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Physiology of Domestic Animals > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

define nerves

A

a tissue; collections of neurons and associated cells (glial cells)

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2
Q

define neurons

A

excitable cells capable of receiving input stimuli from other cells (or the environment), integrating the signal, transmitting it long distances and relaying the signal to a downstream cell

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3
Q

parts of the Central Nervous System (CNS)

A
  • brain and spinal cord
  • cerebral spinal fluid
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4
Q

parts of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

A
  • nerves
  • afferent and efferent divisions
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5
Q

Afferent Division

A

transmission of signal to the central nervous system from sensory and visceral stimuli

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6
Q

Efferent Division

A

transmission of signals to respond to the original stimulus (voluntary or involuntary)

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7
Q

difference between neurons and nerves

A

neurons are the cells responsible for the actual transmission signal. nerves are the main tissues involves with receiving and sending signals (collection of neurons and glial cells).

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8
Q

glial cells

A

non-neuronal cells that support or protect neurons

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9
Q

examples of glial cells

A
  • Schwann cells
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Asctocytes
  • Microglial
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10
Q

microglial cell

A

immune cell (glial cell)

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11
Q

asctocytes

A

encases vasculature and keeps neurons close to blood vessels, homeostasis (glial cell)

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12
Q

Schwann cell

A

myelinated neurons in PNS (glial cell)

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13
Q

Satellite cell (neural tissue)

A

extra support and protection in PNS (glial cell)

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14
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

myelinated CNS axons (glial cell)

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15
Q

ependymal cells

A

produce cerebral spinal fluid (CNS glial cell)

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16
Q

Efferent branch division

A

somatic and autonomic nervous system

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17
Q

somatic nervous system

A

controls motor neurons (skeletal muscle)

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18
Q

autonomic nervous system division

A
  • sympathetic
  • parasympathetic
  • enteric
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19
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

fight or flight response

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20
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

rest and digest response

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21
Q

4 structural regions of neurons

A
  • dendrites
  • soma (cell body)
  • axon
  • synapses
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22
Q

dendrites

A

major site of synaptic input from other neurons

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23
Q

soma

A

cell body of a neuron, major site of integration of synaptic potentials

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24
Q

axon

A

conduction component of a neuron, can be very very long

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25
Q

synapses

A

the output of a neuron, can alter activities of other cells

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26
Q

presynaptic

A

passing the signal

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27
Q

post synaptic

A

recipient of the signal

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28
Q

multipolar neuron

A

main type, multiple poles from the cell body

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29
Q

bipolar neuron

A

2 poles coming out of the cell body

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30
Q

unipolar/pseudounipolar neuron

A

singular branched neuron

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31
Q

PNS glial cells

A
  • Schwann cells
  • satellite cells
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32
Q

gray matter

A

dense collection of cell bodies

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33
Q

white matter

A

more axonal tracks (myelinated axons are fatty making it have a lighter appearance)

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34
Q

fascicle (nerve)

A

many axons bundled together in connective tissue

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35
Q

endonerium

A

connective tissue around the individual axon
(endo=inside)

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36
Q

perineurium/perimysium

A

connective tissue around a fascicle

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37
Q

epinerium

A

connective tissue around the entire nerve

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38
Q

describe the organization of a nerve

A

a nerve consists of a group of fascicles enclosed by a connective tissue covering (axon, covered by myelin sheath, covered by endonerium, all axons packed into a fascicle, faciscle covered by perineurim, multiple fascicles packed together and covered by epinerium)

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39
Q

what does it mean to be excitable?

A

excitable cells can undergo rapid changes in their membrane potentials

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40
Q

membrane potential

A

the separation of charges across a plasma membrane

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41
Q

average membrane potential

A

-70mV

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42
Q

is the inside the cell more negative or positive when there is a membrane potential?

A

negative charges

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43
Q

is the outside the cell more negative or positive when there is a membrane potential?

A

positive charges

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44
Q

the greater the concentration gradient, the _______________ the diffusion

A

more rapid

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45
Q

the concentration gradient is particularly important for determining the ________________________

A

rate of ion movement

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46
Q

electrolytes and polar solutes can ONLY move through the membrane IF ______________

A

their channels and transporters allow

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47
Q

how do electron gradients occur?

A

from concentration gradients when they are separated by selectively permeable membrane (contributes to membrane potential)

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48
Q

Is Na more concentrated on the inside or outside the cell?

A

outside the cell

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49
Q

Is K more concentrated on the inside or outside the cell?

A

inside the cell

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50
Q

electro-chemical gradients

A

movement of ions across the membrane is dependent on concentration gradient AND the charge across a membrane

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51
Q

membrane potential is established primarily by the relatively leakiness of which ions?

A

Na and K

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52
Q

How is the average membrane potential maintained?

A

Na/K ATPase pumps
(3 Na out of the cell, 2 K into the cell)

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53
Q

K+ is ________ times more permeable than Na

A

25

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54
Q

leaky ion channels

A

open all the time

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55
Q

gated ion channels

A

induced to open

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56
Q

sensory input

A

sensory receptors detect some sort of stimuli

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57
Q

integration

A

nervous system processes the sensory input and decides what should be done about it

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58
Q

motor output

A

the response that occurs when your nervous system activates certain parts of your body

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59
Q

2 main parts of the nervous system

A
  • central nervous system
  • peripheral nervous system
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60
Q

what is a greater make up in the nervous system; neurons or glial cells?

A

glial cells (10:1)

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61
Q

3 things all neurons have in common

A
  1. some of the longest lived cells in the body
  2. are irreplaceable
  3. high metabolic rate (25% of calories per day are consumed by the brain activity)
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62
Q

role of an axon

A

transmit electrical impulses away from the body to other cells

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63
Q

sensory neurons

A

transmit impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS (afferent neurons) ex=unipolar neuron

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64
Q

motor neurons

A

impulse moves from CNS to the rest of the body (efferent neurons) ex=mostly multipolar neuron

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65
Q

interneurons

A

impulse moves between sensory and motor neurons (mostly multipolar neurons)

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66
Q

somatic nervous system

A

carries motor and sensory information, responsible for voluntary movement, processes external stimuli (hearing, touch, sight)

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67
Q

primary reason a membrane potential forms

A

due to excess outflow of K+ relative to the inflow of Na+

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68
Q

graded potential

A

localized changes in a cells membrane potential

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69
Q

can graded potential vary in magnitude?

A

YES, the potential change is proportional to the signal
(weak signal=minor change, strong signal=major change)

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70
Q

in graded potentials, the more neurotransmitters bound the _____________ the amount of local ion movement across the membrane

A

greater

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71
Q

can graded potentials be hyperpolarized or depolarized?

A

yes

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72
Q

depolarization

A

membrane potential is less negative (more positive)

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73
Q

hyperpolarization

A

membrane potential is more negative

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74
Q

in a graded potential, the magnitude __________ with distance from the site of origin

A

diminishes

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75
Q

where do graded potentials occur?

A

dendrites and soma

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76
Q

the size and duration of membrane potentials is determined by _________________________________

A

the size and duration of inputs

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77
Q

excitatory inputs

A

increase positive charges, bring closer to threshold, depolarize

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78
Q

inhibitory inputs

A

increase negative charges, further away from threshold, hyper polarize

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79
Q

in a graded potential, if there is a stronger stimulus it will release more neurotransmitters which will open more ion channels causing a greater change to the _____________________

A

membrane potential

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80
Q

threshold value

A

the membrane potential level that will induce an action potential

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81
Q

how does graded potential spread?

A

passive current flow

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82
Q

define passive current flow

A

ions flow between the active area to the inactive areas around it to spread, when the receptor closes the spread will stop

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83
Q

decremental

A

current flow dissipates from the original source

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84
Q

is graded potential decremental?

A

YES

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85
Q

summation in post-synaptic (graded) potentials

A

graded potentials in neurons can enhance or counteract one another id the occur nearly simultaneously or if repeated stimulations arrive in rapid sequence

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86
Q

temporal summation

A

repeated signals are capable of having a more pronounced effect than the individual signal alone

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87
Q

what does temporal summation look like on a graph?

A

the original signal gets a larger signal added onto it

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88
Q

spatial summation

A

stimulation occurs at the same time in different parts of the neuron

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89
Q

what does spatial summation look like on a graph?

A
  • will either combine the signals to create just one larger one
  • cancels out the signal completely (excitatory + inhibitory)
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90
Q

if summation (additive depolarization) occurs to reach threshold value an ____________________ will occur

A

action potential

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91
Q

axon hillock

A

where the initiation of an action potential occurs in an axon (where the soma and axon connect)

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92
Q

average threshold value

A

-55 mV

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93
Q

it is the _________________ of multiple graded potentials that can initiate an action potential

A

cummulative action

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94
Q

action potential

A

large charges in the distribution of charges across a membrane that occurs rapidly, but last a short amount of time

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95
Q

how long is an action potential?

A

1-2 ms

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96
Q

are action potential decremental?

A

NO - the intensity of the signal will be the exact same throughout the entire axon

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97
Q

what does it mean that the action potential is an all or nothing phenomenon?

A

if threshold is reached an action potential will occur with the same frequency, if threshold is not reached it will not occur

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98
Q

explosive __________________ takes place at threshold

A

depolarization

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99
Q

repolarization

A

occurs after depolarization, makes the membrane potential more negative

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100
Q

rapid changes in the membrane potential from a neuron reaching threshold is from the sequential opening and closing of which voltage gated ion channels?

A

Na and K

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101
Q

what ion depolarizes the membrane potential?

A

Na+ influx

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102
Q

what ion causes repolarization of a membrane potential?

A

K+ efflux

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103
Q

which voltage gated ion channel opens at threshold?

A

Na channels

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104
Q

when are Na+ channels INACTIVATED during and action potential?

A

the peak of the action potential

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105
Q

what is the difference between the K and Na channels?

A

Na is faster and more complicates (can inactivate) while K is much slower

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106
Q

when do the voltage gated K channels finally open?

A

peak of an action potential

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107
Q

what causes hyperpolarization?

A

the K channels are slow, so they close past the average membrane potential causing the membrane potential to become more negative

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108
Q

resting membrane potential: Na and K voltage gated channels

A
  • Na+ = closed
  • K+ = closed
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109
Q

rising phase: Na and K voltage gated channels

A
  • Na+ = open
  • K+ = closed
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110
Q

falling phase: Na and K voltage gated channels

A
  • Na+ = inactivated
  • K+ = open
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111
Q

Pk or Pna meaning

A

the permeability of the ions through the membrane

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112
Q

what reestablished and maintains the membrane potential after hyperpolarization of an action potential?

A

Na/K ATPase

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113
Q

absolute refractory period

A

period of time when another action potential can NOT be generated (Na+ channels are inactive and cannot be opened)

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114
Q

relative refractory period

A

an action potential can be generated but it requires a stronger than normal stimuli

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115
Q

why is propagation of an action potential in one direction?

A

Na channels need time to recover so it cannot go backwards.

The action potential at one location on an axon initiates an action potential at a neighboring location, by repeating this process, a signal can travel longdistances (e.g. 1m) along an axon without any decrease in amplitude.

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116
Q

myelin sheaths

A

layers of cell membranes from neuron-associated cells that are wrapped around the axon

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117
Q

how do myelin sheaths generally help neurons?

A

their presence supports and helps propagate action potentials moving down the axon

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118
Q

unmyelinated axons

A

in the PNS, Schwaan cells will support the axon but there will be no insulating myelin sheath

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119
Q

action potentail propogation in unmyelinated axons

A

a series of rolling action potentials that occur down the action potential

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120
Q

saltatory propagation

A

action potentail propogation in myelinated axons

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121
Q

how does myelinated action potential differ from unmyelinated?

A
  • myelinated axons have a faster conduction velocity then unmyelinated axons
  • action potential occurs between the nodes
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122
Q

nodes of ranvier

A

space between myelin sheath, where the voltage gated ion channels are located

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123
Q

action potential conduction velocity is affected by

A
  • myelination
  • axon diameter
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124
Q

how does axon diameter affect conduction velocity?

A

the larger the diameter of the axon, the faster the conduction velocity

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125
Q

GP vs AP: can be depolarizing and hyperpolarizing

A

graded potential

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126
Q

GP vs AP: always lead to depolarization of membrane and reversal of the membrane potential.

A

action potential

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127
Q

GP vs AP: Amplitude is proportional to the strength of the stimulus.

A

graded potential

128
Q

GP vs AP: Amplitude is all-or-none; strength of the stimulus is coded in the frequency

A

action potential

129
Q

GP vs AP: small amplitude

A

graded potential

130
Q

GP vs AP: large amplitude (about 100 mV)

A

action potential

131
Q

GP vs AP: duration of few ms to sec

A

graded potential

132
Q

GP vs AP: short duration of 3-5 ms

A

action potential

133
Q

GP vs AP: Ion channels responsible for potentials may be ligand-gated, mechanosensitive, or temperature sensitive channels, or may be channels that are gated by cytoplasmic signaling molecules.

A

graded potential

134
Q

GP vs AP: Voltage-gated Na+ and voltage-gated K+ channels are responsible for the neuronal action potential.

A

action potential

135
Q

GP vs AP: The ions involved are usually Na+, K+, or Cl−

A

graded potential

136
Q

GP vs AP: The ions involved are Na+ and K+

A

action potential

137
Q

GP vs AP: No refractory period

A

graded potential

138
Q

GP vs AP: Absolute and relative refractory periods are important aspects

A

action potential

139
Q

GP vs AP: can be summed over time (temporal summation) and across space (spatial summation).

A

graded potential

140
Q

GP vs AP: Summation is not possible (due to the all-or-
none nature, and the presence of refractory periods).

A

action potential

141
Q

GP vs AP: travel by passive spread (electrotonic spread) to neighboring membrane regions.

A

graded potential

142
Q

GP vs AP: propagation to neighboring membrane regions is characterized by regeneration of a new potential at every point along the way.

A

action potential

143
Q

GP vs AP: decremental

A

graded potential

144
Q

GP vs AP: non-decremental

A

action potential

145
Q

GP vs AP: brought about by external stimuli (in sensory
neurons) or by neurotransmitters released in synapses

A

graded potential

146
Q

GP vs AP: triggered by membrane depolarization to
threshold

A

action potential

147
Q

GP vs AP: potentials can occur in any region of the cell
plasma membrane: in neurons, they occur in specialized regions of synaptic contact with other cells or membrane regions involved in receiving sensory stimuli.

A

graded potential

148
Q

GP vs AP: Occur in plasma membrane regions where voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels are highly concentrated.

A

action potential

149
Q

synapses

A

areas that are well defined specific regions where downstream neurotransmitters are delivered

150
Q

The Synapse

A

where the neuron passes its signal to an elector cell

151
Q

presynaptic terminal

A

where action potential occurs, carries vesicles of neurotransmitters using microtubules and neurofilaments to the post synaptic element

152
Q

post synaptic element

A

receives neurotransmitters (using receptors) from the presynaptic terminal

153
Q

synaptic cleft

A

the space between the presynaptic terminal and post synaptic element, enzymes are here to hydrolyze neurotransmitters

154
Q

steps of the chemical synapse

A
  1. AP reaches presynaptic terminal
  2. depolarization opens ion channels letting Ca2+ in
  3. Ca2+ triggers release of NT from vessicles
  4. NT binds to receptors on postsynaptic membrane
  5. postsynaptic gets a membrane potential
  6. AP propagates through the next cell
  7. NT are inactivated
155
Q

what triggers the release of neurotransmitters in the synapse?

A

Ca2+

156
Q

how are neurotransmitters inactivated?

A

hydrolyzed by enzymes in the synaptic cleft OR transported back into the presynaptic terminals and package into vesicles by proteins

157
Q

what is the area called where synaptic vesicles will release?

(_________zone)

A

active zone

158
Q

post synaptic densities

A

accumulation of neurotransmitter receptors and other proteins that will support them

159
Q

what is responsible for docking the vesicles of neurotransmitters to help fuse them to the membrane?

A

v-snares and t-snares

160
Q

what induces vesicle fusion with the membrane, but docking of vesicles can occur in its absence?

A

Ca2+

161
Q

what happens if v-snares and t-snares get damaged in synapses and they cannot interact?

A

neurotransmitters will not release

162
Q

what can cause damage to t-snares and v-snares allowing for neurotransmitters to no longer release?

A

toxins (botulism, tetanus)

163
Q

examples of small molecule neurotransmitters

A
  • acetylcholine
  • norepinephrine
  • epinephrine
164
Q

examples of neuropeptides

A
  • enkephalin
  • oxytocin
    (AA and peptides)
165
Q

how are neuropeptides made?

A

synthesized in the rough ER and then cleaved from larger peptides

166
Q

how are small molecule neurotransmitters produced?

A

enzymatic pathways, processed in the Golgi

167
Q

do neuropeptides have fast or slow axonal transport?

A

fast (400 mm/day)

168
Q

do small molecule neurotransmitters have fast or slow axonal transport?

A

slow (0.5-5 mm/day)

169
Q

why are small molecule neurotransmitters transported much slower than neuropeptides?

A

they do not have to be replaced as often

170
Q

small molecule: synthesis site

A

axonal terminal or varicosity (neuromuscular junction)

171
Q

neuropeptide: synthesis site

A

nucleus/ER as a propeptide

172
Q

small molecule: vesicle

A

small, clear

173
Q

small molecule: release

A

low frequency stimulation

174
Q

small molecule: inactivation

A

reuptake or enzymes

175
Q

neuropeptide: vesicle

A

large, dense

176
Q

neuropeptide: release

(high or low frequency)

A

high frequency stimulation

177
Q

neuropeptide: inactivation

A

extracellular peptidases

178
Q

ionotropic receptors

A

ion channels that open when a ligand attaches

179
Q

metabptropic receptors

A

g-protein coupled receptor

180
Q

ionotropic: receptor

A

ligand gated channel receptor

181
Q

ionotropic: structure

A

4-5 subunits around an ion channel

182
Q

ionotropic: molecular action

A

opens ion channel

183
Q

ionotropic: 2nd messenger?

A

NO

184
Q

ionotropic: gating of ion channel

A

direct

185
Q

metabptropic: receptor

A

g-protein coupled receptor

186
Q

metabptropic: structure

A

no channel, 7 transmembrane segments

187
Q

metabptropic: molecular action

A

activate g-protein

188
Q

metabptropic: 2nd messenger?

A

YES

189
Q

metabptropic: gating of ion channel

A

indirect

190
Q

metabptropic: type of synaptic effect

(slow or fast)

A

slow post synaptic potential

191
Q

ionotropic: type of synaptic effect

(fast or slow)

A

FAST excitatory and inhibitory post synaptic potential

192
Q

acetylcholine receptors

A
  • nicotinic = ionoropic
  • muscarinic = metabotropic
193
Q

norepinephrine receptor

A
  • alpha = metabotropic
  • beta = metabotropic
194
Q

Central Nervous System

A

brain and spinal cord

195
Q

Peripheral Nervous Sytem

A

all neural tissue but the brain and spinal cord, afferent and efferent divisions

196
Q

afferent division

A

receives sensory and visceral stimuli and sends information to the CNS

197
Q

efferent division

A

the output of CNS, broken into somatic and autonomic

198
Q

somatic nervous system

A

voluntary (ex: skeletal muscle)

199
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic vs parasympathetic vs enteric

200
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

fight or flight

201
Q

parasympathetic

A

rest and digest

202
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves do humans have?

A

31

203
Q

how are the spinal nerves named?

A

according to the region of the vertebral column to which they are connected

204
Q

order of the vetebral column

A

top- cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral -bottom

205
Q

ganglion

A

a collection or group of neuron cell bodies in the PNS

206
Q

afferent fibers enter through the ________ root and efferent fibers exit through the _________ root

A

dorsal, ventral

207
Q

does sensory information come in through the ventral or dorsal side of the spinal nerves?

A

dorsal

208
Q

does motor information come out through the ventral or dorsal side of the spinal nerves?

A

ventral

209
Q

neurotransmitter associated with the sympathetic nervous system

A

norepinephrine (and acetylcholineis used for pre ganglia)

210
Q

neurotransmitter associated with the parasympathetic nervous system

A

acetylcholine

211
Q

define excitable tissue

A

they can propagate changes in membrane potentials which cause action potentials that cause contraction (muscle)

212
Q

3 types of muscle

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

213
Q

striated muscle

A

skeletal and cardiac

214
Q

unstriated muscle

A

smooth

215
Q

voluntary muscle

A

skeletal

216
Q

involuntary muscle

A

cardiac and smooth

217
Q

define striated

A

a repeated pattern along the length of the muscle composed of aligned contractile fibers

218
Q

what regulates skeletal muscle?

A

completely depends on signaling from the nervous system to work/contact because it is voluntary

219
Q

what regulates cardiac and smooth muscle?

A

the nervous system can influence them but they respond to other stimuli within the body because they are involuntary

220
Q

myoblasts

A

muscle cells

221
Q

what does skeletal muscle look like?

A

striated, tubular, multinucleated

222
Q

what does smooth muscle look like?

A

spindle shaped, non-striated, unicellular

223
Q

what does cardiac muscle look like?

A

striated, branched, unicellular

224
Q

where is cardiac muscle located?

A

walls of the heart only

225
Q

myofibril

A

contractive units packed into a muscle fiber with mitochondria and nuclei

226
Q

skeletal muscle: muscle fiber

A

a typical cell packed with myofibrils that push the nucleus to the side

227
Q

skeletal muscle: endomysium

A

covering of the muscle fiber

228
Q

skeletal muscle: fascicle

A

collections of muscle cells

229
Q

skeletal muscle: perimysium

A

covering of fascicles

230
Q

skeletal muscle: muscle

A

collection of fascicles

231
Q

skeletal muscle: epimysium

A

covering of the entire muscle

232
Q

skeletal muscle: tendon

A

attached the muscle to bone

233
Q

A band (coloring)

A

dark

234
Q

I band (coloring)

A

light

235
Q

how are skeletal muscles innervated?

A

by motor neurons, it must come from the ventral side and attach to individual fibers

236
Q

skeletal muscle: a weak contraction means a ______ motor units are contracting, while a strong contraction means _______ motor units are contracting

A

few, a lot

237
Q

how is skeletal muscle formed?

A

the fusion of myoblasts (why there are multiple nuclei)

238
Q

what muscle can fatigue?

A

skeletal muscle

239
Q

sarcoplasm

A

muscle cell cytoplasm

240
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

muscle endoplasmic reticulum

241
Q

sarcolemma

A

muscle cell membrane

242
Q

2 types of myofilaments in skeletal muscle

A

actin and myosin

243
Q

what is contraction in skeletal muscle?

A

shortening of myofibrils due to actin filaments sliding over myosin filaments, the length of the filaments remains the same

244
Q

A band

A
  • thick myosin filament
  • dark
  • contains the H zone
245
Q

what protein anchors myosin?

A

M-line

246
Q

H zone

A

ONLY myosin, no overlap of actin

247
Q

more contraction, ______________ the H zone

A

smaller

248
Q

I band

A
  • thin actin filament
  • light
249
Q

what protein anchors actin?

A

Z-disc

250
Q

sarcomere

A

contractile unit (from z-disc to z-disc)

251
Q

how do t-tubules support contraction?

A

as an action potential sweeps across the sarcolemma, it will travel down the t-tubules which allows for the action potential to move down into the muscle cell

252
Q

t-tubules

A

extensions of the sarcolemma deep into the muscle fibers

253
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

huge organelle that drapes around myofibrils, STORES Ca2+!!

254
Q

what ion is critical of contraction?

A

Ca2+

255
Q

terminal cisternae

A

relays information to get Ca2+ released

256
Q

what sites are on the motor head group of myosin?

A
  • actin binding site
  • ATP binding site
257
Q

what orientation does myosin lay?

A

they lay tail to tail with motor heads on the ends

258
Q

tropomyosin

A

prevents myosin from binding to actin in the absence of Ca2+

259
Q

troponin

A

calcium binding protein

260
Q

what happens when calcium binds to troponin?

A

when Ca is bound, it shifts the position of tropomyosin exposing the myosin binding site so that contraction can occur

261
Q

why are there so many mitochondria between the myofibrils?

A

contraction is an ATP dependent process

262
Q

within the myofibril, each filament is surrounded by _____ light filaments

A

6

263
Q

how many nuclei in each cardiac muscle cell?

A

one or two

264
Q

why are cardiac cells connected by intercalated disks?

A
  • contains gap junctions
  • connected by desmosomes and adherent junctions
265
Q

why is cardiac muscle auto-rhythmic?

A

it is involuntary, however the nervous system can have influence

266
Q

which muscle shows branching?

A

cardiac

267
Q

how does cardiac muscle avoid fatigue?

A

able to completely rest between contractions

268
Q

how many nuclei are in a smooth muscle cell?

A

one

269
Q

dense bodies

A

what actin is attached to in smooth muscle

270
Q

caveolae

A

folds in the cell membrane that contain aggregates of receptors and ion channels

271
Q

where is smooth muscle found in the body?

A

walls of hollow organs, vessel walls, erector pili muscles of skin, iris

272
Q

how does smooth muscle avoid fatigue?

A

it has slow contractions that can be sustained for long periods of time

273
Q

what parts of the nervous system can modulate smooth muscle?

A

autonomic (sympathetic and parasympathetic)

274
Q

are there gap junctions in smooth muscle?

A

yes

275
Q

how does smooth muscle contract?

A

dense bodies are drawn in together and actin moves over myosin

276
Q

how are single unit smooth muscles able to contract together in a single unit?

A

membranes are adhered together at multiple points so excitation is able to sweep through all the muscle through gap junctions

277
Q

where are single unit smooth muscles found?

A

organ walls and blood vessels

278
Q

multi unit smooth muscle

A

contracts independently from one another and innervated by a single nerve ending

279
Q

how does multi unit smooth muscle contract separately?

A

they are separated physically by connective tissue and must be innervated by a single nerve ending

280
Q

where are multi unit smooth muscle found

A

iris and erector pili

281
Q

in blood vessels, contraction __________ diameter, while relaxation ____________ diameter

A

decreases, increases

282
Q

how does the cardiovascular system use smooth muscle to control blood flow?

A

it can contract and relax smooth muscle to restrict or allow blood flow to different capillary beds

283
Q

what is the purpose of smooth muscle being organized circular and longitudinal?

A

it is able to constrict the organ in multiple directions

284
Q

common features of all three muscle types

A
  • generate movement/tension through contraction
  • myosin and actin to generate force
  • calcium used to trigger contraction
285
Q

skeletal muscle signal

A

from somatic motor neuron

286
Q

cardiac muscle signal

A
  • arises from the heat itself
  • some autonomic influence (but not initiate)
287
Q

smooth muscle signal

A

multiple sources (internal, local, external)

288
Q

neuromuscular junction

A

a synapse that comes into contact with multiple muscle fibers to stimulate them

289
Q

neuromuscular junction: neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

290
Q

how does and an action potential at the cells surface reach the myofibrils in the center of the cell to stimulate contractions in skeletal muscle?

A

t-tubules and their close relationship with the sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cisternae

291
Q

In skeletal muscle: T-tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum are complexed together throughout the fibers in _____________

A

triads

292
Q

dihydropyridine receptor (DHPR)

A

a voltage dependent calcium channel found between tubules in skeletal muscle, has a relationship with the ryanodine receptor

293
Q

function of dihydropyridine receptor (DHPR)

A

triggers intracellular calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum for excitation-contraction coupling of actin and myosin

294
Q

ryanodine receptor (RYR)

A

calcium releasing channel in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, has a relationship with the dihydropyridine receptor

295
Q

function of ryanodine receptor (RYR)

A

triggering of the DHP receptor causes the ryanodine receptor to open releasing calcium into the cytoplasm from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

296
Q

What occurs between the RYR and DHPR when depolarization occurs?

A

DHPR changes conformation allowing RYR to release calcium into the cytoplasm

297
Q

What occurs between the RYR and DHPR when repolarization occurs?

A

they return to their original conformation and calcium can no longer exit the RYR

298
Q

What happens to calcium in order to relax the cell in skeletal muscle?

A
  • RYR is blocked from releasing calcium
  • SERCA Pump returns Ca into the SR
299
Q

SERCA (Sarcoplamic/Endoplasmic Reticulum Ca2+-ATPase) Pump

A

attached to the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, uses ATP to move calcium in the cell back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

300
Q

What is ATP needed for during a muscle twitch?

A
  • contraction
  • relaxation
301
Q

What is another name for contraction of cardiac muscle?

A

calcium-induced calcium release

302
Q

how does contraction of cardiac muscle differ from skeletal muscle?

A

there is no physical interaction between the sarcoplasmic reticulum and t-tubules in cardiac muscles (no triads)

303
Q

2 sources Ca2+ uses to flood into cardiac muscle for contraction

A
  1. cytoplasm (voltage gated Ca2+ channels)
  2. sarcoplasmic reticulum (Ca2+ induces Ca2+ to release through the RYR)
304
Q

How is calcium removed from the cell for relaxation in cardiac muscle?

A

sodium calcium exchanger (an anti porter transporter protein)

305
Q

what amount does the sodium calcium exchanger move in and out of the cell?

A
  • 1 Ca out
  • 3 Na in
306
Q

a single cross-bridge cycle uses _____ molecule of ATP and moves the actin filament about _______ nm

A
  • 1 molecule of ATP
  • 10 nm
307
Q

myosin-actin cross bridge cycle

A
  1. bind (rebind)
  2. ratchet (motor head moves actin by changing conformation)
  3. let go (cycle will continue is Ca is present)
308
Q

Roles of ATP in the Cross Bridge Cycle

A
  1. provide energy for the process
  2. responsible for detachment
309
Q

define rigor

A

the motor head is attached to actin but there is no ATP present (after death) do detachment cannot occur so the myosin cannot release actin

310
Q

interneuron

A

a connection point in the CNS that is a connection point between sensory and motor pathways

311
Q

dorsal root ganglion

A

a collection of soma in the PNS

312
Q

is the afferent nervous system dorsal or ventral?

A

dorsal

313
Q

is the efferent nervous system dorsal or ventral?

A

ventral

314
Q

does the somatic nervous system have ganglion?

A

NO, all myelinated and fast

315
Q

does the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system have ganglion?

A

YES, pre ganglion = myelinated and post ganglion = unmyelinated and works slower

316
Q

which system is faster, the somatic or autonomic nervous system?

A

somatic

317
Q

what is the purpose of the autonomic ganglia?

A

relay information

Physiology of Domestic Animals (6 decks)

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