Exam 2

Question 1

not being able to get pregnant after a year of trying—is equally likely to be traced to the man as to the woman and stems from a variety of causes.

Answer 1

Infertility

Question 2

a condition arising when bits of tissue lining the uterus grow outside the uterus.

Answer 2

endometriosis

Question 3

Infertility traced to women may be related to
problems with ovulation blocked _______ or ________

Answer 3

fallopian tubes, endometriosis

Question 4

(also called intrauterine insemination), which involves
injecting sperm, either from a woman’s partner or from a donor, into her uterus.

Answer 4

artificial insemination

Question 5

in which several eggs are removed from a woman’s ovary
and manually combined with sperm in a laboratory dish before
being returned to a woman’s uterus in hopes that one egg will
implant on the wall of the uterus

Answer 5

in vitro fertilization
(IVF),

Question 6

experts who _______
study early growth and development, divide prenatal development
into three stages or periods: the germinal period, the embryonic
period, and the fetal period

Answer 6

embryologists,

Question 7

The first trimester begins with the ________ which lasts
approximately 2 weeks; the important events of this period are outlined i

Answer 7

germinal period

Question 8

_______ a hollow ball of about 150 cells that is the size of the head of a piN

Answer 8

blastocyst

Question 9

(also called spontaneous abortion)

Answer 9

miscarriage

Question 10

The first trimester continues with the
______which occurs from the third to the eighth week after conception.

Answer 10

embryonic period

Question 11

During this short
time, every major organ takes shape, in at least a primitive form, in a
process called

Answer 11

organogenesis

Question 12

these events go with what period?
Day 1: Fertilization usually occurs within 24 hours of ovulation.
Day 2: The single-celled zygote begins to divide 24–36 hours after
fertilization.
Day 3: The mass has 12–16 cells and is called a morula; it travels down the fallopian tube to the uterus.
Day 4–5: An inner cell mass forms; the entire mass is called a blastocyst and is the size of a pinhead.
Day 6–7: The blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus.
Day 8–14: During the second week, the blastocyst becomes fully embedded in the wall of the uterus. It now has about 250 cells.

Answer 12

Germinal

Question 13

events of….. Week 3: Now an embryo, the person-to-be is just 1/10 of an inch (2 mm) long. It has become elongated, and three layers emerge—the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.

Week 4: The embryo is so curved that the two ends almost touch. The outer layer (ectoderm) folds into the neural tube. From the mesoderm, a tiny heart forms and begins to beat. The endoderm differentiates into the gastrointestinal tract and lungs. Between days 21 and 28, eyes develop. 5 Ears, mouth, and throat take shape. Arm and leg buds appear. The handplate, from which fingers will emerge, appears. The heart divides into two regions, and the brain differentiates into forebrain, midbrain, and
hindbrain.

Week 6–7: The embryo is almost 1 inch long. The heart divides into nfour chambers. Fingers emerge from the handplate, and primitive facial features are evident. The important process of sexual differentiation begins.

Week 8: Most structures and organs are present. Ovaries and
testes are evident. The embryo begins to straighten and
assumes a more human appearancents

Answer 13

embryonic period

Question 14

The outer layer becomes both the , a
watertight membrane that fills with fluid that cushions
and protects the embryo

Answer 14

amnion

Question 15

the ______ a membrane
that surrounds the amnion and attaches rootlike extensions called villi to the uterine lining to gather nourishment for the embryo

Answer 15

chorion

Question 16

the layers of the blastocyst differentiate, forming structures that substain development called:

Answer 16

amnion and chorion

Question 17

The chorion eventually becomes the lining of the _____

Answer 17

placenta

Question 18

The ______ eventually becomes
the lining of the placenta

Answer 18

chorion

Question 19

fill in the blank:
A membrane called __________ allows these small
molecules to pass through _________ but it prevents the of embryo and mother from mingling

Answer 19

the placental barrier and large
blood cells

Question 20

Through the placenta and umbilical cord, the embryo receives ______ and _____ from the mother and eliminates carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes into the mother’s bloodstream

Answer 20

oxygen and nutrients

Question 21

includes (brain and spinal cord) from
the

Answer 21

ectoderm

Question 21

muscles, bones, cartilage, heart, arteries, kidneys, and gonads from the

Answer 21

mesoderm

Question 21

gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and bladder from the

Answer 21

endoderm

Question 21

in which part of the spinal cord is not fully encased in the protective covering of the spinal column

Answer 21

spina bifida

Question 21

The _______ lasts from the ninth week of pregnancy until
birth, which means it encompasses part of the first trimester and
all of the middle and last trimesters

Answer 21

fetal period

Question 21

pregnancies, the neural
tube fails to fully close (Liptak, 2013). When this happens at
the bottom of the tube, it can lead to _______ , in which
part of the spinal cord is not fully encased in the protective
covering of the spinal column

Answer 21

spina bifida

Question 21

Failure to close at the top of the neural tube
can lead to ________, a lethal defect in which the main
portion of the brain above the brain stem fails to develop

Answer 21

anencephaly

Question 21

__________, the primary male sex hormone
that stimulates the development of a male internal reproductive
system, and another hormone that inhibits the development of a female internal reproductive system

Answer 21

testosterone

Question 22

Week/ Event
9 Bone tissue emerges, and the embryo becomes a fetus. The head of the fetus looks huge relative to the rest of the body—it takes up
about half the total length of the fetus. The fetus can open and close its mouth and turn its head.
10–12 Fingers and toes are clearly formed. External genitalia have developed. Movements have increased substantially—arms and legs kick
vigorously, but the fetus is still too small for the mother to feel all these movements. The fetus also shows “breathing” movements
with its chest and some reflexes.
13–16 The heartbeat should be audible with a stethoscope. Fetal movements may become apparent to the mother. The fetus is about 4½
inches long, and the skeleton is becoming harder.
17–22 Fingernails and toenails, hair, teeth buds, and eyelashes grow. Brain development is phenomenal, and brainwaves are detectable.
23–25 These weeks mark the age of viability, when the fetus has a chance of survival outside the womb. It is about 12 inches long and
weighs about 1 pound.
26–32 The fetus gains weight, and its brain grows. The nervous system becomes better organized.
33–38 The last 6 weeks of a full-term pregnancy bring further weight gain and brain activity. The lungs mature and begin to expand and contract.

Answer 22

events of the fetal period

Question 23

_______ of
neurons involves their multiplying at a staggering rate during this period; by one estimate, the number of neurons increases by
hundreds of thousands every minute throughout all of pregnancy,

Answer 23

Proliferation

Question 24

In _____ the neurons move from their place of origin
in the center of the brain to particular locations throughout the
brain where they will become part of specialized functioning
units.

Answer 24

migration

Question 25

, or transformation of cells, is occurring

Answer 25

differentiation

Question 26

the fetus
reaches the ________, when survival outside the uterus is possible if the brain and respiratory system are sufficiently developed

Answer 26

age of viability

Question 27

During the second half of
pregnancy, neurons not only multiply at an astonishing rate
(proliferation) but they also increase in size and develop an insulating cover, ______ that improves their ability to transmit
signals rapidly.

Answer 27

myelin,

Question 28

The general idea of ______ is that environmental events and maternal conditions during pregnancy may
alter the expected genetic unfolding of the embryo/fetus or reset
its physiologic functions.

Answer 28

fetal programming

Question 29

______ People shape their physical and social environments
and are, in turn, affected by the environments they have helped
create.

For example, if a woman uses cocaine during pregnancy

Answer 29

reciprocal
influences

Question 30

A _______ is any disease, drug, or other environmental agent
that can harm a developing fetus

Answer 30

teratogen

Question 31

The effects of a teratogenic agent are worst during the ______ when an organ system grows most
rapidly.

Answer 31

Critical period

Question 32

_________The greater the level of exposure and
the longer the exposure to a teratogen, the more likely it is that serious damage will occur.

Answer 32

Dosage and duration.

Question 33

________ Susceptibility to harm is influenced by the
genetic makeup of the unborn child as well as the mother’s
genotype. Some fetuses are more (or less) resistant to teratogens and some mothers are more (or less) able to detoxify teratogens

Answer 33

Genetic makeup

Question 34

The effects of a teratogen depend on the quality
of both the prenatal and the postnatal __________

Answer 34

Environment.

Question 35

A period of rapid growth is a ______ for an organ system

Answer 35

critical period

Question 36

Why is a period of rapid growth consider to be critical period for an organ system?

Answer 36

a time during which the developing organism is especially sensitive to environmental influences, positive or negative.

Question 37

in which a sleeping baby suddenly stops breathing and dies. F

Answer 37

sudden infant death syndrome

Question 38

with noticeable physical symptoms such as a small head and distinctive facial
abnormalities including thin upper lip, short nose, and flat midface

Answer 38

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

Question 39

the life-threatening illness caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Answer 39

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS),

Question 40

mothers can transmit the virus (what virus) to their babies
(1) prenatally, if the virus passes through the placenta

(2) perinatally,
when blood may be exchanged between mother and child as the
umbilical cord separates from the placenta;

(3) postnatally, if
the virus is transmitted during breast-feeding. Without treatment,
somewhere between 15% and 35% of babies

Answer 40

HIV-infected

Question 41

dieases that can cause miscarriage or stillbirth as many as 25% of cases where the mother is infected with it
and does not receive treatment

Answer 41

Syphilis

Question 42

The air we breathe contains numerous _______,
including ozone, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulpher dioxides, and lead.

Answer 42

pollutants

Question 43

is the environment surrounding
birth; it includes influences such as drugs given to the mother during labor, delivery practices, and the social environment shortly
after birth.

Answer 43

perinatal environment

Question 44

high-risk pregnancies associated with delivery complications, a maternal–fetal specialist, or _______ is
recommended. H

Answer 44

perinatologist

Question 45

, or oxygen
shortage (also called asphyxia)

Answer 45

anoxia

Question 46

_______ can occur for any number of reasons—for example, because the umbilical cord becomes
pinched or tangled during birth, because sedatives given to the mother reaches the fetus and interferes with the baby’s breathing because mucus lodged in the baby’s throat prevents normal breathing, or because the baby is in a breech presentation

Answer 46

Anoxia

Question 47

(feet or buttocks first) during a vaginal delivery

Answer 47

breech presentation

Question 48

________ a neurological disability primarily associated with difficulty controlling muscle movements; it also increases the risk of learning or intellectual disabilities and speech difficulties

Answer 48

cerebral palsy

Question 49

_______ a surgical procedure in
which an incision is made in the mother’s abdomen and uterus so that the baby can be removed.

Answer 49

cesarean section

Question 50

condition is _______—an episode of clinical depression lasting 2 or more
weeks

Answer 50

postpartum
depression

Question 51

called ______ (from the French word meaning “to hatch”), include bloating, weight gain, fatigue, insomnia, and nausea

Answer 51

couvade

Question 52

_______—the events of the first month
and how parents might optimize the development of young infants

Answer 52

neonatal environment

Question 53

A few infants will be considered ______ for either short-term
or long-term problems because of genetic defects, prenatal
hazards, or perinatal damage. It is essential to these infants’
survival and well-being that they be identified as early as possible

Answer 53

at risk

Question 54

which provides a quick assessment of the newborn’s heart rate,
respiration, color, muscle tone, and reflexes

Answer 54

Apgar test,

Question 55

have an LBW

Answer 55

(less than 2,500
grams, or 5½ pounds)

Question 56

• age of mother (very young or older)
  *low socioeconomic status of the mother, linked with poor nutrition
  and inadequate prenatal care
• race: black women are twice as likely as white women to experience premature delivery

*prior premature deliveries, which may indicate underlying and
persistent health conditions

*tobacco or alcohol use
tress
* pregnancies with more than one fetus (twins, triplets, etc.)

*infections

*high blood pressure

Answer 56

causes for lbw

Question 57

, a substance that prevents the air sacs
of the lungs from sticking together and therefore aids breathing.

Answer 57

surfactant

Question 58

why are respiratory difficulties are likely in premies because….

Answer 58

babies have not yet produced enough surfacant

Question 59

_______ resting on a
parent’s chest helps maintain body temperature, heart rate, and
oxygen levels in the blood

Answer 59

kangaroo care

Question 60

One-third of the children classified as at-risk showed considerable resilience, getting themselves back on a normal course
of development

Answer 60

The effects of prenatal and perinatal complications decrease
over time.
The outcomes of early risk depend on the quality of the postnatal environment.

Question 61

Personal resources. Possibly because of their genetic makeup,
some children have qualities such as intelligence, sociability,
and communication skills that help them choose or create more
nurturing and stimulating environments and cope with challenges. For example, parents and other observers noted that these
children were agreeable, cheerful, and self-confident as infants,
which elicited positive caregiving responses. They also believed
that they were in control of their own fates—that through their
actions, they could bring about positive outcomes.

Supportive postnatal environment. Some at-risk children receive
the social support they need within or outside the family. Most
importantly, they are able to find at least one person who loves
them unconditionally and with whom they feel secure.

Clearly, hazards during the important prenatal and perinatal periods can leave lasting scars, and yet many children show remarkable resilience. There seem to be some points in the life span,
especially early on, in which both positive and negative environmental forces have especially strong effects. Yet environment
matters throughout life. It would be a mistake to assume that all
children who have problems at birth are doomed. In short, early
experience by itself can, but rarely does, make or break development; later experience counts, too, sometimes enough to turn
around a negative course of development

Answer 61

influences that
prevent the damaging effects of risk factors or help children overcome disadvantages

Question 62

an inherited
digestive problem in which gluten (the proteins
found in all wheat products) triggers an immune
response that leads to inflammation and damages the small intestine

Answer 62

celiac disease

Question 63

This _____after a period
of malnutrition or illness reflects the body’s
struggle to get back on the growth course it is
genetically programmed to follow.

Answer 63

catch-up
growth.

Question 64

secrete chemicals called
hormones directly into the bloodstream.

Answer 64

endocrine glands

Question 65

most critical of the endocrine glands is the

Answer 65

pituitary gland

Question 66

definition: so-called master gland located at the
base of the brain. Directly controlled by the hypothalamus of the
brain, it triggers the release of hormones from all other endocrine
glands by sending hormonal messages to those glands.

Answer 66

pituitary gland

Question 67

Moreover, the pituitary produces _____ hormone,

Answer 67

growth

Question 68

the production of specialized hormones that directly regulate
growth

Answer 68

the growth hormone

Question 69

secrete large quantities of testosterone and other male hormones

Answer 69

androgens

Question 70

the primary female
hormone,

Answer 70

estrogen,

Question 71

2nd defin Regulates growth from birth through adolescence; triggers adolescent growth spurt

Answer 71

Pituitary

Question 72

Thyroid produce…

Answer 72

Thyroxine

Question 73

which endocrine gland: Affects the growth and development of the brain and helps regulate the growth of the body during
childhood

Answer 73

Thyroid

Question 74

Testes produce…

Answer 74

Testosterone

Question 75

which endocrine gland: Develops the male reproductive system during the prenatal period; directs male sexual
development during adolescence

Answer 75

testes

Question 76

Ovaries produce…

Answer 76

Estrogen and progesterone

Question 77

which endocrine system: Regulate the menstrual cycle; estrogen directs female sexual development during
adolescence; progesterone allows conception and supports pregnancy

Answer 77

ovaries

Question 78

Adrenal glands produce…

Answer 78

Adrenal androgens

Question 79

Support the development of muscle and bones; contribute to sexual motivation

Answer 79

adrenal glands

Question 80

Its basic unit is a

Answer 80

neuron

Question 81

The axon of one neuron
makes a connection with another neuron at a tiny gap called a ____

Answer 81

synapse

Question 82

—neurons becoming encased in this protective substance that speeds
transmission

Answer 82

myelination

Question 83

according to which principle does growth occurs in a head-to-tail
direction

Answer 83

cephalocaudal
principle

Question 84

This _______ of growth can
be seen during the prenatal period, when the chest and internal
organs form before the arms, hands, and fingers

Answer 84

proximodistal principle

Question 85

removal of unnecessary synapses that is also an important component of brain development.

Answer 85

synaptic pruning

Question 86

______ or growth of
synapses, during childhood

Answer 86

synaptogenesis

Question 87

when is the critical, or sensitive, period for brain
development—the time when it proceeds most rapidly—

Answer 87

is during the late prenatal period and early infancy.

Question 88

is an unlearned and involuntary response to a stimulus

Answer 88

reflex

Question 89

its significance is that it provides oxygen; and expels carbon dioxide

Answer 89

Breathing

Question 90

Theses are all_____reflexes
- breathing reflex
- pupillary reflex
- rooting reflex
- sucking reflex
- swallowing reflex

Answer 90

survival reflexes

Question 91

_____ Protects eyes from bright light or foreign
objects

Answer 91

Eye-blink

Question 92

definition: Constriction of pupils to bright
light; dilation to dark or dimly lit surroundings

Answer 92

Pupillary reflex:

Question 93

against bright light; adapts
visual system to low illumination

Answer 93

pupillary reflex

Question 94

Orients child to breast or bottle

Answer 94

Rooting reflex:

Question 95

definition: turning a cheek toward a tactile (touch) stimulus

Answer 95

rooting reflex

Question 96

which of the survial reflexes are permanent?

Answer 96

breathing
eye- blink
Pupillary reflex
swallowing

Question 97

which survival reflexes are not permanent

Answer 97

sucking reflex and rooting reflex

Question 98

: Fanning then curling toes when
bottom of foot is stroked

Answer 98

Babinski reflex

Question 99

Curling fingers around objects (such as a finger) that touch the baby’s palm

Answer 99

Grasping reflex:

Question 100

Loud noise or sudden change in position of baby’s head will cause baby to throw
arms outward, arch back, then bring arms
toward each other

Answer 100

Moro reflex:

Question 101

Infant immersed in water will
display active movements of arms and legs and
will involuntarily hold breath (thus staying afloat
for some time)

Answer 101

Swimming reflex

Question 102

: Infants held upright so that
their feet touch a flat surface will step as if to
walk

Answer 102

Stepping reflex

Question 103

these are all which reflexes
Babinski:
Stepping reflex
Swimming reflex
Moro reflex
Grasping reflex
Babinski reflex

Answer 103

primitive reflexes

Question 104

significance of: Presence at birth and disappearance in
first-year indicates normal neurological
development

Answer 104

Babinski

Question 105

weakens by four months and is replaced by voluntary grasping

Answer 105

grasping reflex

Question 106

Disappears by 4 months; however, child
continues to react to unexpected noises or a loss
of bodily support by showing startle reflex

Answer 106

moro reflex

Question 107

which primitive reflex Disappears by 12–18 months months

Answer 107

babinski reflex

Question 108

which a primitive reflex: Disappears in first 3–4 months; is replaced by a
voluntary grasp

Answer 108

grasping relfex

Question 109

which primitive reflexes :Disappears by 4 months; however, child
continues to react to unexpected noises or a loss
of bodily support by showing startle reflex

Answer 109

Moro reflex

Question 110

Disappears in first 4–6 months

Answer 110

swimming reflex

Question 111

which reflex in the primitive: Disappears in first 8 weeks unless infant has
regular opportunities to practice it

Answer 111

Stepping refle

Question 112

(for the rapid eye movements that occur
during it)

Answer 112

REM sleep

Question 113

or asymmetry and specialization of functions,
of the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex.

Answer 113

lateralization,

Question 114

Which hemisphere: Sequential processing
Analytic thought
Logic
Language
Science and m

Answer 114

left-hemisphere functions

Question 115

Which hemisphere: Simultaneous processing
Holistic thought
Intuition
Creativity
Art and music

Answer 115

Right-hemisphere functions

Question 116

which is a combination of risk factors typically associated with
obesity and includes
high blood pressure

Answer 116

metabolic
syndrome (MeTS)

Question 117

—high levels
of sugar in the blood
leading to various
health problems

Answer 117

diabetes

Question 118

being 20% or more above the “ideal” weight for
height, age, and sex—is increasing.

Answer 118

obesity—

Question 119

or a boy’s first ejaculation

Answer 119

semenarche,

Question 120

what stage?
Prepubertal
AG: 2–2.5 inches
Prepubertal
AG: 2–2.5 inches

Answer 120

stage 1

Question 121

Age/stage?
Testes: a bit larger (first sign in boys)
Scrotum: red AG: 2.8–3.2 inches
Penis: still childlike but erections common
AG: 2.75–3.25 inches

Breasts: small bud, widened areola

Answer 121

stage 2
Boys: ages 12.5–14.5
Girls: ages 10–12

Question 122

Testes: larger
Scrotum: darker inches
Penis: increases in length
AG: 3.25 inches

Breasts: larger and more elevate
AG: 3.2

Answer 122

stage 3:
Boys: ages 13–15
Girls: ages 11–13

Question 123

Testes: more enlargement
Scrotum: more darkening
Penis: becomes thicker
AG: 4 inches

Breasts: a secondary mound of areola from body
AG: 2.8 inches

Answer 123

Stage four:
Boys: ages 13.5–15.5
Girls: ages 12–14

Question 124

Boys:
Testes, scrotum, and penis
all adult
Final height by 18–19 years
girls
Breasts: adult shape and size
Final height by 16 years

Answer 124

Boys: ages 14–18
Girls: ages 14–18

Question 125

—the historical trend in industrialized societies toward earlier maturation and greater body size

Answer 125

secular trend

Question 126

—the first menstruation

Answer 126

menarche

Question 127

the process of generating new neurons,

Answer 127

neurogenesis

Question 127

—release a mature egg capable of being
fertilized

Answer 127

ovulate

Question 128

As many as 10% of women experience symptoms severe enough
to interfere with their ability to perform daily activities and a few
of these, perhaps 2–3%, may be diagnosed with a severe form of
________
differs from PMS in that it includes affective symptoms in additionto physical symptoms associated with the menstrual cycle, and it
can be disabling—disrupting work and relationships

Answer 128

premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

Question 129

_______ differs from _________ in that it includes affective symptoms in addition
to physical symptoms associated with the menstrual cycle, and it
can be disabling—disrupting work and relationships

Answer 129

PDD/ PMS

Question 130

The ending of a woman’s menstrual periods in midlife is called

Answer 130

menopause

Question 131

_________—sudden
experiences of warmth and sweating, usually centered around the
face and upper body, that occur at unpredictable times, last for a
few seconds or minutes, and are often followed by a cold shiver

Answer 131

hot flashes

Question 132

taking
estrogen and progestin to compensate for hormone loss at menopause ,

Answer 132

hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

Question 133

________, also called age-associated hypogonadism, is characterized by slowly decreasing levels of testosterone
and a variety of symptoms including low libido, fatigue and lack of energy, erection problems, memory problems, and loss of pubic
hair

Answer 133

Andropause

Question 134

andropause is also called

Answer 134

age-associated hypogonadism

Question 135

is a common joint
problem that results from gradual deterioration of the cartilage
that cushions the bones from rubbing against one another.

Answer 135

Osteoarthritis

Question 135

—inability to achieve
or sustain an erection for intercourse—despite having sufficient levels of testosterone

Answer 135

erectile dysfunction

Question 136

_________ (meaning “porous bone”), a disease in which a serious loss of minerals
leaves the bones fragile and easily fractured

Answer 136

osteoporosis

Question 137

of many organ systems—that is, their ability to respond to
demands for extraordinary output, such as in emergencies

Answer 137

reserve
capacity

Question 138

__________ of
aging propose that aging follows a predictable genetic timetable

Answer 138

Programmed theories

Question 139

____ or _______ call attention to more haphazard processes that cause damage or errors in cells to accumulate and organ systems to deteriorate

Answer 139

damage or error theories of aging

Question 140

____________ a ceiling on the number of years that
anyone lives—varies by species.

Answer 140

maximum life span

Question 141

who discovered that cells from human embryos could divide only a certain number of times

Answer 141

Leonard Hayflick

Question 142

that cells from human embryos could divide only a certain number of times 50 times, plus or minus 10—an estimate referred to as the

Answer 142

Hayflick limit

Question 143

The mechanism behind the cellular aging clock suggested by Hayflick’s limit on cell division has turned out to be _______

Answer 143

telomeres

Question 144

definition: stretches of DNA that form the tips of chromosomes and that
shorten with every cell division

Answer 144

telomeres—

Question 145

what determines how fast telomeres shorten?

Answer 145

chronic stress, such as that involved in caring for an ill child or a parent with dementia, is linked to shorter than normal white-blood-cell telomeres, which in turn
are associated with a heightened risk for cardiovascular disease and
death

Question 145

such as vitamins E and C

Answer 145

Antioxidants

Question 146

—a highly nutritious but severely restricted diet representing a 30–40% or more cut in normal
total caloric intake

Answer 146

caloric restriction

Question 147

which are toxic and chemically unstable by-products of metabolism, or
the everyday chemical reactions in cells such as those involved
in the breakdown of food

Answer 147

free radicals

Question 148

________, to understand how older adults may cope with and compensate for their
diminishing cognitive resources

Answer 148

selective optimization with compensation (SOC)

Question 149

_________—ones that rule out more
than one item

Answer 149

constraint-seeking questions

Question 150

________ emphasize that
performance on learning and memory tasks is the product of an
interaction among

(1) characteristics of the learner, such as goals,
motivations, abilities, and health

(2) characteristics of the task
or situation

(3) characteristics of the broader environment,
including the cultural context in which a task is performed.

Answer 150

contextual contributors

Question 151

Becca Levy (1996) has shed light on this issue by showing that activating_______ in the minds of the elderly
adults

Answer 151

negative stereotypes

Question 152

examples of negative stereotypes of old people

Answer 152

anything negative
ex. Alzheimers and senile

Question 153

Advanced Cognitive
Training for Independent and Vital Elderly (ACTIVE) Group
followed four groups of older adults (average age of 74 years at the start of the study) over 10 years. The groups differed in the type of cognitive training they received at the
beginning of the study what were the categories

Answer 153

memory training
reasoning trainig
speed training
no training control group

Question 154

participants were taught strategies of organization, visualization, and association to remember verbal
material. (Advanced Cognitive
Training for Independent and Vital Elderly)

Answer 154

Memory training

Question 155

participants were taught strategies for detecting a pattern in a series of letters or words. (Advanced Cognitive Training for Independent and Vital Elderly)

Answer 155

Reasoning training—

Question 156

—participants learned to complete visual search tasks in increasingly less time, and they were trained to divide their attention between two tasks (Advanced Cognitive
Training for Independent and Vital Elderly)

Answer 156

Speed training

Question 157

these participants served as a control group. (Advanced Cognitive Training for Independent and Vital Elderly)

Answer 157

No training

Question 158

_______, those stories of
our lives that we tell over and over again

Answer 158

life script

Question 159

may occur because memories from adolescence and early adulthood are more easily accessible than
memories from other periods of the lifespan

Answer 159

This memory or
reminiscence bump

Question 160

this _______ determines what information about a problem children take in and what rules they then formulate to
account for this information

Answer 160

rule
assessment approach

Question 161

____________ the development of problem-solving skills is a matter of knowing a variety of strategies, becoming increasingly selective with experience about which strategy to use, changing strategies as needed,
and getting better at using known strategies

Answer 161

overlapping waves
theory,

Question 162

the reporting of events witnessed or experienced—for example, a child’s reporting that she
saw her little brother snitch some candy before dinner.

Answer 162

eyewitness memory (or testimony)

Question 163

Space in working memory
Lack of language.
Level of sociocultural support
Sense of self
Verbatim versus gist storage
Neurogenesis

Answer 163

several reasons for this loss of early memories – child hood anemsia

Question 164

that is, they have few autobiographical
memories of events that occurred during the first few years of life

Answer 164

childhood
(or infantile) amnesia

Question 165

An individual’s knowledge of a content area to be learned, or _____

Answer 165

knowledge base

Question 165

According to this explanation, children store verbatim and general accounts of an event
separately

Answer 165

fuzzy-trace theory

Question 166

used to explain childhood amnesia

Answer 166

fuzzy-trace theory

Question 167

or knowledge of the human mind and
of the range of cognitive processes

Answer 167

metacognition,

Question 168

refers to knowledge of memory and to
monitoring and regulating memory processe

Answer 168

metamemory

Question 169

, which means they cannot
spontaneously use or benefit from strategies, even if they are taught
how to use them

Answer 169

mediation deficiency

Question 170

A third problem is the _________, in which children spontaneously produce a strategy but
their task performance does not yet benefit from using the strategy.

Answer 170

utilization deficiency

Question 171

in which children can use strategies they are taught but
do not produce them on their own

Answer 171

production deficiency

Question 172

involves actively creating meaningful links between items to be remembered

Answer 172

elaboration

Question 172

classifying items into meaningful groups

Answer 172

organization

Question 173

—the repeating of items they are trying to
learn and remember

Answer 173

rehearsal

Question 173

they continue to use the same strategy that was successful in the past despite the strategy’s current lack of success

Answer 173

perseveration errors:

Question 174

_____ of s information improves over the first several years of life as the prefrontal cortex and medial temporal lobes mature

Answer 174

encoding

Question 175

as you get older you ability to learn and you ability to repeat improves with age. why?

Answer 175

Changes in basic capacities
Changes in memory strategies
Increased knowledge of memory
Increased knowledge of the world.

Question 176

which hypothesis is this:
“Older children know
more than younger children about the world in general. This knowledge, or expertise, makes the material to be learned more familiar, and familiar material is easier to learn and remember than unfamiliar material”.

Answer 176

increased knowledge of the world

Question 177

which hypothesis is this?:
“Older children have better
“software”; they have learned and consistently use effective
methods for putting information into long-term memory and retrieving it when they need it”

Answer 177

Changes in memory strategies

Question 178

which hypothesis is this:
“Older children know
more than younger children about the world in general. This knowledge, or expertise, makes the material to be learned more familiar, and familiar material is easier to learn and remember than unfamiliar material.”

Answer 178

Increased knowledge of the world.

Question 179

the ability to imitate a novel
act after a delay, which clearly requires memory ability and represents an early form of explicit or declarative memory

Answer 179

deferred imitation,

Question 180

early memories are….

Answer 180

cue-dependent
and context-specifc

Question 181

carrying out multiple cognitive activities simultaneously

Answer 181

parallel processing,

Question 182

, or use of the information-processing system
to achieve a goal or arrive at a decision

Answer 182

problem solving

Question 183

These control processes run the show, guiding the selection, organization, manipulation, and interpretation
of information throughout. S

Answer 183

executive control processes

Question 184

He was no longer able to form new memories

Answer 184

anterograde amnesia:

Question 185

medial temporal lobe—the

Answer 185

hippocampus

Question 186

(also called declarative memory), which involves deliberate,
effortful recollection of events

Answer 186

explicit memory

Question 187

distinguish between ________
(also called nondeclarative memory), which occurs unintentionally, automatically, and without awareness

Answer 187

implicit memory

Question 188

, which directs attention and controls the flow
of information; i

Answer 188

central executive

Question 189

general facts

Answer 189

semantic memory

Question 190

specific experiences

Answer 190

episodic memory

Question 191

the process of getting information out when it is needed

Answer 191

retrieval

Question 191

to refer to short-term memory being used to achieve a goal.

Answer 191

working memory

Question 192

it requires active retrieval
without the aid of cues

Answer 192

recall memory

Question 193

, in which you would be given a hint or cue to facilitate retrieval

Answer 193

cued recall memory

Question 193

If you are asked a multiple-choice question about when the Constitution was ratified, you need not actively retrieve the correct date; you merely need to recognize it among the options. This is an example of …..

Answer 193

recognition memory.

Question 194

, which ever-so-briefly (less than a second) holds the abundant sensory information—sights, sounds,
smells, and more—that swirls around us

Answer 194

Sensory register

Question 195

, which holds a limited amount of information, perhaps only four chunks, for a short period of time

Answer 195

Short-term memory

Question 196

believed to be a relatively permanent and seemingly unlimited store of information

Answer 196

Long-term memory

Question 197

to human cognition, which emphasizes the basic mental processes involved in attention, perception, memory, and decision making

Answer 197

information-processing approach

Question 198

the information: get it into the system

Answer 198

encode

Question 199

processes that stabilize and organize the information to facilitate long-term storage

Answer 199

consolidation

Question 200

, which occurs in
the minutes or hours after initial learning

Answer 200

synaptic consolidation

Question 201

which takes place over a longer period of time

Answer 201

system consolidation

Question 202

of course, refers to holding information in a
long-term memory store

Answer 202

Storage,

Question 203

what does (SOC) stand for

Answer 203

selective optimization with compensation

Question 203

is often defined as an organized combination of attributes, motives, values, and behaviors unique to each individual

Answer 203

Personality

Question 204

such as extraversion or introversion, independence or dependence, and the like

Answer 204

dispositional traits

Question 204

more situation-specific and changeable ways
in which people adapt to their roles and environments

Answer 204

characteristic adaptations

Question 205

unique and integrative life stories that we construct about our pasts and futures to give ourselves an identity and our lives meaning

Answer 205

narrative identities

Question 206

your overall evaluation of your worth as a person, high or low, based on all the positive and negative self-perceptions that make up
your self-concept.

Answer 206

self-esteem

Question 206

your perceptions, positive or negative, of your unique attributes and traits as
a person.

Answer 206

self-concept

Question 207

an overall sense of who
they are, where they are heading, and where they fit into society.

Answer 207

identity

Question 208

five major dimensions of
personality that have come to be known as the

Answer 208

Big Five

Question 209

openness to experience, conscientiousness,
extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism

Answer 209

the Big Five personality dimensions

Question 209

Curiosity and interest in variety vs. preference for
sameness

Answer 209

Openness to experience

Question 210

Sociability and outgoingness vs. introversion

Answer 210

Extraversion

Question 210

Discipline and organization vs. lack of seriousness

Answer 210

Conscientiousness

Question 211

Compliance and cooperativeness vs. suspiciousness

Answer 211

Agreeableness

Question 212

Emotional instability vs. stability

Answer 212

Neuroticism

Question 213

characteristic of which dimension: Openness to fantasy, esthetics, feelings, actions, ideas, values

Answer 213

openness to experience

Question 214

characteristic of which dimension: Competence, order, dutifulness, striving for achievement, self-discipline, deliberation

Answer 214

Conscientiousness

Question 215

characteristic of which dimension: Warmth, gregariousness, assertiveness, activity, excitement
seeking, positive emotions

Answer 215

Extraversion

Question 216

characteristic of which dimension: Trust, straightforwardness, altruism, compliance, modesty,
tender-mindedness

Answer 216

Agreeableness

Question 217

characteristic of which dimension: Anxiety, hostility, depression, self-consciousness, impulsiveness,
vulnerability

Answer 217

Neuroticism

Question 218

Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson are associated with which perspective

Answer 218

Psychoanalytic theory

Question 219

Paul Costa and Robert McCrae are associated with with perspective

Answer 219

trait theory

Question 220

Albert bandura and Walter Mischel are a associted with which perspective

Answer 220

social learning and theory

Question 221

theme is associated w/ which two people:
Personality as inner qualities that develop in a stagelike manner.
-_____believed
the personality was formed in first 5 years of life, whereas ______saw growth
and change continuing through adulthood

Answer 221

Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson

Question 222

theme is associated w/:
Personality as a set of dispositional traits (the Big Five) that are enduring over
time and consistent across situations.

Answer 222

Paul Costa and Robert McCrae

Question 223

theme is associated w/: Personality as behavior that is influenced by situational factors and changes if the environment changes. We should not expect universal stages of personality
development or enduring traits.

Answer 223

Albert Bandura and Walter Mischel

Question 224

—the ability to recognize oneself in a mirror or photograph

Answer 224

self-recognition

Question 225

that is, they classify themselves into social categories based on age, sex, and other visible characteristics, figuring
out what is “like me” and what is “not like me” and recognizing that they are babies, not adults, and boys or girls

Answer 225

categorical self;

Question 226

What contributes to self-awareness in infancy

Answer 226

cognitive development
social interaction
cultural context

Question 227

self-recognition depends on ______ and requires the maturation of certain areas of the brain

Answer 227

cognitive development

Question 228

self-awareness depends on _______

Answer 228

social interaction

Question 229

the ________ may influence the emergence
of self-awareness

Answer 229

cultural context

Question 230

__________—cultures that emphasize
autonomy and encourage children to pursue their own goals as
individuals

Answer 230

individualistic cultures—

Question 231

—cultures that emphasize relatedness to others and subordinating individual goals to the goals of the group

Answer 231

collectivist cultures

Question 232

—early, genetically based but also environmentally
influenced tendencies to respond in predictable ways to events that serve as the basis for later personality

Answer 232

temperament

Question 233

infants that are content or happy, and open and adaptable to new experiences
such as the approach of a stranger or their first taste of strained plums.

They have regular feeding and sleeping habits, and they
tolerate frustrations and discomforts.

Answer 233

Easy temperament

Question 233

infants are active, irritable, and irregular in their habits.

They often react negatively (and vigorously) to changes in routine and are slow to
adapt to new people or situations.
They cry frequently and loudly and often have tantrums when they are frustrated by such events as being restrained or having to live with a dirty diaper

Answer 233

Difficult temperament.

Question 234

infants that are relatively inactive, somewhat moody, and only moderately
regular in their daily schedules.
Like difficult infants, they are
slow to adapt to new people and situations, but they typically

Answer 234

Slow-to-warm-up temperament

Question 235

babies are eagerly and actively engaged in life; they enjoy interacting with people and smile and laugh
a lot

Answer 235

Surgent/extraverted

Question 235

def: the tendency to actively, confidently,
and energetically approach new experiences in an emotionally positive way

Answer 235

Surgency/extraversion—

Question 236

definition: the tendency to be sad, fearful, easily
frustrated, irritable, and difficult to soothe (as opposed to laid back and adaptable)

Answer 236

Negative affectivity

Question 237

—the ability to focus and shift attention
when desired, inhibit responses, and appreciate low-intensity
activities such as sitting on a parent’s lap. Perhaps you remember the children’s game, “Simon Says.”

Answer 237

Effortful control

Question 238

illustrated by being able to inhibit hand clapping when the command is “Clap your hands” rather than “Simon
says clap your hands.”

Answer 238

Effortful control

Question 239

between child and environment—the extent to which the child’s temperament is
compatible with the demands and expectations of the social world to which she must adapt

Answer 239

goodness of fit

Question 240

of using information about how they compare with others to characterize and evaluate themselves

Answer 240

social comparison

Question 241

scholastic competence (feeling smart or doing well in school)
* social acceptance (being popular or feeling liked)
* behavioral conduct (staying out of trouble)
* athletic competence (being good at sports)
* physical appearance (feeling good-looking)

Answer 241

five aspects
of self-worth:

Question 242

children are forming an ever grander sense
of what they “should” be like—an

Answer 242

ideal self.

Question 243

Why do some children develop higher self-esteem than others?

Answer 243

genetic makeup
competence
social feedback

Question 244

a time during the high school
and college years when they are relatively free of responsibilities
and can experiment with different possibilities to find themselves.

Answer 244

moratorium period

Question 245

who characterized adolescence as a critical period in the lifelong process of forming an identity as a person—a time
for the psychosocial conflict of identity versus role confusion.

Answer 245

Erik Erikson

Question 246

they have simply accepted
identities suggested to them by their parents or other people

Answer 246

(the foreclosure status,

Question 247

they are experiencing a crisis or actively exploring identity
issues; now they may be questioning their religious upbringing, experimenting with drugs, changing majors or relationships, or putting outrageous postings on Facebook, all to
find themselves

Answer 247

moratorium status

Question 248

If they can not only raise questions but
answer them, they will move to the

Answer 248

identity achievement
status

Question 249

many adolescents simply have not yet thought about who they are

Answer 249

diffusion status

Question 250

identity formation takes a
short time or long time,

Answer 250

long

Question 250

Identity formation not only takes a long time but …….

Answer 250

occurs at
different rates in different domains of identity

Question 251

—a sense of personal identification with an ethnic group and its values and cultural traditions

Answer 251

ethnic
identity

Question 251

_______or life stories

Answer 251

narrative identities

Question 252

Holland identified six personality types, each suited to a different
cluster of occupations: those who enjoy learning, solving problems, and working creatively with ideas

Answer 252

investigative

Question 252

—a shift from the child’s fantasies to informed choice based on knowledge of both the self and the world of work.

Answer 252

increasing realism with age

Question 253

Holland identified six personality types, each suited to a different cluster of occupations: who like interacting with and helping other people

Answer 253

social types

Question 254

Holland identified six personality types, each suited to a different cluster of occupations: who favor practical work with concrete objects

Answer 254

realistic types

Question 255

Holland identified six personality types, each suited to a different cluster of occupations: who are nonconforming and want to express
themselves creatively

Answer 255

artistic types

Question 256

Holland identified six personality types, each suited to a different cluster of occupations: who prefer order, structure, and predictability

Answer 256

conventional types

Question 257

Holland identified six personality types, each suited to a different cluster of occupations: who seek to influence others and attain
status

Answer 257

enterprising types

Question 258

these are associated with whose principles?
- investigative types who enjoy learning, solving problems, and working creatively with ideas (for example, scientists)
* social types who like interacting with and helping other people
(for example, teachers and counselors)

• realistic types who favor practical work with concrete objects
  (for example, car mechanics, and construction workers)
• artistic types who are nonconforming and want to express
  themselves creatively (for example, artists, musicians)
• conventional types who prefer order, structure, and predictability (for example, librarians, accountants)
• enterprising types who seek to influence others and attain status (for example, sales people, entrepreneurs, leaders of organizations)

Answer 258

Holland six personality types suited to a different a cluster of occupations

Question 259

these five factors are associated with what?
_________ in various domains
1. Cognitive development
2. Personality
3. Quality of relationship with parents
4. Opportunities for exploration
5. Cultural context

Answer 259

identity

Question 260

Negative stereotypes breed the prejudice and discrimination against older
people we call

Answer 260

ageism

Question 261

that stereotypes of old people, which we learn in childhood, can result in ________ when we reach old age

Answer 261

self-stereotyping

Question 262

, individuals are socialized to put their own goals ahead of their social group’s goals

Answer 262

individualistic
culture

Question 262

people give group goals and
relationships higher priority than personal
goal

Answer 262

collectivist culture

Question 263

united states is ______ while japan is ______

Answer 263

US individualistic
japan collectivist

Question 264

This shift toward greater
emotional stability, agreeableness, and conscientiousness with age
has come to be called the

Answer 264

maturity principle

Question 264

What makes personalities remain stable over the years?

Answer 264

First, genetic
makeup contributes to continuity
Second, lasting effects of childhood experiences
third traits tend to remain stable when people’s
environments remain stable

Question 265

What, then, might cause the significant changes in personality that some adults experience?

Answer 265

Biological factors such as disease and dementia can certainly contribute.
Adult personalities also change in response to changes in the
environment, including major life events, changes in social and vocational roles, and psychotherapy

when there is a poor person–
environment fit

Question 266

occurs between 23-25 weeks and fetus has a chance to survive

Answer 266

age of viability

Question 266

this is assoictiated with what..
Emotional problems
behavioral problems
academic and social functioning
risk continues into adulthood

Answer 266

maternal depression

Question 267

challenge idea of universal/standard age-related development
indicates that the sociocultural enviroment plays a role

Answer 267

cohoris effects are important… theory:

Question 267

challenge idea of universal/standard age-related development is which theorist

Answer 267

jean pagnet

Question 268

indicates that the sociocultural enviroment plays a role

Answer 268

Lev S. Vygotsky

Question 269

which stage infants learn to trust other people if their caregivers are responsive to their needs;

Answer 269

trust versus mistrust

Question 270

which stage: According to Erikson, they
assert that they have wills of their own. Consistent with this view, toddlers recognize themselves in a mirror and lace their speech
with “me” around 18–24 months of age. Some “terrible twos” also make “no” their favorite word—a clear signal that they are now in charge.

Answer 270

autonomy versus shame and doubt

Question 271

Four- and five-year-olds who have achieved a sense of autonomy then enter Erikson’s stage of _________ They develop a sense of purpose by devising bold plans and taking
great pride in accomplishing the goals they set

Answer 271

initiative versus guilt.

Question 271

stage: A sense of initiative,
Erikson believed, paves the way for success when elementary school children face the conflict of and focus on mastering important cognitive and social skills

Answer 271

industry versus inferiority

Question 272

Age Range: Birth–1 year
Central Issue: Can I trust others?
Virtue or Strength: Hope

Answer 272

Trust vs. mistrust

Question 273

Age Range: 1–3 years
Central Issue: Can I act on my own?
Virtue or Strength: Will

Question 274

Age Range: 3–6 years
Central Issue: Can I carry out my plans successfully?
Virtue or Strength: Purpose

Answer 274

Initiative vs. guilt

Question 275

Age Range: 6–12 years
Central Issue: Am I competent compared with others?
Virtue or Strength: Competence

Answer 275

Industry vs. inferiority

Question 276

Age Range: 12–20 years
Central Issue: Who am I and where am I going?
Virtue or Strength: Fidelity

Answer 276

Identity vs. role confusion

Question 277

Age Range:20–40 years
Central Issue: Am I ready for a committed relationship?
Virtue or Strength: Love

Answer 277

Intimacy vs. isolation

Question 278

Age Range:40–65 years
Central Issue: Have I given something to future generations?
Virtue or Strength: Care

Answer 278

Generativity vs. stagnation

Question 279

Age Range: 65 years and older
Central Issue: Has my life been meaningful?
Virtue or Strength: Wisdom

Answer 279

Integrity vs. despair

Question 280

A person must
achieve a sense of individual identity before becoming able to commit himself to a shared identity with another person.

Answer 280

intimacy versus isolation

Question 281

This psychosocial conflict
involves gaining the capacity to generate or produce something that outlives you and to care about the welfare of future generations. It is realized through such activities as parenting, teaching, mentoring, and leading

Answer 281

generativity versus stagnation.

Question 282

They search for a sense of
meaning in their lives that will help them face the inevitability of death.

Answer 282

integrity versus despair

Question 283

, in which they reflect on unresolved conflicts of the past to come to terms with themselves, find new meaning and coherence in their lives, and prepare for death

Answer 283

life review

Question 284

40 to age 45 is an especially significant transition, a time of _______ in which a person questions his life structure and raises unsettling issues about where he has been and where he is heading

Answer 284

midlife crisis

Question 285

______ has been used to try
to help older adults overcome weaknesses in explicit memory by taking advantage of their relative strength of implicit memory.

Answer 285

SOC