Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Compare and contrast anabolic and catabolic reactions.

A

Anabolic reactions involve the building of larger, complex molecules from smaller, simpler ones, and require an input of energy. (requires energy, builds larger, complex molecules from smaller, simpler ones and forms chemical bonds between molecules)

Catabolic reactions are the opposite of anabolic reactions, and break the chemical bonds in larger, more complex molecules. (releases energy, breaks down large, complex molecules into smaller, simpler ones and breaks chemical bonds within molecules)

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2
Q

Describe the two ways energy harvested from catabolic reactions can be stored. Know the oxidized and reduced forms of NAD+/NADH and FAD/FADH2 and where the energy is store in the ATP molecule

A

Molecular energy stored in the bonds of complex molecules is released in catabolic pathways and harvested in such a way that it can be used to produce high-energy molecules, which are used to drive anabolic pathways.

NAD+ is the oxidized form of the molecule; NADH is the reduced form of the molecule.

The oxidized form of flavin adenine dinucleotide is FAD, and its reduced form is FADH2.

A living cell must be able to handle the energy released during catabolism in a way that enables the cell to store energy safely and release it for use only as needed. Living cells accomplish this by using the compound adenosine triphosphate (ATP). ATP is often called the “energy currency” of the cell, and, like currency, this versatile compound can be used to fill any energy need of the cell.

This chemical energy is stored in the pyrophosphate bond, which lies between the last two phosphate groups of ATP.

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3
Q

Be able to explain the following enzyme related term: enzyme

A

Enzymes: major cellular catalysts
typically proteins (some R N A s)
highly specific as a result of structure

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4
Q

Be able to explain the following enzyme related term: substrate

A

in reaction, enzyme combines with reactant (substrate: chemical reactants of an enzymatic reaction), forming enzyme-substrate complex, releasing product and enzyme

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5
Q

Be able to explain the following enzyme related term: active site

A

active site: region of enzyme that binds substrate

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6
Q

Be able to explain the following enzyme related term: allosteric site

A

an allosteric site, a location other than the active site, and still manages to block substrate binding to the active site by inducing a conformational change that reduces the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate.

allosteric site: location within an enzyme, other than the active site, to which molecules can bind, regulating enzyme activity

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7
Q

Describe how enzymes speed up reactions in terms of activation energy and how temperature and pH affect enzymes.

A

An enzyme functions by lowering the activation energy of a chemical reaction inside the cell. Activation energy is the energy needed to form or break chemical bonds and convert reactants to products. Enzymes lower the activation energy by binding to the reactant molecules and holding them in such a way as to speed up the reaction.

Enzymes are subject to influences by local environmental conditions such as pH, substrate concentration, and temperature. Although increasing the environmental temperature generally increases reaction rates, enzyme catalyzed or otherwise, increasing or decreasing the temperature outside of an optimal range can affect chemical bonds within the active site, making them less well suited to bind substrates. High temperatures will eventually cause enzymes, like other biological molecules, to denature, losing their three-dimensional structure and function. Enzymes are also suited to function best within a certain pH range, and, as with temperature, extreme environmental pH values (acidic or basic) can cause enzymes to denature. Active-site amino-acid side chains have their own acidic or basic properties that are optimal for catalysis and, therefore, are sensitive to changes in pH.

Some energy must be added to the system to get the reaction started:

Called activation energy

Increased temperature or inappropriate pH can denature enzymes.

Enzymes are essential to life so changes in temp or pH can kill organisms.

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8
Q

Explain how substrate concentration affects the rate of enzyme reactions.

A

substrate concentration: Enzyme activity is increased at higher concentrations of substrate until it reaches a saturation point at which the enzyme can bind no additional substrate. Overall, enzymes are optimized to work best under the environmental conditions in which the organisms that produce them live.

Substrate concentration: Increasing substrate concentration also increases the rate of reaction to a certain point. Once all of the enzymes have bound, any substrate increase will have no effect on the rate of reaction, as the available enzymes will be saturated and working at their maximum rate.

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9
Q

Compare and contrast competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibitors. Describe feedback inhibition as an example of non-competitive inhibition.

A

competitive inhibitor is a molecule similar enough to a substrate that it can compete with the substrate for binding to the active site by simply blocking the substrate from binding. For a competitive inhibitor to be effective, the inhibitor concentration needs to be approximately equal to the substrate concentration. Sulfa drugs provide a good example of competitive competition.

a noncompetitive (allosteric) inhibitor binds to the enzyme at an allosteric site, a location other than the active site, and still manages to block substrate binding to the active site by inducing a conformational change that reduces the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate. Because only one inhibitor molecule is needed per enzyme for effective inhibition, the concentration of inhibitors needed for noncompetitive inhibition is typically much lower than the substrate concentration.

Feedback inhibition involves the use of a pathway product to regulate its own further production. The cell responds to the abundance of specific products by slowing production during anabolic or catabolic reactions.

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10
Q

Compare and contrast autotroph vs. heterotroph and phototroph vs. chemotrophs.

A

Autotrophs convert inorganic CO2 to organic compounds.

Heterotrophs get their carbon from complex organic compounds (often from autotrophs)

Phototrophs get their energy from electron transfer from light.

Chemotrophs get their energy from electrons by breaking chemical bonds

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11
Q

Identify organisms based on how they get carbon and how they get energy.

A

For chemotrophs, there are chemoautotrophs(energy: chemical, carbon: inorganic) [examples: Hydrogen-, sulfur-, iron-, nitrogen-, and carbon monoxide-oxidizing bacteria]or chemoheterotrophs(energy: chemical, carbon: organic compounds) [examples: All animals, most fungi, protozoa, and bacteria]

For phototrophs, there are photoautotrophs(energy: light, carbon: inorganic) [examples: All plants, algae, cyanobacteria, and green and purple sulfur bacteria] or photoheterotrophs(energy: light, carbon: organic compounds) [examples: Green and purple nonsulfur bacteria, heliobacteria]

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12
Q

Identify the three different types of ATP production.

A

A T P generated through 1 of 3 mechanisms

Substrate-level phosphorylation: energy-rich substrate bond hydrolyzed directly to drive A T P formation (e.g., hydrolysis of phosphoenolpyruvate)

Oxidative phosphorylation: Movement of electrons generates proton motive force (electrochemical gradient) used to synthesize A T P

Photophosphorylation: light used to form proton motive force

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13
Q

Compare and contrast aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation.

A

Respiration:

Aerobic respiration:
Terminal acceptor is oxygen

Anaerobic respiration:
Alternative terminal electron acceptors
NO3-, SO4-2, CO2
Lower energy yields than O2

Fermentation (anaerobic):

Organic substrate for NADH oxidation
Low energy yield

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14
Q

Know the 4 phases of respiration, what goes in, what comes out, where it occurs, and if oxygen is required.

A

Four Phases:

Glycolysis: Energy is added to a glucose molecule by adding a phosphate group to each end.
Carbon-carbon bond is broken, 2 NAD+ are reduced, and 2 inorganic phosphates are added.
Phosphates are transferred from carbon to ADP to form ATP (staring material: glucose, products: 2 NADH, 2 ATP(net), and 2 pyruvate, this takes place in cytoplasm and no oxygen is required)

Transition reaction:

Starting materials: 2 pyruvate

Products:
2 NADH
2 CO2
2 acetyl CoA

Takes place in: Mitochondrial matrix

Oxygen required? YES

Krebs cycle (also known as Citric acid cycle or TCA cycle): Krebs Cycle

Starting materials: 2 acetyl CoA

Products:
4 CO2
6 NADH
2 FADH2
2 ATP

Takes place in: mitochondria

Oxygen required? YES

Electron transport chain:

Starting materials: NADH, FADH2, O2

Products: ATP:
3 from each NADH
2 from each FADH2
H2O

Takes place in: mitochondria

Oxygen required: yes

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15
Q

Understand the reasons organisms might use fermentation instead of respiration.

A

When certain organisms can’t do cellular respiration, they do glycolysis, followed by fermentation instead.

Many cells are unable to carry out respiration because of one or more of the following circumstances:

Lacking enough of any appropriate, inorganic, final electron acceptor to carry out cellular respiration. (TEMPORARY)

Lacking genes to make appropriate complexes and electron carriers in the electron transport system. (PERMENANT)

Lacking genes to make one or more enzymes in the Krebs cycle. (PERMENANT)

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16
Q

Understand the steps of fermentation starting with glycolysis.

A

Uses glycolysis to make 2 ATP, but then what?

Electron transport chain will not function to oxidize NADH as we have no oxygen

Make lactic acid from pyruvate
Accepts the electrons from NADH oxidizing it to NAD+

Now NAD+ is available for more rounds of glycolysis

What would happen if NAD+ is not regenerated?

If NAD was not regenerated for the Krebs cycle then there would be a collapse of the total energy obtained from the breakdown of fats, proteins and carbohydrates.

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17
Q

List other organic molecules that organisms can use besides carbohydrates.

A

Lipids:
Enzymes used to break down lipids can be part of disease progression

For example, Staphylococcus aureus uses phospholipases to attack host cells, then use the lipids for energy.

Proteins:
Enzymes used to break down protein can be part of disease progression

Pseudomonas aeruginosa has the ability to break down casein which helps identify it.

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18
Q

Be able to explain the 2 phases of photosynthesis, their reactants, products, and major steps.

A

Light-dependent reactions:
Energy from sunlight is captured by photopigments and stored as chemical energy.
The light-dependent reactions produce ATP and either NADPH or NADH to temporarily store energy. These energy carriers are used in the light-independent reactions to drive the energetically unfavorable process of “fixing” inorganic CO2 in an organic form, sugar.

Light-independent reactions:
Chemical energy from the light-dependent reaction is used to build sugar molecules from CO2

The light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) use the chemical energy from the light-independent reactions and uses it to build CO2 into sugar.

CO2+H2O –> C6H12O6+O2

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19
Q

Know the difference between oxygenic and anoxygenic photosynthesis.

A

Oxygenic:
Water is source of e- and H+
O2 is released

Anoxygenic:
Compounds other than water are the electron and proton donor
Purple non-sulfur bacteria use dissolved organic material like succinate or malate or hydrogen gas
(1. Sunlight/energy
2. Light-dependent reactions
3. Light-independent reactions)

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20
Q

Understand how chemoautotrophs get their energy.

A

Chemoautotrophs get their energy from inorganic molecules instead of light.

Use the oxidation of reduced inorganic chemicals to generate energy
Hydrogen sulfide, ammonia, H2, ferrous iron, elemental sulfur
Often found in harsh environments.

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21
Q

Understand the basics of biosynthesis and what types of molecules need to be made.

A

Anabolism: Biosynthesis of cellular macromolecules

Requires A T P and reducing power

Cells require carbon and nitrogen to perform biosynthesis

Atmospheric sources (CO2 and N2) must be chemically reduced for assimilation (CO2 fixation and N2 fixation)

Amino acid and nucleotide biosynthesis typically use long, multistep pathways.

Fatty Acids: In Bacteria and Eukarya, assembly of lipids first involves addition of fatty acids to glycerol.

22
Q

Know how microbes grow in number by binary fission, including the step of binary fission.

A

Binary fission is the process of bacterial cell division.
Each bacterial cell makes an exact copy of itself.
The time required to perform a division is the generation time.
Wide diversity in Generation time
Ranges from 20 minutes in a well fed and aerated E. coli culture to weeks in a Mycobacterium sp culture to centuries in some oligotrophic environments

Binary Fission Steps
1. DNA replication
2. Cell elongation
3. Formation of division septum
4. Cell separation

23
Q

Describe the 4 different phases of microbial growth, what the cells are doing at each phase, and why.

A
  1. Lag: No division

Cells are settling into their new environment

Lots of metabolic activity as cells get ready to divide

  1. Log: Once cells have enough energy and materials they start rapidly dividing

Growth is logarithmic

The relationship between time and number of cells is not linear but exponential.

  1. Stationary: Growth slows and population size reaches equilibrium

of cells made = # of cells dying

Growth rate is 0

  1. Death/decline: More cells die than are being made

Cells are killed by built up waste products or lack of nutrients

24
Q

Be able to solve for number of cells at any given generation using the equation: Nt=N02^n

A

It is possible to predict the number of cells in a population when they divide by binary fission at a constant rate.

Nt=N02n

Nt is the number of cells at any generation n, N0 is the initial number of cells, and n is the number of generations.

25
Q

Quantifying bacterial growth

A

Nt=N02n
Nt is the number of cells at any generation n, N0 is the initial number of cells, and n is the number of generations.

Example problem:
With a doubling time of 30 minutes and a starting population size of 1 × 105 cells, how many cells will be present after 2 hours, assuming no cell death?

N0 = 1 × 105 cells, n=4 generations

Nt= (1 × 105 cells)(24)= 1.6 x 106 cells

26
Q

Describe the different physical and chemical growth requirements of bacteria.

A

Physical requirements for growth: temperature, pH, and osmotic pressure/salt concentration

Chemical growth requirements:
6 most common elements in organisms?
C,H,O,N,P,S

Other common elements:
K, Mg, Fe, Ca, Mn

Trace Elements
Zn, Co, Cu, Mo

27
Q

Describe what is meant by extremophile.

A

Extremophiles: Organisms that can grow at extremes (high or low) of these physical factors.

28
Q

Name and describe the different categories of bacteria in respect to temperature preference (psychrophiles, mesophiles, thermophiles, and hyperthermophiles) and pH preference (acidophiles, neutrophiles, and alkaliphiles).

A

Temperature preference;
Psychrophiles: also known as psychrotolerant, prefer cooler environments, from a high temperature of 25 °C to refrigeration temperature about 4 °C. They are found in many natural environments in temperate climates.

Mesopholes: adapted to moderate temperatures, with optimal growth temperatures ranging from room temperature (about 20 °C) to about 45 °C. As would be expected from the core temperature of the human body, 37 °C (98.6 °F), normal human microbiota and pathogens (e.g., E. coli, Salmonella spp., and Lactobacillus spp.) are mesophiles.

Thermophiles: Organisms that grow at optimum temperatures of 50 °C to a maximum of 80 °C

Hyperthermophiles: characterized by growth ranges from 80 °C to a maximum of 110 °C, with some extreme examples that survive temperatures above 121 °C, the average temperature of an autoclave.

pH preference;
acidophiles: Microorganisms that grow optimally at pH less than 5.55

neutrophiles: meaning they grow optimally at a pH within one or two pH units of the neutral pH of 7

alkaliphiles: microorganisms that grow best at pH between 8.0 and 10.5. Vibrio cholerae, the pathogenic agent of cholera, grows best at the slightly basic pH of 8.0; it can survive pH values of 11.0 but is inactivated by the acid of the stomach.

29
Q

Explain how bacteria are adapted to deal with extreme temperature, osmotic pressure, and high salt environments.

A

Growth is highest at the OPTIMAL GROWTH TEMPERATURE.

The lowest temperature the bacteria can survive and reproduce is called its minimum growth temperature.

The highest the bacteria can survive and reproduce is called its maximum growth temperature.

Higher up on the extreme temperature scale we find the hyperthermophiles, which are characterized by growth ranges from 80 °C to a maximum of 110 °C, with some extreme examples that survive temperatures above 121 °C, the average temperature of an autoclave.

Not much protection is available against high osmotic pressure. In this case, water, following its concentration gradient, flows out of the cell. This results in plasmolysis (the shrinking of the protoplasm away from the intact cell wall) and cell death. This fact explains why brines and layering meat and fish in salt are time-honored methods of preserving food.

Microorganisms called halophiles (“salt loving”) actually require high salt concentrations for growth. These organisms are found in marine environments where salt concentrations hover at 3.5%.

30
Q

List the types of chemical elements that are required by microbes, why they are required, and their sources.

A

The types of chemical elements that are required by microbes are
Hydrogen

carbon: Autotrophs use carbon in the form of carbon dioxide.

Heterotrophs use carbon in the form of organic substances.

nitrogen: In amino acids and proteins

Most bacteria decompose proteins

Some bacteria use NH4+ or NO3–

A few bacteria use N2 in nitrogen fixation

Oxygen:
Obligate aerobes: need abundant oxygen.

Facultative anaerobes: thrive on O2 but can live for a while without it

Obligate anaerobes: oxygen is toxic to them

Aerotolerant anaerobes: do not use oxygen but can tolerate it

Microaerophiles: require a small amount of oxygen

Phosphorous: In DNA, RNA, ATP, and membranes

PO43– (Pi)is a source of phosphorus

Sulfur: In amino acids, thiamine, and biotin

Most bacteria decompose proteins

Some bacteria use SO42– or H2S

31
Q

Be able to explain the different kinds of bacteria in respect to oxygen usage (obligate aerobes, facultative anaerobes, microaerophile, obligate anaerobes, aerotolerant anaerobes) and how thioglycolate tubes are used to test this.

A

Obligate aerobes: need abundant oxygen.

Facultative anaerobes: thrive on O2 but can live for a while without it

Obligate anaerobes: oxygen is toxic to them

Aerotolerant anaerobes: do not use oxygen but can tolerate it

Microaerophiles: require a small amount of oxygen

We can test the oxygen preference of a species by growing bacteria in thioglycolate tubes.

32
Q

Explain the difference between agar cultures vs broth, general vs specialized medium, chemically defined vs complex media, selective vs differential media

A

Bacteria can be grown on solidified agar medium either in a test tube (slant) or in a petri dish.

You can also grow your microbe in a watery nutrient broth.

general, all-purpose and support many different organism

specialized: Enriched media for fastidious bacteria, with complex nutritional needs

chemically defined, meaning that every component is known and quantified. (Water, Glucose, NH4Cl, KH2PO4, K2HPO4, MgSO4, Na acetate, Alanine, Arginine, Asparagine, Aspartic acid, Cysteine, Glutamic acid, Glycine, Histidine, Isoleucine, Etc.)

complex, made of extracts or digests from yeast, meat, or plants so the components are undetermined and variable (Water, Peptone, Beef extract, NaCl)

Selective media inhibits the growth of unwanted microorganisms and supports the growth of the organism of interest by supplying nutrients and reducing competition

Differential media: make it easy to distinguish colonies of different bacteria by a change in the color of the colonies or the color of the medium.

33
Q

Describe how we obtain a pure culture via plate streaking.

A

Obtaining a pure culture of bacteria is usually accomplished by spreading bacteria on the surface of a solid medium so that a single cell occupies an isolated portion of the agar surface. This single cell will go through repeated multiplication to produce a visible colony of similar cells, or clones.

34
Q

Explain the term biofilm.

A

biofilm: complex ecosystem of bacteria embedded in a matrix

35
Q

Define the terms genetics, genome, chromosome, gene, genetic code, genotype and phenotype.

A

Genetics: the study of how genes and how traits are passed down from one generation to the next.

genome: entire genetic content of a cell

chromosome: discrete DNA structure within a cell that controls cellular activities

gene: a sequence of DNA that codes for a single protein = one gene one polypeptide

genetic code: correspondence between mRNA nucleotide codons and the translated amino acids

Genotype: precise sequence of nucleotides found in that individual organism
For example: the sequence of the gene encoding the lactase enzyme

Phenotype: observable characteristics that result from the organism’s genotype
For example: ability to digest lactose

36
Q

Explain DNA replication, including all the enzymes involved.

A

DNA replication is the process by which the genome’s DNA is copied in cells.
DNA replication is semi-conservative.

Semi-conservative means that each daughter strand has one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.

The old strand is used as a pattern to make the new strand using complementary binding.

Step 1: Helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together, so they separate

Step 2: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the growing new strand, complementing the bases on the template strand

37
Q

Explain what is meant by the concept of The Central Dogma of Biology. Also, know
what is meant by “one gene – one polypeptide.”

A

The Central Dogma of Biology describes the flow of information in the cell.
central dogma states that DNA organized into genes specifies the sequences of messenger RNA (mRNA), which, in turn, specifies the amino acid sequence of proteins.

a single protein = one gene one polypeptide

38
Q

List the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA.

A

Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids made of nucleotides involved in gene expression.
What are the differences between DNA and RNA?

  1. bases (RNA: uracil, DNA: thymine)
  2. Sugar (RNA: ribose, DNA: deoxyribose)
  3. # of strands (RNA: 1, DNA: 2)
39
Q

Describe process of transcription, indicate where and how transcription occurs in eukaryotic cells and where/how it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Be able to describe the enzyme involved, how it knows where to begin transcription, how it knows how to end transcription.

A

Translation is the decoding of the mRNA message into a polypeptide by the ribosome.

The language is called the GENETIC CODE.

Translation is the process of decoding the mRNA into a sequence of amino acids.

What is required for translation?
mRNA template
Ribosome: made of a mix of rRNAs and protein
tRNA

Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to a promoter sequence near the beginning of a gene (directly or through helper proteins).
RNA polymerase uses one of the DNA strands (the template strand) as a template to make a new, complementary RNA molecule.
Transcription ends in a process called termination. Termination depends on sequences in the RNA, which signal that the transcript is finished.

Eukaryotic transcription is carried out in the nucleus of the cell by one of three RNA polymerases, depending on the RNA being transcribed, and proceeds in three sequential stages: Initiation. Elongation. Termination.

Prokaryotic transcription is the process in which messenger RNA transcripts of genetic material in prokaryotes are produced, to be translated for the production of proteins. Prokaryotic transcription occurs in the cytoplasm alongside translation. Prokaryotic transcription and translation can occur simultaneously.

40
Q

Indicate where and how translation occurs, the machinery the carries out translation, and a step-by-step account of translation from beginning to end.

A

Ribosome: Translation Machinery

Found in the cytoplasm

Made of BOTH protein and ribosomal
RNAs (rRNAs)

Made up of 2 parts: the small subunit and the large subunit

Translation: using the information carried by the mRNA to make a protein

mRNA enters the cytoplasm from the nucleus

The first tRNA is released

A tRNA with an anticodon which complements the next 3 bases on the mRNA then delivers its amino acid

A ribosome and a tRNA with the UAC anticodon and the amino acid methionine, assemble on the mRNA

There are no tRNAs that have an anticodon for this last codon; it is a STOP. The ribosome falls off the mRNA and the peptide is released

The ribosome moves to the next codon

A peptide bond forms between the 2 amino acids

In prokaryotes, multiple RNA polymerases can transcribe a single bacterial gene while numerous ribosomes concurrently translate the mRNA transcripts into polypeptides.

Is this possible in eukaryotes?
This allows prokaryotes to respond to their environment faster.

41
Q

Understand what happens to polypeptides after they are synthesized including possible secretion.

A

Some proteins must be transported outside cytoplasmic membrane into periplasm or inserted into cytoplasmic/outer membrane
Some proteins (e.g., toxins, exoenzymes) must be secreted into the environment
Typically, systems requiring A T P, G T P, or proton motive force are required
Example: halomucin (protects Haloquadratum walsbyi from dessication)

After a polypeptide chain is synthesized, it may undergo additional processes.

For example, it may assume a folded tertiary shape due to interactions among its amino acids. It may also bind with other polypeptides or with different types of molecules, such as lipids or carbohydrates.

42
Q

Classify the type of mutation and predict the consequences the polypeptide formed when given the wild type and mutated DNA sequence.

A

Reminder: mutations are random and permanent changes in the DNA sequence.

Mutations can be as small as an alteration of a single base

Mutations occur randomly and generally do not interfere with the organism.

However, if a mutation occurs in a gene it is usually deleterious, but it can also result an advantageous effect.

If the DNA in a gene is altered, the mRNA transcribed from that gene will also be altered and the protein will be altered (might not fold correctly)

43
Q

Name different types of mutations and what causes them.

A

Spontaneous mutations come from DNA replication.
DNA polymerase makes 1 uncorrected mistake in every 30 million base pairs.

Induced mutations: come from exposure to mutagens, either chemical agents or radiation.

Point mutation: substitution of a single base

Silent mutation: has no effect on the protein sequence

missense mutation: results in an amino acid substitution

nonsense mutation: substitutes a stop codon for an amino acid

frameshift mutation: insertion or deletion of one or more bases

insertion or deletion mutation: results in a shift in the reading frame

44
Q

Define the term mutagen.

A

mutagen: type of chemical agent or radiation that can induce mutations

45
Q

Identify the purpose of, and outline the procedure for, the Ames test.

A

The Ames Test:
Uses a genetically engineered bacteria which cannot grow without histidine being added to the media (auxotrophs: nutritional mutant with a loss-of-function mutation in a gene encoding the biosynthesis of a specific nutrient such as an amino acid)

Treat the bacteria with the potential mutagen

  1. Add rat liver extract and Salmonella to top control tube; add rat liver extract, possible mutagen, and Salmonella to bottom experimental tube. Plate and incubate both samples using medium lacking histidine.
  2. Compare growth on plates to identify revertants, which suggest mutagen causes mutations.
46
Q

Define gene regulation and explain why at any given moment bacteria are only expressing a fraction of their genes.

A

Gene Regulation: Repressor Proteins Usually Determine Whether Operon is ON or OFF

Only a fraction of the genes in a cell are expressed at any one time. The variety of gene expression profiles characteristic of different cell types arise because these cells have distinct sets of transcription regulators. Some of these regulators work to increase transcription, whereas others prevent or suppress it.

47
Q

Define operon.

A

operon: a group of genes with related functions often found clustered together within the prokaryotic chromosome and transcribed under the control of a single promoter and operator repression sequence

48
Q

Explain regulation of gene expression in bacteria in both an inducible operon and in a repressible operon.

A

There are 2 types of operons: Repressible and Inducible

Expression of genes regulated in two main ways:
Repressible Operon:
The genes are usually turned “on” or expressed unless there is a signal to turn them “off”

Inducible Operon:
The genes are usually turned “off” unless there is a signal to turn them “on”

49
Q

Know all the steps of the trp operon, both in the absence of and in the presence of tryptophan.

A

Trp operon: genes that encode proteins used to synthesize (make) tryptophan, which is an amino acid.

Repressible =Operon is always On, unless it is turned Off

Analogy: Ford car assembly line is always on, unless there are too many cars that haven’t been sold, then it gets turned off

In the absence of tryptophan, the trp repressor dissociates from the operator, and RNA synthesis proceeds.

When tryptophan is present, the trp repressor binds the operator, and RNA synthesis is blocked.

50
Q

Know all the steps of the lac operon, both in the absence of and in the presence of lactose.

A

Inducer Example: Lac Operon
E. coli prefers to have glucose for energy, but if no glucose is available and lactose is present, E. coli turns on the lac operon to be able to use the lactose instead.
Genes code for proteins used to breakdown LACTOSE

Inducible= operon is OFF, unless a molecule is present to turn it on
Analogy: Gas shortage so Ford turns on assembly line for electric cars (use available food source)

Repressor (LacI) is constitutively expressed (always made).

Without inducer, the repressor is ACTIVE (meaning it is the right shape to bind to the operator DNA sequence) and blocks RNA polymerase binding.

Alloactose (inducer) binds to the repressor, changing its shape, so it can’t bind the operator.

E. coli prefers glucose over lactose if both are present.

There is another layer of control of expression of the Lac operon.

Glucose utilizing genes are expressed constitutively.

If both glucose and lactose are present in the medium, the bacterium will use the glucose first, so the Lac operon will be repressed even though lactose is available.

When glucose is depleted, the Lac operon is de-repressed (turned back on).

In the absence of lactose, the lac repressor binds the operator, and transcription is blocked.

In the presence of lactose, the lac repressor is released from the operator, and transcription proceeds at a slow rate.

51
Q

Explain catabolite repression of the lac operon step by step

A

When high levels of glucose are present in a cell, the amount of a signal molecule, cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) is low. This inhibits the formation of a cAMP-CAP (catabolite gene activator protein) complex that promotes RNA polymerase-DNA binding. The operon is not efficiently transcribed.

When glucose levels in the cell are low, cAMP levels rise, and the formation of the cAMP-CAP complex is more likely.

The cAMP-CAP-DNA complex promotes RNA polymerase-DNA binding and increases transcription of the operon

To get efficient lac operon transcription, glucose must be low AND allolactose must be present.

In absence of cAMP, CAP does not bind the promoter. Transcription occurs at a low rate.
cAMP-CAP complex stimulates RNA polymerase activity and increases RNA synthesis.
In the presence of cAMP, CAP binds the promoter and increases RNA polymerase activity.
However, even in the presence of cAMP-CAP complex, RNA synthesis is blocked when repressor is bound to the operator.

52
Q

Explain how quorum sensing works using the example of Vibrio fischeri bioluminescence.

A

Quorum sensing: the mechanism by which cells in a biofilm coordinate their activities in response to environmental stimuli.

The luminescence of V. fischeri is activated through a quorum sensing (QS) mechanism in which the cells remain dark until their population reaches the high densities that signify colonization of the light organ of the symbiotic host.