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Parasitology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Direct Lifecycle

A

Only one host, freeliving stages are possible
Ex: Cymothoa exigua (replace fish tongue)

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2
Q

Indirect lifecycle

A

2 or more hosts
Ex: Alaria americana

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3
Q

Playbook for Parasitism

A
  1. Physucal proximity to suitable host
  2. Gain “entry” to suitable host
  3. Replicate and/or develop
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4
Q

The Guinea Worm name

A

Dracunulus medinensis

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5
Q

D. medinensis lifecycle

A
  1. Human drinks unfiltered water containing copepods with L3 larvae
  2. Larvae released, copepods die. Larvae penetrate stomach/intestinal wall. mature and reproduce
  3. fertilized female worm migrates to surface of skin, causes a blister, and discharges larvae
  4. L1 larvae released into water from the emerging female worm
  5. L1 larvae consumed by a copepod
  6. Larvae undergoes two molts in the copepod and becomes a L3 larvae
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6
Q

Eradication = Behavior change

A

thought humans were definative host therefore keep humans from drink bad water

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7
Q

G worm case trend

A

lowered then sudenly raised in 2016

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8
Q

Animal that also spread guinea-worm

A

Dog, during fish harvests

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9
Q

How many populations of D. medinesis is responsible for canine + human cases in Chad

A

One. All infection are caused by a single species

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10
Q

Routes of Transmission (6)

A

Fecal - Oral (trophic accident)
Trophic (predator - prey)
Direct penetration
Vector borne
Sexual transmission
Vertical Transmission

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11
Q

Do parasites use only one transmission strategy

A

No, a single parasite may use different ones as it moves between hosts

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12
Q

Vector Borne Parasites examples

A
  • Filarial nematodes
  • Leishmania spp.
  • Trypanosomes
  • Plasmodium spp.
  • Babesia
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13
Q

Vector competence

A

Ability of a particular vector to become infected with and/or transmit a pathogen

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14
Q

Vector capacity

A
  • Regular feeding on host
  • Abundance
  • Dispersal ability
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15
Q

Sexual transmission

A

in the name.
Ex. Trichomonas vaginalis (flagellated protozoan)

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16
Q

Vertical transmission

A

Parent to offspring, not common for parasites
Ex: Babesia bigemina

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17
Q

Parasite fecundity

A

Common to have lots of progeny when chance of any single one surviving is low

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18
Q

Tapeworm Proglottids sexual

A
  • are hermaphrodites and each proglottid has testies and ovaries
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19
Q

Tapeworm Proglottids anatomy, top to bottom

A
  1. Scolex
  2. Neck
  3. Strobila
    • Immature
    • mature
    • Gravid
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20
Q

Parasite fecundity - metazoans

A

hella fucking eggs on the daily
can live for decades. cumulative reproductive rate is still very high

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21
Q

Parasite fecundity- trematode polyembryony

A
  • development of a single embryo into numerous other (identical) embryos

(metazoans;multiple cell types)

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22
Q

Parasite fecundity- trematode Miracidium

A

invades a snail, and develops into a sporocyst which undergoes asexual reproduction to produce many ceraciae.

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23
Q

Protozoan parasites reproductive rate

A

high with both sexual and asexual reproduction

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24
Q

Generalized Apicomplexan (protozoan) asexual and sexual reproduction life cycle

A

Sexual
1. Gametes
2. Zygote

Sporogony happens

Asexual
3. Sporozoites

Merogony

  1. Merozoites (repeat)

Gametogony

REPEAT

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25
Q

Factors influencing transmission success (7)

A
  • coinfection (intra + inter-species competition)
  • Sex of host
  • Age of host
  • Reproductive status of host
  • Envir temp
  • pH
  • Salinity
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26
Q

R _o

A

Basic reproductive rate

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27
Q

How do parasite + host size compare

A

They roughly match

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28
Q

Parasite vs. free-living relative genome size

A

parasite has the smaller genome. Genomes are replaced by something provided by the host

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29
Q

Quorum sensing

A

parasite-produced signals

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30
Q

Parasite EXIT strategies (6)

A
  1. Fecal, sometimes urine (Fecal - oral)
  2. Dormant/cyst form (trophic)
  3. Cell rupture (penetration)
  4. Vector borne
  5. Sexual transmission
  6. Vertical transmission
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31
Q

Susceptible hosts

A

Parasites wins - susceptible host

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32
Q

Resistant hosts

A

Host wins - resistant host

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33
Q

First step in preventing infection

A

Barriers
- skin
- mucus + cilia
- acid in tummy

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34
Q

Innate immune response

A
  • immediate
  • requires no prior exposure to the pathogen
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35
Q

Adaptive immune response

A
  • highly specific
  • repeated exposure to be successful
  • AI response takes 10-14 days after initial exposures
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36
Q

Acquired sterile immunity

A

if organism survives first infection, it will not be reinfected

37
Q

Primary response

A
  1. IgM, most abbundant
  2. IgG later grows more
    takes a while
38
Q

Secondary response

A
  1. IgM
  2. IgG greatly increases
39
Q

Primary infection: threshold of disease

A

symptoms of disease pass the line; illness

40
Q

Secondary infection: threshold of disease

A
  • below the line
  • subclincal infection
41
Q

Do mostly all organisms have defense mechanisms

A

yes to
single cell orgs, pro, euk

42
Q

Bacterial host defense with viruses: detector vs effector

A

Detector: recognize viral DNA
Effector: destroy viral DNA

43
Q

Bacterial host defense: Type I error and consequence

A
  • False positive
  • self-mediated self destruction
44
Q

Bacterial host defense: Type II error and consequence

A
  • False negative
  • phage-mediated self destruction
45
Q

Restriction - modification system

A
  • recognition of DNA sequence commonly found in phage
46
Q

Restriction - modification system: Methyltransferase

A
  • recognizes this site in the E. coli genome and modifies it
47
Q

Restriction - modification system: Endonuclease

A
  • recognizes the sequence and cleaves any unmodified DNA at the restriction site
48
Q

Euk. Innate Immunity: PAMP

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Pattern

49
Q

Euk. Innate Immunity: PRR

A

Pattern recognition receptor

50
Q

Different types of PAMPs (7)

A
  • DNA
  • RNA
  • Surface glycoproteins
  • Surface lipoproteins
  • Cell wall/membrane (peptidoglycan + lipopolysaccharide)
  • GPI anchors
51
Q

When a PRR binds a cognate PAMP…(Detector or Effector)

A

it transduces a signal to the cell that the infection has occurred

52
Q

Euk. Innate Immunity: The cell (org) will then respond with…

A

newly transcribed EFFECTOR mechanisms to resist, evade, destroy, weaken the invading pathogen

53
Q

Which organisms is the PRR-PAMP based innate immune response central to the infection

A

Invertebrates and plants

54
Q

What is the vertebrate immune system made of

A

Many highly specialized cell types

55
Q

Activated function of Neutrophil

A

Phagocytosis and activation of bacterial mechanisms

56
Q

Activated function of eosinophils

A

killing of antibody-coated parasites

57
Q

Activated function of basophil

A

promotion of allergic responses and augmentation of anti-parasitic immunity

58
Q

Activated function of mast cell

A

release of granules containing histamine and active agents

59
Q

Activated function of macrophages

A
  • phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms
  • antigen presentation
60
Q

Activated function of dendritic cells

A
  • antigen uptake in peripheral sites
  • antigen presentation
61
Q

Which cells are innate immune leukocytes

A

neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil

62
Q

Which cells are mainly myeloid cells

A

mast cells, macrophages, dendritic cells

63
Q

B + T lymphocytes — Adaptive immunity

A
  • Antigen specific detection
  • Immune memory
  • Effector function
64
Q

Key concept for Acquired immunity: Antigen

A

Portion of a molecule (usually protein) recognized by either antibody or T cell receptor that stimulates an adaptive immune response

65
Q

Antibodies

A

The body’s collection of “locks” for every conceivable key that nature could make

66
Q

Humoral immunity

A
  • initiated by antigen recognition by B cells
  • Mediated by antibodies
  • Most effective against extracellular pathogens or their toxic products
67
Q

Cell-mediated immunity

A
  • initiated by antigen recognition by T cells
  • mediated by T cells and other downstream effectors (macrophages)
  • Most effective against intracellular pathogens
68
Q

Humoral immunity
quick steps

A
  1. Microbe = Extracellular microbes
  2. Responding lymphocytes = B lymphocyte
  3. Effector mechanism = secreted antibodies
  4. Transferred by = Serum (antibodies)
  5. Functions = Block infection and eliminate extracellular microbes
69
Q

Cell-mediated immunity quick steps

A
  1. Microbe = intracellular microbe replicating within cell or phagocytosed microbes in macrophage
  2. Presponding lymphocytes = Helper T lymphocyte or cytolytic T lymphocyte
  3. Effector mechanism =
  4. Transferred by = T lymphocytes
  5. Functions = Activate macrophages to kill phagocytosed microbes or kill infected cells and eliminate reservoirs of infection
70
Q

Where do B & T lymphocytes arise from

A

in the bone marrow from a commin precurser

71
Q

How do T lymphocytes differentiate into mature T cells

A

they leave BM and migrate to thymus

72
Q

Which (B or T) have antigen receptors

A

Both

73
Q

Effector T cells: CD8+ T cells are …

A

Cytotoxic T cells

74
Q

Effector T cell: CD4+ T cells are …

A

Helper T cells
(some differentiate into Reg T cells;inhibit inflammatory response)

75
Q

First step in activation of lymphocytes

A

Recognition of specific antigen

in 2` lymphatics for CD4 T cells

76
Q

After initial antigen recognition, T cells will ___ and progeny will ___ but with the same ____

A

proliferate
differentiate into effector T cells
antigen specificity

77
Q

Primed CD4 T cells differentiate into carious types of …

A

helper or regulatory fates based on cytokines

78
Q

Cytokines

A

small secreted proteins that act as chemical signals at the heart of (antiparasitic) immune responses

79
Q

Key inflammatory cytokines

A

TNF alpha
IL12
IFN gamma

80
Q

Key anti-inflammatory cytokines

A

TNF beta
IL10

81
Q

(crossover) CD8+ T cell recognizes antigen presented by …

A

MHC class I (mast cells)

82
Q

(crossover) CD4+ T cell recognizes antigen presented by

A

MHC class II (professional APCs)

83
Q

MHC Class II: which cells

A
  • Professional APCs and activated B cells
84
Q

MHC Class II: primes which cells

A

naive CD4+ T cells

85
Q

MHC Class II: Cytokine exposure helps to determine the fate of …

A

The CD4+ T cell into Helper or T regs

86
Q

Protease cascade that eventually leads to diverse effector functions:

A
  • cell lysis
  • Opsinization (facilitating phagocytosis)
  • Promote inflammation
  • Helps guide leukocyte chemotaxis to infection site
87
Q

Opsinization

A

Enhance phagocytosis of Antibody- bound parasite via Fc receptor

88
Q

MHC Class I: Infected cells will present…

A

antigens from the pathogen it is infected with

89
Q

CD8+ activation requires

A

CD4+ T cell help

Parasitology (3 decks)

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