Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

The nurse is providing care for a patient demonstrating behaviors associated with moderate levels of anxiety. What question should the nurse ask initially in attempting to help the patient de-escalate the anxiety?

a. “Do you know what will help you manage your anxiety?”

b. “Do you need help to manage your anxiety?”

c. “Can you identify what was happening when your anxiety began to increase?”

d. “Are you feeling anxious right now?”

A

C

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1
Q
  1. Which patient is at increased risk for the development of anxiety and will require frequent assessment by the nurse? Select all that apply.

a. Exacerbation of asthma signs and symptoms

b. History of peanut and strawberry allergies

c. History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

d. Current treatment for unstable angina pectoris

e. History of a traumatic brain injury

A

A, C, D, E

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2
Q

Which medication should the nurse be prepared to educate patients on when they are prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for panic attacks?

a. Alprazolam (Xanax)

b. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

c. Clonazepam (Klonopin)

d. Venlafaxine (Effexor)

A

B

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3
Q

Which statement or statements made by the nurse demonstrates an understanding of the effective use of relaxation therapy for anxiety management? Select all that apply.

a. “Relaxation therapy’s main goal is to prevent exhaustion by removing muscle tension.”

b. “Muscle relaxation promotes the relaxation response.”

c. “Show me how you learned to deep breathe in yesterday’s therapy session.”

d. “You’ve said that going to group makes you nervous, so let’s start relaxing now.”

e. “I’ve given you written descriptions of the various relaxation exercises for you to review.”

A

B, C, D, E

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4
Q

To maximize the therapeutic effect, which lifestyle practice should the nurse discourage for a patient who has recently been prescribed an antianxiety medication?

a. Eating high-protein foods.

b. Using acetaminophen without first discussing it with a healthcare provider

c. Taking medications after eating dinner or while having a bedtime snack

d. Buying a large coffee with sugar and extra cream each morning on the way to work

A

D

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5
Q

In a parent-teacher conference, the school nurse meets with the parents of a profoundly shy 8-year-old girl. The parents hold hands, speak softly, respond briefly, and have poor eye contact. The nurse recognizes that the child is most likely exposed to parental modeling and

a. The inherited shyness trait

b. A lack of affection in the home

c. Severe punishment by the parents

d. Is afraid to say something foolish

A

A

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6
Q

Isabel is a straight-A student, yet she suffers from severe test anxiety and seeks medical attention. The nurse interviews Isabel and develops a plan of care. The nurse recognizes effective teaching about mild anxiety when Isabel states the following:

a. “I would like to try a benzodiazepine for my anxiety.”

b. “If I study harder, my anxiety level will go down.”

c. “Mild anxiety is okay because it helps me to focus.”

d. “I have fear that I will fail at college.”

A

C

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7
Q

The activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) contributes to a slowing of neural activity. Which of the following drugs facilitate the action of GABA?

a. Benzodiazepines

b. Antihistamines

c. Anticonvulsants

d. Noradrenergics

A

A

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8
Q

Samantha is a new patient at the mental health clinic and is seeking assistance for what she describes as “severe anxiety.” In addition to daily self-medicating with alcohol, Samantha describes long-term use of herbal kava. The nurse practitioner knows that kava is associated with inhibiting P450 and orders which of the following tests?

a. Electrocardiogram

b. Liver enzymes

c. Glomerular filtration rate

d. Complete blood count

A

B

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9
Q

A homebound patient diagnosed with agoraphobia has been receiving therapy at home. The nurse recognizes effective teaching when the patient states the following:

a. “I may never leave the house again.”

b. “Having groceries delivered is very convenient.”

c. “My risk for agoraphobia is increased by my family history.”

d. “I will go out again someday, just not today.”

A

C

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10
Q

The care plan of a patient diagnosed with a somatic disorder includes the nursing diagnosis impaired coping. Which patient behavior demonstrates a successful outcome for that nursing diagnosis?

a. Showers and dresses in clean clothes daily

b. Calls a friend to talk when feeling lonely

c. Spends more time talking about pain in her abdomen

d. Maintains focus and concentration

A

B

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11
Q

Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a stress-induced myocardial infarction?

a. A patient who lost a child in an accidental shooting 24 hours ago

b. A woman who has begun experiencing early signs of menopause

c. A patient who has spent years trying to sustain a successful business

d. A patient who was diagnosed with chronic major depressive disorder 10 years ago

A

D

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12
Q

What precipitating emotional factor has been associated with an increased incidence of cancers? Select all that apply.

a. Anxiety

b. Job-related stress

c. Acute grief

d. Feelings of hopelessness and despair from depression

e. Prolonged, intense stress

A

D, E

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13
Q

You are caring for Aaron, a 38-year-old patient diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. When interacting with you, Aaron continues to focus on his severe headaches. In planning care for Aaron, which of the following interventions would be appropriate?

a. Call for a family meeting with Aaron in attendance to confront Aaron regarding his diagnosis.

b. Educate Aaron on alternative therapies to deal with pain.

c. Improve reality testing by telling Aaron that you do not believe that the headaches are real.

d. After a limited discussion of physical concerns, shift focus to feelings and effective coping skills.

A

D

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14
Q

Living comfortable and materialistic lives in Western societies seems to have altered the original hierarchy proposed by Maslow in that:

a. Once lower-level needs are satisfied, no further growth feels necessary.

b. Self-actualization is easier to achieve with financial stability.

c. Esteem is more highly valued than safety.

d. Focusing on materialism reduces interests in love, belonging, and family.

A

D

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15
Q

Diane, a 63-year-old mother of three, was brought to the community psychiatric clinic. Diane and her son had a bitter fight over finances. Ever since, Diane has been complaining of “a severe pain in my neck.” She has seen several doctors who cannot find a physical basis for the pain. The nurse knows that:

a. Showing concern for Diane’s pain will increase her obsessional thinking.

b. Diane’s symptoms are manipulative and under conscious control.

c. Diane believes there is a physical cause for the pain and will resist a psychological explanation.

d. Diane is trying to make her son feel bad about the argument.

A

C

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16
Q

Conversion disorder is described as an absence of a neurological diagnosis that manifests in neurological symptoms. Channeling of emotions, conflicts, and stressors into physical symptoms is thought to be the cause of conversion disorder. Which statement is true?

a. People with conversion disorder are extremely upset about often dramatic symptoms.

b. Abnormal patterns of cerebral activation have been found in individuals with conversion disorder.

c. An organic cause is usually found in most cases of conversion disorder.

d. Symptoms can be turned off and on depending on the patient’s choice.

A

B

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17
Q

Melanie is a 38-year-old female admitted to the hospital to rule out a neurological disorder. The testing was negative, yet she is reluctant to be discharged. Today she has added lower back pain and a stabbing sensation in her abdomen. The nurse suspects a factitious disorder in which Melanie may:

a. Consciously be trying to maintain her role of a sick patient.

b. Not recognize her unmet needs to be cared for.

c. Protect her child from illness.

d. Recognize physical symptoms as a coping mechanism.

A

A

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18
Q

You are caring for Yolanda, a 67-year-old patient who has been receiving hemodialysis for 3 months. Yolanda reports that she feels angry whenever it is time for her dialysis treatment. You attribute this to:

a. Organic changes in Yolanda’s brain.

b. A flaw in Yolanda’s personality.

c. A normal response to grief and loss.

d. Denial of the reality of a poor prognosis.

A

C

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19
Q

Lucas is a nurse on a medical floor caring for Kelly, a 48-year-old patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. He realizes that depression is a complicating factor in the patient’s adjustment to her new diagnosis. What problem has the most potential to arise?

a. Development of agoraphobia

b. Treatment nonadherence

c. Frequent hypoglycemic reactions

d. Sleeping rather than checking blood sugar

A

B

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20
Q

Natalya, a patient with a history of alcohol use disorder, has been prescribed disulfiram (Antabuse). Which physical effects support the suspicion that the patient has relapsed? Select all that apply.

a. Intense nausea

b. Diaphoresis

c. Acute paranoia

d. Confusion

e. Dyspnea

A

A, B, D, E

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21
Q

Which assessment data confirm the suspicion that a patient is experiencing opioid withdrawal? Select all that apply.

a. Pupils are dilated

b. Pulse rate is 62 beats/min

c. Slow movements

d. Extreme anxiety

e. Sleepy

A

A, D

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22
Q

The nursing diagnosis denial is especially useful when working with substance use disorders and gambling. Which statements describe this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

a. Reports inability to cope

b. Does not perceive the danger of substance use or gambling

c. Minimizes symptoms

d. Refuses healthcare attention

e. Unable to admit the impact of disease on life pattern

A

B, C, D, E

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23
Q

What action should you take when a female staff member is demonstrating behaviors associated with a substance use disorder?

a. Accompany the staff member when she is giving patient care.

b. Offer to attend rehabilitation counseling with her.

c. Refer her to a peer assistance program.

d. Confront her about your concerns and/or report your concerns to a supervisor immediately.

A

D

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24
Q

A patient diagnosed with opioid use disorder has expressed a desire to enter into a rehabilitation program. What initial nursing intervention during the early days after admission will help ensure the patient’s success?

a. Restrict visitors to family members only.

b. Manage the patient’s withdrawal symptoms well.

c. Provide the patient a low-stimulus environment.

d. Advocate for at least 3 months of treatment.

A

B

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25
Q

Lester and Alene have always enjoyed gambling. Lately, Alene has discovered that their savings account is down by $50,000. Alene insists that Lester undergo therapy for his gambling behavior. The nurse recognizes that Lester is making progress when he states:

a. “I understand that I am a bad person for depleting our savings.”

b. “Gambling activates the reward pathways in my brain.”

c. “Gambling is the only thing that makes me feel alive.”

d. “We have always enjoyed gaming. I do not know why Alene is so upset.”

A

B

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26
Q

Opioid use disorder is characterized by:

a. Lack of withdrawal symptoms

b. Intoxication symptoms of pupillary dilation, agitation, and insomnia

c. Tolerance

d. Requiring smaller amounts of the drug to achieve a high over time

A

C

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27
Q

Terry is a young male in a chemical dependency program. Recently, he has become increasingly distracted and disengaged. The nurse concludes that Terry is:

a. Bored

b. Depressed

c. Bipolar

d. Not ready to change

A

D

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28
Q

Max is a 30-year-old male who arrives at the emergency department stating, “I feel like I am having a stroke.” During the intake assessment, the nurse discovers that Max has been working for 36 hours straight without eating and has consumed 8 double espresso drinks and 12 caffeinated sodas. The nurse suspects:

a. Fluid overload

b. Dehydration and caffeine overdose

c. Benzodiazepine overdose

d. Sleep deprivation syndrome

A

B

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29
Q

Donald, a 49-year-old male, is admitted for inpatient alcohol detoxification. The rationale for admission into this program is due to:

a. Heavy use of a substance known to cause withdrawal

b. A need for rehabilitation

c. The potential for relapse

d. CNS hypoactivity following cessation of alcohol consumption

A

A

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30
Q

A male patient reports to the nurse, “I’m told I have memories of childhood abuse stored in my unconscious mind. I want to work on this.” Based on this statement, what information should the nurse provide the patient?

a. To seek the help of a trained therapist to help uncover and deal with the trauma associated with those memories.

b. How to use a defense mechanism such as suppression so that the memories will be less threatening.

c. Psychodynamic therapy will allow the surfacing of those unconscious memories to occur in just a few sessions.

d. Group sessions are valuable to identify underlying themes of the memories being suppressed.

A

A

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31
Q

Which question should the nurse ask when assessing for what Sullivan’s Interpersonal Theory identifies as the most painful human condition?

a. “Is self-esteem important to you?”

b. “Do you think of yourself as being lonely?”

c. “What do you do to manage your anxiety?”

d. “Have you ever been diagnosed with depression?”

A

B

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32
Q

When discussing therapy options, the nurse should provide information about interpersonal therapy to which patient? Select all that apply.

a. The teenager who is the focus of bullying at school

b. The older woman who has just lost her life partner to cancer

c. The young adult who has begun demonstrating hoarding tendencies

d. The adolescent demonstrating aggressive verbal and physical tendencies

e. The middle-aged adult who recently discovered her partner has been unfaithful

A

A, B, E

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33
Q

When considering the suggestions of Hildegard Peplau, which activity should the nurse regularly engage in to ensure that the patient stays the focus of all therapeutic conversations?

a. Assessing the patient for unexpressed concerns and fears

b. Evaluating the possible need for additional training and education

c. Reflecting on personal behaviors and personal needs

d. Avoiding power struggles with the manipulative patient

A

C

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34
Q

Which action reflects therapeutic practices associated with operant conditioning?

a. Encouraging a parent to read to their children to foster a love for learning

b. Encouraging a patient to make daily journal entries describing their feelings

c. Suggesting to a new mother that she spend time cuddling her newborn often during the day

d. Acknowledging a patient who is often verbally aggressive for complimenting a picture another patient drew

A

D

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35
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient who graduated at the top of his class but now obsesses about being incompetent in his new job. The nurse recognizes that this patient may benefit from the following type of psychotherapy:

a. Interpersonal

b. Operant conditioning

c. Behavioral

d. Cognitive behavioral

A

D

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36
Q

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the most basic needs category for nurses to address is:

a. Physiological

b. Safety

c. Love and belonging

d. Self-actualization

A

A

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37
Q

In an outpatient psychiatric clinic, a nurse notices that a newly admitted young male patient smiles when he sees her. One day the young man tells the nurse, “You are pretty like my mother.” The nurse recognizes that the male is exhibiting:

a. Transference

b. Id expression

c. Countertransference

d. A cognitive distortion

A

A

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38
Q

Linda is terrified of spiders and cannot explain why. Because she lives in a wooded area, she would like to overcome this overwhelming fear. Her nurse practitioner suggests which therapy?

a. Behavioral

b. Biofeedback

c. Aversion

d. Exposure and response prevention therapy

A

D

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39
Q

A patient is telling a tearful story. The nurse listens empathically and responds therapeutically with:

a. “The next time you find yourself in a similar situation, please call me.”

b. “I am sorry this situation made you feel so badly. Would you like some tea?”

c. “Let’s devise a plan on how you will react next time in a similar situation.”

d. “I am sorry that your friend was so thoughtless. You should be treated better.”

A

C

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40
Q

Mild anxiety

A

every day problem-solving leverage
grasp information effectively

from being in hospital
learn to manage or grow from it before it gets worse
NO sympathetic nervous system response

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41
Q

moderate anxiety

A

selective inattention
clear thinking hampered, can make SOME decisions
problem solving not optimal
SNS symptoms begin, seek help in making big decisions

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42
Q

severe anxiety

A

perceptual field greatly reduced (can’t make eye contact or focus)
difficulty concentrating
confused and automatic behavior
somatic symptoms (stomach upset, digestion and sphincter issues, release of cortisol)

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43
Q

Panic

A

markedly disturbed behavior (running, shouting, etc)
extremely impulsive
security (code gray or rapid response)
rescue meds (haldol [vit H] or ativan)
1:1
change of location
cohorting
concerns of pt safety
hallucinations
unable to process reality; impulsivity
panic attack or panic disorder (PD)

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44
Q

separation anxiety disorder

A

Developmentally inappropriate levels of concern over being away from a significant other
Assessing their stages in growth and development
Can develop into true interference with life

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45
Q

panic disorder

A

recurring panic attacks

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46
Q

agoraphobia

A

excessive anxiety or fear about being in places or situations where escape may be difficult or embarrassing
may occur in places with closed spaces, some pts may not want to leave their home
missing human-human interaction
not a space issue, more loss of control

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47
Q

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

excessive worry for months
gets in the way of responsibilities of activities

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48
Q

social anxiety disorder

A

severe anxiety or fear provoked by exposure to a social or performance situation that will be evaluated negatively by others

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49
Q

physical effects of anxiety disorders

A

sweating
chest pain
dizziness, decreased sex drive, irritability
increased muscle tension
rapid breathing and breathlessness
heart palpitations
increased BP
N/D

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50
Q

meds for generalized anxiety disorder

A

Benzodiazepines; buspirone; tricyclics (TCAs) for pts who are also depressed

51
Q

non meds for generalized anxiety disorder

A

Cognitive behavioral interpersonal therapy, stress management, biofeedback

52
Q

meds for panic attacks

A

SSRIs, benzo, TCAs, MAO inhibitors

53
Q

non meds for panic attacks

A

CBT

54
Q

meds for phobias

A

benzos, BB, SSRIs

55
Q

non meds for phobias

A

CBT (desensitization)
hypnosis

56
Q

meds for OCD

A

SSRIs as first choice, except if tics are present (neuroleptics for tics)
clomipramine (a tricyclic)
MAO inhibitors for those who do not respond to other drugs

57
Q

non meds for OCD

A

CBT (exposure and response prevention)

58
Q

meds for PTSD

A

Antidepressants, particularly SSRIs; clonidine

59
Q

non meds for PTSD

A

CBT (group therapy)

60
Q

obsessions

A

thoughts, impulses, or images that persist and recur, so that they can’t be dismissed from the mind

61
Q

compulsions

A

ritualistic behaviors an individual feels driven to perform in an attempt to reduce anxiety

62
Q

aversion therapy

A

application of a painful stimulus creates an aversion to the obsession that leads to compulsion

63
Q

thought stopping

A

helps pt break habit of fear-inducing anticipatory thoughts. First they say “stop” then concentrate on relaxing muscles and calming down

64
Q

thought switching

A

pt learns to replace negative thoughts with positive ones until they become strong enough to overcome anxiety-provoking ones

65
Q

flooding

A

involves frequent, full intensity exposure (imagery) to an object that triggers a symptom. Must be used with caution since it produces extreme comfort

66
Q

implosion therapy

A

desensitization, calls for repeated exposure to a highly feared object

67
Q

response prevention

A

using distraction, persuasion, or redirection of activity. May require hospitalization or family involvement to be effective

68
Q

caffeine

A

most widely used psychoactive substance in the world
can result in intoxication and withdrawal

69
Q

cannabis (marijuana)

A

most widely used illegal drug in the world
4th most commonly used psychoactive drug in the US after caffeine, alcohol, and nicotine
can be given for pts for pain relief or recreational

70
Q

hallucinogens

A

can cause a profound disturbance in reality
can be made with things at home
life-threatening depending on perception of reality

71
Q

inhalants

A

solvents for glue and adhesives
propellants
paint thinner
fuel

72
Q

opioids and 3 treatments

A

heroin and prescription drugs
pharm treatment: methadone, buprenorphine, and naltrexone

73
Q

stimulant use disorder, clinical picture

A

Amphetamine-type, cocaine, or other stimulant drugs (adderall, now ozempic)
Second only to cannabis as the most widely used illicit substances in the United States

74
Q

what is used for agitation and panic

A

diazepam (vitamin V=ativan) IM

75
Q

drugs to reduce symptoms of cocaine withdrawal

A

none

bupropion given for depression after withdrawal complete
can lead to suicide bc new reality

76
Q

opioid intoxication

A

cravings result in longer amounts, longer periods of use, increasing tolerance to its effects
Results in significant impairment in life roles, interpersonal conflict, and puts a person in physically hazardous situations
No longer give opioids mixed with tylenol (like percocet) = acute liver failure from acetaminophen toxicity

77
Q

opioid overdose

A

Death usually due to respiratory arrest
EVERYTHING IS SLOW
Three things to look out for: Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, in a coma

78
Q

treatment for opioid overdose

A

promote breathing; naloxone
Narcan (opioid antagonist)

79
Q

opioid withdrawal 4 meds

A

methadone (synthetic narcotic opioid), clonidine (antiHTN patch), buprenorphine/naloxone (opioid agonist)
lofexidine

80
Q

benzodiazepines (apams)
Short or long term? What to do if overdose

A

short term use, addictive, place NG tube before gastric lavage if overdose

81
Q

barbiturates
barbiturate-like hypnotics
benzodiazepines (what to do for OD and withdrawal)

A

overdose: gastric lavage
withdrawal: gradual reduction to prevent seizures

82
Q

ways to stop smoking

A

behavioral therapy (having a different plan in place of smoking)
hypnosis
nicotine replacement therapies (patches, gums)
bupropion or varenicline
Acupuncture

83
Q

meds for gambling disorder

A

SSRIs (prozac, lexapro)
bupropion (wellbutrin)
mood stabilizers (lithium)
anticonvulsants

84
Q

DSM-V for alcoholism

A

mild: 2-3 symptoms
moderate: 4-5
severe: 5+

85
Q

inhibitions in alcoholism

A

decreased (no filter/shyness)

86
Q

binge drinking

A

lots of drinking at once

87
Q

heavy drinking

A

chronic

88
Q

what does intoxication depend on

A

person
weight
drink

89
Q

characteristics of FAS

A

low nasal bridge
minor ear abnormalities
indistinct philtrum (upper lip)
micrognathia (small chin)
thin top lip
flat midface and short nose
short palpebral fissures
epicanthal folds

90
Q

who has higher risk of alcoholism

A

males 2x more likely
american indians/alaska natives

91
Q

comorbidities of alcoholism

A

bipolar disorders
schizophrenia
antisocial personality disorder
major depressive

92
Q

alcohol induced amnestic disorder

A

forgetting things bc of alcohol
wernicke’s encephalopathy
korsakoff syndrome
blackouts (more from binge than heavy drinking)

93
Q

wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

liver can’t break down ammonia, levels build up making them crazy
acute and reversible
gait, several ocular motility abnormalities
IV thiamine (vit B)

94
Q

korsakoff syndrome

A

recovery 20%
chronic

95
Q

systemic effects of alcoholism

A

peripheral neuropathy (treated with gabapentin and neurontin)
alcoholic myo/cardiomyopathy (enlarged heart from working too hard)
esophagitis, gastritis, pancreatitis
alcoholic hepatitis (can have even if not alcoholic)
cirrhosis of liver
leukopenia
thrombocytopenia

96
Q

alcoholism effect on lungs

A

greater chance of infection including TB

97
Q

sign of alcohol withdrawal and when it happens

A

jitters 6-8 hours after last drink
mild-moderate: increased vital signs
seizures after 12-24 hours
delirium tremors first 72 hours (DANGEROUS, autonomic hyperactivity, watch dehydration)

98
Q

protocol for alcohol withdrawal

A

CIWA

99
Q

reaction when antabuse taken with

A

disulfiram reaction

diaphoresis, palpitations, facial flushing, nausea, vertigo, hypotension, tachy, severe vomiting, neck pain, throbbing headache, confusion

100
Q

addiction

A

chronic medical condition

101
Q

intoxication

A

in the process of using a substance to excess

102
Q

tolerance

A

takes a higher dose to achieve the initial level of response

103
Q

withdrawal

A

symptoms that occur when a person stops using a substance

104
Q

how to get someone through addiction

A

be there for them but THEY GOTTA DO THINGS ON THEIR OWN

105
Q

SBIRT

A

screening, brief intervention, referral to treatment
comprehensive and integrated

106
Q

AUDIT

A

alcohol use disorders ID test
developed for WHO
self diagnose
8+ for male, 7+ for female

107
Q

CAGE

A

4 questions to identify alcohol abuse

Cutting down
Annoyance by criticism
Guilty feelings
Eye opener (do u drink first thing in the morning)

108
Q

gradual vs flooding

A

gradual: small to big
flooding: start most intense, continues until overcome. Pts can’t remove themselves, very quick and effective

109
Q

CBT

A

the situation doesn’t determine how we feel, our PERCEPTION of the situation does

110
Q

somatic symptom disorder

A

One or more distressing symptoms
Excessive thoughts, anxiety and behaviors around symptoms, or health concerns
Without significant PHYSICAL findings and medical diagnosis
Suffering is authentic
High level of functional impairment

111
Q

illness anxiety disorders

A

hypochondriacs
Misinterpretation of physical sensations
Preoccupation with having or acquiring serious illness for at least 6 months
High anxiety about health
Excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance
May be care-seeking or care-avoidant

112
Q

conversion disorder

A

Neurological symptoms in the absence of a neurological diagnosis
Presence of deficits in voluntary motor or sensory functions
Common symptoms—paralysis, blindness, movement and gait disorders, numbness, paresthesias, loss of vision or hearing, or episodes resembling epilepsy
Trouble ambulating
“La belle indifférence” versus distress

113
Q

depression puts you at risk for what

A

cardiovascular diseases
cancer

114
Q

SSD common in what ethnicities

A

greek and PR

115
Q

africa SSD (what do they do)

A

burn hands and feet
ants and worms on skin

116
Q

factitious disorder

A

Artificially, deliberately, and dramatically fabricate symptoms or self-inflict injury
Goal of assuming a sick role
Compulsivity

117
Q

malingering

A

Condition related to factitious disorders
Conscious fabrication of illness or exaggerating symptoms for secondary gain such as insurance fraud ($), prescription medication, avoidance of prison or military service
Hard to disprove
Subjective feelings, like pain
More common in men

118
Q

what is related to countertransference

A

frustrations

119
Q

what kind of assessment for SSDs

A

self assessment

120
Q

six key elements for effective treatment

A
  1. Provide continuity of care.
  2. Avoid unnecessary procedures.
  3. Provide frequent, brief, and regular visits.
  4. Always conduct a physical exam.
  5. Avoid disparaging comments.
  6. Set reasonable therapeutic goals.
121
Q

rationalization

A

People justify difficult or unacceptable feelings with seemingly logical reasons and explanations.

122
Q

projection

A

unconsciously taking unwanted emotions or traits you don’t like about yourself and attributing them to someone else. A common example is a cheating spouse who suspects their partner is being unfaithful

123
Q

repression

A

blocking undesirable ideas or impulses
ex. I can’t remember bad things from childhood and get nervous abt things that remind me of it

124
Q

avoidance

A

Dismissing thoughts or feelings that are uncomfortable or keeping away from people, places, or situations associated with uncomfortable thoughts or feelings
a teenager who has had the experience of being stuck in an elevator might later avoid elevators as a means of avoiding the anxiety associated with that experience