Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

KNAT 522 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

specific gravity of water

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

object with specific gravity more than 1 will

A

sink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

object with specific gravity less than 1 will

A

float

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

definition of specific gravity

A

a ration of an objects weight to the weight of an equal volume of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

specific gravity of humans

A

0.95-0.97
-obese 0.93 (float)
-lean 1.10 (sink)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Archimedes principle of buoyancy

A

a body partially or fully immersed in a fluid will experience an upward thrust of that fluid that is equal to the weight of the fluid the body displaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does a specific gravity of 0.95 mean (% of floating and submerged)

A

95% body is submerged
5% of the body is floating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

center of buoyancy

A

buoyancy is the upward force
gravity is the downward force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

viscosity of water

A

resistance to movement within a fluid caused by the friction of the fluid molecules
-aka water resists the movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is the resistance to a body that is moving through it

A

drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

form drag

A

resistance that an object encounters in a fluid
-size and shape
-larger has more drag (turbulence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

wave drag

A

is the waters resistance because of turbulence caused by the speed of an object in the water
-change positions and speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

friction drag

A

result of waters surface tension
-competitive swimmers
-shaving arms and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pascals law of Hydrostatic pressure

A

states that pressure from a fluid is exerted equally on all surface of an immersed object at any given depth
-deeper = greater pressure (ears pop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can hydrostatic pressure have a positive effect on

A

-post injury edema
-exercise without risk (better optimal loading)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

whose center of gravity is higher

A

males COG is higher than females
-% of body weight borne at different depth varies between males and females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

advantages of aquatic therapy

A

-restricted weight bearing
-relaxation of muscles
-reduced joint compression = reduced pain
-warmth = overrides sensory system = relaxation and increased ROM
-reduced stress on muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

precautions of aquatic therapy

A

-fear of water
-medications (HR, BP, respiration, cardiorespiratory function)
-ear infections (cover the ear)
-specific conditions: diabetes, CV disease, seizures, sensitive to pool chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

contraindications to aquatic therapy

A

-illness
-open wounds
-other medical conditions (DVT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

differences of running gait from walking gait

A

-shorter stance phase
-lengthened swing phase
-no double support
-nonsupport phase = double float phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

running stride

A

the time during a running cycle when one foot makes contact with the ground to the time the opposite foot contacts the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

running cycle

A

cycle that includes 2 running strides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cycle time

A

amount of time it takes to perform one step length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

stride rate

A

inverse of stride time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

foot strike

A

initial contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what increases as velocity of running gait increases

A

stride length and stride rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what decreases with an increases in speed of running gait

A

cycle time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

parts of swing running phase

A

-initial swing (double float at start)
-midswing
-terminal swing (double float at end)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

parts of stance running phase

A

-absorption
-midstance
-propulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

types of assistive devices depend on

A

-patients age and size
-physical ability and coordination
-balance
-specific injury
-weight-bearing status
-comfort level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

device selection is dictated by

A

the weight-bearing required for optimal recovery after an injury or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

NWB ambulation

A

-no weight permitted
-two crutches or walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PWB

A

-WB without pain
-two crutches or walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TTWB (toe-touch) and TDWB (touch-down)

A

-PWB with touching toe to the ground for stability
-two crutches or walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

WBAT

A

-no WB restrictions
-two crutches -> one crutches or cane before eliminating them all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

proper fitting of crutches

A

-6 inches lateral and 6 inches anterior to the toes
-2-3 fingers width from crutch to axilla
-20-30 degree elbow bend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

proper fitting of canes

A

-with canes next to leg, top of cane handle is at wrist or greater trochanter
-20-30 degree elbow bend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

two-point gait

A

PWB allowed on involved extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

three-point gait

A

-axillary crutches, forearm crutches, walker
-NWB on one leg
-swing to or swing through gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

four-point gait

A

-used for those who have bilateral lower-extremity involvement
-involves using one crutch with each contralateral leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

single support ambulation

A

-1 crutch or cane
-both feet on floor
-used for stability and balance
-device moves with the injured leg

42
Q

how to use assistive devices on the stairs

A

-up with the good
-down with the bad
-device always goes with the injured leg

43
Q

how to use assistive devices on ramps

A

-device and injured leg kept together
-take shorter steps

44
Q

safety instructions and precautions with assistive devices

A

-inspect equipment for wear and damage
-remove throw rugs
-environmental conditions: use caution in rain, ice, snow
-keep assistive devices close to the body to avoid tripping others
-do not rest axillae on axillary pads

45
Q

body’s ability to transmit afferent information about position sense, to interpret the info, and respond consciously or unconsciously to stimulation through appropriate execution of posture and movement

A

proprioception

46
Q

proprioception is targeted in therapeutic exercise after

A

flexibility, strength, and endurance have improved

47
Q

components of proprioception

A

agility
balance
coordination

48
Q

proprioceptors

A

afferent nerves that receive and send impulses from stimuli within the skin, muscles, joints, and tendons to the CNS
-send info about tension of the muscles, position of body part, etc

49
Q

types of cutaneous receptors

A

fast adapting afferents
slow adapting I and II afferents

50
Q

fast adapting afferent cutaneous receptors

A

-detects sudden changes in speed and movement
-send lots of info quickly to CNS

51
Q

slow adapting I and II afferents cutaneous receptors

A

-produce constant level of stimulation and provide info related to joint and limb position

52
Q

injured subjects have increases reliance on these receptors for proprioception

A

cutaneous

53
Q

GTOs

A

detect tension, respond to contraction and stretch, produce relaxation

54
Q

muscle spindles

A

respond to stretch, cause contraction

55
Q

muscle spindles and GTOs

A

-work together to facilitate actions of opposing muscles and synergists
-determine joint position because of muscle-length sensitivity
-act as limb stabilizers

56
Q

types of joint receptors

A

group II afferents
groupt III and IV afferents

57
Q

group II afferents joint receptors

A

-similar to A-beta
-large diameter, myelinated axons with high speed conduction
-ruffini endings, Pacinian corpuscles, golgi-mazzoni corpsucles

58
Q

group III and IV afferents joint receptors

A

-group III are A fibers
group IV are C fibers
-small diameter, thinly myelinated or no myelinated axons with slower conduction
-free nerve endings in soft tissue and articular surfaces
-nocieceptors stimulated by pain and inflammation when a joint is placed in any end position

59
Q

ligament receptors

A

-stimulated by ligamentous stress
-produce inhibitory response of agonist muscles: ruptured ACL prevents quad muscles from contracting

60
Q

T/F the CNS cannot determine the position of an extremity unless it receives input from all sensory, motor, and joint receptors

A

true

61
Q

spinal cord

A

-spinal reflex or internuncial connections
-quickest response

62
Q

brainstem

A

-cerebellum: primary proprioceptive correlation center
-posture and balance

63
Q

cerebral cortex

A

-volitional control
-correct movement learned and consciously controlled
-slowest response, becomes automatic

64
Q

balance

A

body’s ability to maintain an equilibrium by controlling its COG over its base of support

65
Q

3 systems of balance

A

vestibular
oculomotor
somatosensory

66
Q

what influences balance

A

strength and sensory input from CNS

67
Q

vestibular system

A

vertical and horizontal position and motion
-ear

68
Q

oculomotor system

A

relative position of body in space

69
Q

somatosensory system

A

proprioception

70
Q

static testing of balance

A

Romberg
BESS

71
Q

dynamic testing of balance

A

SEBT
Y-balance
closed kinetic chain upper extremity stability test

72
Q

what produces relaxation of a muscle

A

GTOs

73
Q

coordination

A

complex process by which smooth pattern of activity is produced through a combination of muscles acting together with appropriate intensity and timing

74
Q

components of coordination

A

-perception of activity
-feedback and feedforward
-performance adjustment
-repetition (develops engram and accuracy)
-inhibition

75
Q

how is coordination accomplished

A

complex neural network of sensory receptors, internuncial neurons, ascending and descending corticospinal pathways, and afferents receptors

76
Q

overflow

A

with increased voluntary effort or prolonged effort, motor activity spreads to additional motor units of the same muscle and to motor units of other muscles

77
Q

what produces incoordination

A

overflow

78
Q

what causes incoordination

A

weakness

79
Q

feedback

A

sensory and visual input -> cerebral cortex/cerebellar response/spinal reflex -> muscle activity -> feedback on performance from sensory and visual

80
Q

feedforward

A

sensory and visual input -> cerebral cortex/cerebellar response/spinal reflex -> muscle activity

81
Q

agility

A

ability to control the direction of a body or its parts during rapid movement
-built on flexibility, strength, power, followed by coordination and balance

82
Q

general concepts of exercise progression

A

-balance first, then coordination, then agility
-simple to complex
-initial exercises are slow and controlled
-advance only after goal is achieved or activity is mastered

83
Q

when should you do proprioceptive exercises

A

early in the session when less fatigued

84
Q

swinging a baseball bat at a pitch would most likely use what to ensure accuracy

A

feedforward

85
Q

during upper extremity ABC rehab, what would be the last step

A

functional/performance specific activities

86
Q

exercising a sprained ankle in water can help reduce what in the ankle

A

both pain and edema

87
Q

appropriate order in which problems are addressed in a rehab program

A

flexibility, strength, functional progression activities, performance-specific

88
Q

T/F the brain stem is where conscious correction of motor performance originates

A

false

89
Q

injured patients have an increases reliance on which receptors

A

cutaneous

90
Q

T/F a larger object has more drag in water than a smaller object

A

true

91
Q

what statements describe feed forward information

A

-movement is based on previous knowledge of the activity
-info on the accuracy comes after the movement is completed
-information is used to predict the success of the movement

92
Q

T/F the Romberg test is used to assess agility deficits

A

false

93
Q

which exercise places the least load or compression on the body

A

walking in shallow water

94
Q

a patients arm will have more resistance in the water if they move their arm

A

faster

95
Q

which should be used as transition parameter to advance functional activities

A

proprioception

96
Q

T/F strength does not play a role in balance

A

false

97
Q

examples of group II afferents nerve endings

A

ruffini and Pacinian corpsucles

98
Q

the quickest proprioceptors neural response occurs with efferent impulses that are initiated in the

A

spinal cord

99
Q

T/F ab object with a specific gravity of 1.5 will NOT float in water

A

true

100
Q

a patients using assistive devices is more stable because he or she has

A

a wider base of support

101
Q

running gait differs from walking gait in that the stance phase is ___ and the swing phase is ___

A

stance phase is shortened
swing phase is lengthened

102
Q

which side does the cane go

A

opposite of injured leg

KNAT 522 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions