach.

a.
object relations

b.
behavioral

c.
psychoanalytic

d.
humanistic

A

d

210
Q

According to Hippocrates’ humoral theory, the “choleric” personality is ________.

a.
kind

b.
hot-tempered

c.
kind

d.
loving

A

b

211
Q

Ariel is a college student who was diagnosed with schizophrenia last week. Her family members want to know if and how the disorder would progress and how it might impact her in the future. In medical terms, the family wanted to know Ariel’s ________.

a.
incidence

b.
prognosis

c.
prevalence

d.
etiology

A

b

212
Q

Janet was diagnosed with leukemia last May. Some of her treatments have been aversive and caused her to vomit. Currently, she has developed negative reactions to a variety of people (e.g., physicians, nurses) and things (e.g., hospital treatment rooms, smell of cleaner that was used in the hospital) associated with her treatments. This process is called ________.

a.
stimulus discrimination

b.
reciprocal determinism

c.
systematic desensitization

d.
stimulus generalization

A

d

213
Q

Several early clinical psychologists (e.g., Freud and Breuer) realized that some patients could be unaware of material that they previously recalled under hypnosis. This led to a major development in the history of psychopathology, specifically the (hypothesized) existence of the ________.

a.
mind-body dualism problem

b.
corpus callosum

c.
Electra complex

d.
unconscious mind

A

d

214
Q

Psychologist Carl Jung described the wisdom stored deep in individual human memories. Jung believed that this wisdom, which he called the ________, was passed down from generation to generation.

a.
object relations

b.
humoral personality

c.
reaction formation

d.
collective unconscious

A

d