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BMS 260 Exam Review > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Muscle Classifications

A

Skeletal Muscle
Smooth Muscle
Cardiac Muscle

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2
Q

Myocyte

A

Muscle Cell

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3
Q

Sarcomere

A

Individual contractile unit in skeletal muscle

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4
Q

Sarcolemna

A

Plasma membrane of skeletal muscle cells

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5
Q

Myrofibrils

A

Give structure to muscle cells through thin actin filaments and thick myosin filaments

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6
Q

Epimysium

A

Connective tissue sheath that encases the entire muscle (skeletal)

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7
Q

Perinmysium

A

Surrounds muscle bundle (skeletal)

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8
Q

Endomysium

A

Surrounds myoctes (skeletal)

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9
Q

What is skeletal muscle in between?

A

2 Z lines

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10
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

smooth ER (skeletal)
stores calcium
stores glycogen

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11
Q

Capacity of mitochondria in skeletal muscle

A

Contains many mitochondria

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12
Q

Misconception about contraction of muscle

A

A common misconception is that muscle shortens when contracted

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13
Q

How does contraction occur (simply)?

A

Through the sliding of thick Myosin filaments and thin Actin filaments

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14
Q

What is the result of bases in contraction?

A

Shortens Distance of Z-lines and all bands except for the A band

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15
Q

Tropomyesin

A

blocks the binding cite on actin for myosin and inhibit interaction when relaxed

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16
Q

Properties of Myosin

A

2 Heavy Chains and 4 Light chains

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17
Q

Troponins

A

Part of Actin
Troponin C
Troponin I
Troponin T

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18
Q

Troponin C

A

binds calcium

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19
Q

Troponin I

A

Binds Actin

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20
Q

Troponin T

A

Tropomyesin

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21
Q

Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle

A

Low Cytoplasmic Ca
Myosin head is energized through ADP + Pi bound to the head

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22
Q

Cross Bridge Cycle Purpose

A

Contraction of muscle

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23
Q

Steps of Cross Bridge Cycle

A

1.) Low Ca
2.) Energized myosin head (ADP + Pi)
3.) Releases Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum(Goes from 10^-7 M to 10^-5 M)
4.) Ca binds to troponin C
5.) Open actin binding cites
6.) Myosin binds to actin
7.) ADP + Pi come off of myosin and allows for myosin to move
8.) ATP binds to myosin and allows for myosin to release from actin
9.) ATP goes back to ADP + Pi which then in turn renergizes myosin head

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24
Q

What triggers a new Cross Bridge Cycle

A

High amounts of Ca and the renewal of ATP in (ADP and Pi)

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25
Q

What receptor is part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and what is it responsible for?

A

The ryadine receptor is a calcium channel that connects to a neuromuscular junction

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26
Q

Motor Unit

A

Motor neuron and skeletal muscle fibers it innervates

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27
Q

Motor neuron rates of connection

A

1 motor neuron innervates many muscle fibers however one muscle fiber is innervated by only one motor neuron

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28
Q

Within a whole muscle are there many motor units or few?

A

many

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29
Q

What is a neuromusclular junction

A

Its the interaction between the skeletal muscle and axon terminus

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30
Q

Motor end plate

A

Region of post synaptic membrane

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31
Q

Whats the ratio of neuromuscular cell to neuromuscular junction?

A

1:1

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32
Q

Traverse tublues

A

Contains the DHP receptor

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33
Q

DHP receptor

A

Part of the neuromuscular junction of the transverse tubules and it is a volted gated calcium channel that is connected to the Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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34
Q

What do neuromuscular vesicles contain?

A

Acetyl Choline

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35
Q

What is the relationship between the relative refractory period and the pumping of calcium

A

The speed of pumping calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum is slower than the refractory period

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36
Q

What happens as soon as calcium is released

A

it’s pumped back to SR

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37
Q

What does smooth muscle not have in comparison to skeletal?

A

Transverse tubules
Troponins
neuromuscular junction

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38
Q

What does smooth muscle have instead of troponins

A

varicosities

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39
Q

What are the two types of smooth muscle?

A

Multi unit and single unit

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40
Q

Multi Unit Smooth Muscle Loc.

A

In walls of large arteries and upper large airways in lung

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41
Q

Single Unit Smooth Muscle(loc)

A

In digestive tract, in walls of uterus, contains gap junctions

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42
Q

What is spontaneous activity known as as part of a neurotransmitter in smooth muscle?

A

Myogenic activity

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43
Q

How does contraction in smooth muscle

A

its a calcium mediated event that comes out of cell and binds to calmodulm instead of troponin C

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44
Q

What does calmodulm activate?

A

Activates myosin light chain kinase

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45
Q

How does calcium enter axon terminals?

A

Through voltage gated calcium channels (DHP receptors)

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46
Q

What does calcium trigger the release of from axon terminals?

A

Acetyl Choline

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47
Q

Where does acetyl choline diffuse in muscle fiber?

A

From axon terminals to moter end plates

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48
Q

Where does acetyl choline bind to and what does this then allow?

A

It binds to nicotonic receptors on the motor end plate which then increases the permeability of sodium and potassium

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49
Q

Where does end plate action potential travel along?

A

T-Tubules

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50
Q

What’s the purpose of calcium binding to troponin on thin filaments?

A

Causes tropomyesin to move away from its blocking position and thereby help start the crossbridge cycle

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51
Q

How does the action potential across T-tubules induce travel of calcium

A

DHP receptors pull open and allow the release of Calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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52
Q

What form of energy is used for thick filaments to bind to actin?

A

ADP

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53
Q

What breaks down the linkages between myosin and actin?

A

ATP

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54
Q

What energies the myosin crossbridge

A

ATP –> ADP

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55
Q

What does the cycle of the cross bridge cycle induce?

A

The sliding of actin and myosin

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56
Q

Where does calcium go after the cross bridge cycle is complete?

A

The sarcoplasmic reticulum

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57
Q

What happens as soon as calcium is removed from troponin?

A

Restores the blocking action of tropomyesin on actin and allows muscle fibers to relax

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58
Q

Cardiomyocytes physical components

A

Involuntary striated muscle
More stellated
branches
fibrous cards

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59
Q

How many nuclei are present in cardiomyocytes?

A

1 or two nuclei

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60
Q

Whats very similar between cardiomyocytes and skeletal muscle

A

The cross bridge cycle

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61
Q

Cell to Cell grouping in cardiomyoctyes

A

contain gap junctions and are intercalated discs

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62
Q

What determines the rate of depolarization in cardiomyocytes?

A

Population of cells with most unstable resting potential

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63
Q

Describe the refactory period of cardiomyocytes

A

It’s protracted and causes obigatory relaxation of cardiac muscle

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64
Q

What does the excitation/depolarization of skeletal muscle or cardiomyocytes allow for?

A

The opening of T-tubules and Calcium channels

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65
Q

Pericardium Structure

A

Contains serous fluid
Parietal (Outer)
Visceral(Inner)

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66
Q

Myocardium

A

True Heart Muscle

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67
Q

Endocardium

A

Endothelial cells continuous with blood cells

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68
Q

Atria

A

Receive Venous Blood

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69
Q

Ventricles

A

Much Thicker walls
pump blood throughout body

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70
Q

Atrio-ventricular Left and Right differences

A

Right AV is tricuspid, Left is bicuspid

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71
Q

Chordae Tendinae

A

Anchor free margin of valve

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72
Q

Papillory

A

Anchors chordae tendinae

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73
Q

Semi-lunar (Heart) Left and Right

A

Trans-cuspid
Separate ventricles and arteries
Right: Right ventricle and pulmonary artery
Left: Left ventricle and aorta

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74
Q

Sinoatrial node

A

Pacemaker (Responsible for heartbeat)

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75
Q

Atrioventricular Node

A

Promotes healthy conduction pathways in heart

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76
Q

Bundle of HIS

A

Branches from antrioventricular node
branches from left and right bundles

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77
Q

Purkenji Fibers

A

conduct electrical stimulus

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78
Q

SA node stabilization

A

acetyl choline via muscarnic receptors which then stabilizes the node

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79
Q

Norepenephrine via adrenergic receptors

A

increases contraction

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80
Q

Pathway of Circulation

A

Vena cava –> RA –> Tricuspid Valve –> RV –> Pulmonary Valve –> Pulmonary A –> Lungs –> Pulmonary Veins –> LA –> Mitral Valve –> LV –> Aortic Valve –> Aorta

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81
Q

Diastole

A

Ventricles are relaxed, fills blood

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82
Q

Systole

A

Ventricles are contracted, pushes out blood

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83
Q

Lubb

A

Closure of Atrioventricular valves (tricuspid/bicuspid)

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84
Q

Dupp

A

Closure of Semilunar valves (Aortic/pulmonary)

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85
Q

Types of Murmurs

A

Stenosis and Insufficieny

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86
Q

Stenosis

A

The valve is stiff, doesn’t totally open, in diastole its heard in the atrioventricular, during semilunar its systolic

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87
Q

Insufficiency

A

Not closing completely, back flow, AV = systolic, semilunar = diastolic

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88
Q

What changes in the heart during a contraction cycle

A

Pressure and Volume

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89
Q

What does cardiac output = to

A

Heart Rate * Stroke Volume

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90
Q

What’s normally the ratio of increasing heart rate or stroke volume?

A

Both will increase when increasing one

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91
Q

Steps of Regulation for the heart

A

Increase in atrial pressure –> Baroreceptors –> Afferent nerve endings –> medulla–> efferent nerve endings –> Heart

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92
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Sensory nerve endings, detects increase in pressure. Is felt through carotid sims and the left aorta that goes to the brain

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93
Q

Cardioinhibitory Center

A

In the medulla, Vagal output to SA node, reduces cardiac output

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94
Q

Vasomotor

A

In the medulla, increases cardiac output through speeding up the tachycardia with epinephrine

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95
Q

Starlings law of the heart

A

Strength of contraction during systole is proportional to ventricular distension at the end of the diastole

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96
Q

What neurotransmitters increase and decrease HR

A

Norep. inc.
Acetyl Choline dec.

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97
Q

What will happen if you increases the sympathetic output of norep

A

Increases the strength of contraction which will then increase stroke volume

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98
Q

Properties of Major Arteries

A

Fibrolastic Walls
Allows stretch and recoil
Less Neural Control

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99
Q

Arterioles Properities

A

Tunic Media
Less Stretch and Recoil
Sympathetic Output

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100
Q

Tunic Media

A

Smooth muscle layer in Arterioles

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101
Q

Sympathetic Output in Arterioles

A

Causes waves of constriction (made of endothelial cells)

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102
Q

Is blood pressure greater or lesser in the pulmonary in comparison to systemic?

A

Pulmonary Pressure is less than systemic circulation

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103
Q

In response to pulsation contraction of the heart:

A

Pulses of pressure move throughout the vasculature, decreasing in amplitutde with distance.

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104
Q

Tonic wave of constriction

A

A tone provided to constricted or non constricted valves

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105
Q

Major drop in systemic blood pressure occurs in ….

A

arteries

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106
Q

What regulates downstream pressures and flow rates?

A

Dynamic changes in vasodilation and vasoconstriction

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107
Q

Capillaries Properties

A

Lack smooth muscle

precapillary sphincters/shunts determine volume of blood capillaries receive

108
Q

As cross sectional area increases what decreases?

A

velocity

109
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

Increases blood pressure

110
Q

vasodilation

A

decreases blood pressure with the widening of blood vessles

111
Q

How do arterioles correlate with constriction and dialation?

A

With constriction, blood pressure decreases and is slightly reduced with dialation.

112
Q

Starlings Law of Filtration: Forces favoring filtration

A

Hydrostatic Blood Pressure

Collolial/osmotic pressure of tissue

113
Q

Starlings Law of Filtration: Forces opposing filtration

A

Colloidial/ osmotic pressure of blood

hydrostatic pressure in tissue

114
Q

Veins/Venuoles Properties

A

Some Smooth muscle

some sympathetic N.S. control that’s much less than arterioles

115
Q

Whats in veins walls

A

valves and flaps

116
Q

What percent of blood is in the venous system

A

60%

117
Q

What components lead to an increase of blood pushed back to the heart

A

Skeletal muscle tone

Abdominal Pump

Thoracic Pump

118
Q

What changes blood pressure in the venous system?

A

Abdominal Pump and Thoracic Pump

119
Q

What does vessel diameter determine?

A

Constriction increases pressure/resistance

120
Q

What does strength of heart contraction determine

A

higher pressure

121
Q

What does the Vessel length determine

A

longer the greater the resistance

122
Q

Degree of branching, what changes when degree changes

A

decreases velocity and pressure

123
Q

Blood visocisty

A

Resistance of fluids, higher viscosity means thicker blood

124
Q

Baroreceptors signals to

A

carotid sinus
aoritic arch
left and right atria
left ventricle

125
Q

Components of neural control

A

vasomoter center and cardioinhibitory

126
Q

What is the neural control center mediated by

A

medulla

127
Q

What ahppens when the sympathetic system is inhibited

A

parasympathetic is excited

128
Q

This is produced by endothelial cells and nerve cells and is used as a vasodilator

A

Nitric Oxide

129
Q

Vasopressin

A

An anti-diaharettic and vasoconstrictor

130
Q

Anigotensin 2

A

circiulatory vasoconstrictor

131
Q

Hemorrhages

A

cause decrease in arterial pressure

132
Q

How do you fix hemorrhages

A

By increasing sympathetic output which my decrease P.S. output

133
Q

Relationship between blood volume pressure and urine

A

as blood volume pressure goes down urinary loss increases

134
Q

What’s in plasma?

A

Water
Ions
Proteins
Nutrients
Hormones
Wastes

135
Q

What is a Hematocrit

A

Assess Red blood cell percentage in a given sample

136
Q

Formed elements in blood

A

Euthrocytes(RBC)
Leukocytes(WBC)
Platelets

137
Q

What are red blood cells also known as?

A

Euthrocytes

138
Q

What are white blood cells also known as?

A

Leukocytes

139
Q

How is O2 restored in the kidneys?

A

Through secretion of erythropoietin

140
Q

Kinds of Leukocytes, and their percent appearance

A

Neutrophils (50%)
Eosinophils (1-4%)
Basophils(.1-.3%)

141
Q

Where are formed elements formed?

A

Bone Marrow

142
Q

Initial sympathetic output to cause vasoconstriction

A

Myogenic activity of smooth muscle

143
Q

What does myogenic mean

A

can contract on its own

144
Q

How long does the inital sympathetic output to cause vasoconstriction last?

A

20 minutes

145
Q

The initial sympathetic output to cause vasoconstriction allows for what formation?

A

Platelet plug formation

146
Q

What can plaetelets stick to?

A

exposed collagen fibers

147
Q

Why does platelets secret ADP

A

to make platelets more stick

148
Q

why do platelets secrete thromboxane A2

A

to transform more platelets

149
Q

Why do platelets secrete serotonin?

A

To make platelets more sitcky

150
Q

What is platelet factor 3?

A

It’s secreted by platelets and is involved in the clotting process

151
Q

What 3 items are responsible for clot formation

A

thromboplastin, platelet factor 3 and calcium

152
Q

What do clot formation items combine to form

A

prothrombin activator

153
Q

Prothrombin

A

Plasma Protein

154
Q

What is required to make prothrombin in liver

A

vitamin K

155
Q

What does thrombin clear to form fibrin

A

fibrinogen

156
Q

Threads of fibrin

A

will form loose clot

157
Q

What does factor 13a do?

A

Cross-links fibrin threads to form firm clot

158
Q

What does plasminogen do?

A

Formas PLasmin and breaks down fibrin

159
Q

How do you fix hemorrhages

A

By increasing sympathetic output which may decrease P.S. output

160
Q

Plasmin Inhibitors

A

Try to combat plasmin so it doesnt break down fibrin as fast

161
Q

What kind of cells are lymphatic capillaries composed of?

A

Epithelial

162
Q

How are lymphatic capillaries able to move around substances that normal capillaries could not?

A

By being packed less tightly

163
Q

What structural component of lymphatic capillaries cause substances to go towards the cardiovascular system

A

Being “blind” at one end

164
Q

What vein is in the right lymphatic duct?

A

Right Subclavien Vein

165
Q

What vein is in the Thoracic Duct Left

A

Subclavian Vein

166
Q

Function of the central lacteal

A

drain digestive system

167
Q

Where is heumoral immunity present in

A

antibodies

168
Q

Where do antibodies act as receptors

A

on cell surface

169
Q

Lymph node components (2)

A

Macrophages and lympocytes

170
Q

Immunogloblin

A

proteins that function as antibodies

171
Q

How do lymphocytes become a T Cell or a B cell

A

through the bone marrow

172
Q

T-Cells play in the immune system

A

Binds to cells or virus and tries to kill it

173
Q

How do B cell play out in immune system

A

By becoming plasma cells when activated by antigens they produce antibodies

174
Q

Helper t cell recpetors

A

interleukins
interferons
inner necrosis factor

175
Q

What do helper t cells activated

A

B cells and the cytotoxic component on t cells

176
Q

How are T cells helpers activated

A

by class 2 histocomabatability complex

177
Q

What kind of cells can B cells be?

A

Plasma cells and memory cells

178
Q

What kind of cells can B cells be?

A

Plasma cells and memory cells

179
Q

Function of respiratory system

A

Provide Oxygen
Eliminate CO2
Regulates pH in relation to kidneys
Speech
Defends against microbes
dissolves blood clots in systemic veins
Influences artrial concentrations of chemical messengers

180
Q

What are the two kinds of respiration

A

Internal and External

181
Q

Function of external respiration

A

Moves O2 from lungs to blood and moves O2 from blood to tissues along with CO2 from cells into blood

182
Q

What is considered the active form of breathing

A

Inspiration

183
Q

How is maximal inspiration achieved?

A

Through external intercostals and the usage of muscles connected to the head and neck

184
Q

Air passage pathway

A

Trachea–> Bronchi –> Bronchioles –> Terminal Bronchioles –> Respiratory Bronchioles –> Alveolar ducts –> alveolar sacs

185
Q

What are the two zones in a lung?

A

Conducting and respiratory

186
Q

Where is the intrepleural fluid

A

between the throacic wall and lung

187
Q

What does the fluid inside and outside the pleural cavity function as?

A

Lubricant to reduce friction

188
Q

Where is the parietal portion in the respiratory system

A

lining the thoracic wall

189
Q

What does the visceral portion line in the respiratory system

A

Lungs

190
Q

What is the charge of pressure in the pleural cavity relative to the atmospheric

A

It’s negative

191
Q

During expiration what is the reduction of mercury?

A

-3 mm Hg

192
Q

During quiet inspiration what is the reduction of mercury?

A

-10 mm Hg

193
Q

During maximal inspiration what is the reduction of mercury?

A

-33 mm Hg

194
Q

When does the thorax expand?

A

During inspiration

195
Q

What happens after the lungs expand in inspiration?

A

Air in alveolar becomes compressed and alvelic pressure becomes greater than atmospheric

196
Q

What is the number of alveolis proportional to?

A

metabolic rate

197
Q

What is considered to be the passive form of breathing?

A

Expiration

198
Q

When does maximal expiration occur?

A

During intercoastels

199
Q

What happens when the chest wall recoils inward during expiration

A

Transpulmonary pressure moves back towards preinspiration value

200
Q

When is the air in alveolis compressed

A

during expiration and after the recoil of lungs

201
Q

What is the most abundant pnemocyte?

A

Type 1

202
Q

What are type 1 pnemocytes

A

epithelial cells lining air facing surfaces

203
Q

What are type 2 pnemocytes

A

THey are producers of surfactant

204
Q

What is surfactant

A

A detergent like substance that prevents air sacs from collapsing

205
Q

what would you provide to someone with respiratory distress syndrome

A

synthetic surfactant

206
Q

What is k in the gas exchange equation

A

diffusibility constant

207
Q

What happens to K as the surface area increases?

A

K increases

208
Q

What happens to k as the thickness of diffusion barrier increases

A

K decreases

209
Q

Pressure differential

A

The difference between circulating O2 and O2 going into blood and the difference between CO2 ciruclating and the CO2 leaving the blood

210
Q

Ideally what would you want your PO2 to look like?

A

High range of O2

211
Q

How is oxygen transported through the blood?

A

Hemoglobin

212
Q

How many globins are there

A

4

213
Q

what subsets are the 4 globins split in

A

2 alpha 2 beta

214
Q

How many molecules of O2 can each hemoglobin carry?

A

4

215
Q

How is the affinity of hemoglobin decreased?

A

Increased pH
Increased CO2
Increased temperature
Increased DPG concentration

216
Q

How does hemoglobin bind to oxygen

A

through Fe^2+

217
Q

What is Vital Capacity

A

Maximal inspiration + maximal expiration

218
Q

What does Tidal Volume include

A

Inspiratory Reserve volume and expiratory reserve volume

219
Q

Residual Volume

A

Air left over after maximal expiration

220
Q

What is the primary controller for breathing?

A

Medulla

221
Q

What are the two respiratory centers in the medulla

A

Inspiratory and expiratory centers

222
Q

Phrenic Nerve(C2-C3)

A

They are spinal motor fibers that go to diaphragm

223
Q

Where can spinal motor fibers branches go to

A

external intercostals

224
Q

Function of lung stretch receptors

A

inhibition of phrenic nerve output in inspiratory for relaxation

225
Q

What causes a stimulation for inspiration

A

Decreased PO2 increased pH or increased CO2

226
Q

Erythropoeitin function

A

stimulation of red blood cell production

227
Q

Gluconeurogenesis

A

generation of glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors

228
Q

What hormones does the kidneys produce

A

erythropoeitin, renin and 125 Vitamin D

229
Q

What does Vitamin D do in the kidneys

A

calcium balance

230
Q

Function of renin

A

influences blood pressure and sodium

231
Q

Basic renal functions

A

regulates water, removes metabolic wastes from blood and foreign chemicals that is then later excreted into urine

232
Q

Where is transitional epithelium?

A

In the bladder, it helps with the expansion and contraction of the bladder

233
Q

synonym for micturition

A

urination

234
Q

What inhibits micturition in the bladder

A

smooth muscles sphincter

235
Q

Is the bladder PNS or CNS

A

PNS

236
Q

Apperance of renal cortex

A

granular

237
Q

apperance of renal medulla

A

striated

238
Q

function of renal pelvis

A

where urine is collected

239
Q

What is a nephron

A

The functional unit of the kidney

240
Q

What are the two types of nephrons?

A

Cortical and Juxtomedallory

241
Q

Where does the initial filtration occur in the kidneys

A

Renal Corpuscle

242
Q

Where is the gilomerculas?

A

In the kidneys

243
Q

Gilomerulas function

A

Capilllary bed with afferent and efferent arterioles

244
Q

What two componenets are in the renal corpuscle

A

Bowmans capsule and Giomerulas

245
Q

Where in the kidneys is the bowmans capsule

A

They overlay glomerular capilaries

246
Q

what do the slits on bowmans capusle allow for

A

filtration of blood from gilomerular

247
Q

What main component is inside the Distal Conulted Tube

A

The Macula Densa

248
Q

Function of Macula Densa

A

To sense osumularity of the tubule fluid

249
Q

Juxtaglomecular Cells Function

A

Secrete renin

250
Q

Renin function

A

In renal system, it cleans angiotensionogen into angiotensionogen 1

251
Q

Drop in afferent arterial pressure or low plasma Na triggers what?

A

Triggers the mascula Densa due to low osmolarity and juxtoglomecular cells

252
Q

Steps before micturition

A

Glomerular filtration
Tubular secretion
Tubular reabsorption

253
Q

What favors glomerular capillary filtration?

A

Glomerular capillary blood pressure

254
Q

What opposes glomerular capillary filtration

A

Fluid pressure in bowman’s space and osmotic force from protein in plasma

255
Q

What is the colloidal pressure in bowman’s capsule

A

0 mm Hg

256
Q

Reabsorption rates greatest to least

A

Glucose > Water > Na > Urea

257
Q

What is mainly responsible for reabsorption?

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

258
Q

How is glucose reabsorbed?

A

Through secondary active transport of SGLT2 as part of Na cotransport

259
Q

What component in the brain stimulates calcium reabsorption

A

Parathyroid

260
Q

What is the main anti-diuretic hormone?

A

Vasopressin

261
Q

What percentage of water reabsorption occurs in collecting ducts?

A

Less than 15 percent

262
Q

What is the primary driver of aldosterone secretion

A

Potassium concentration in blood

263
Q

Atrial Naturietic Peptide (ANP)

A

Inhibits aldosterone

264
Q

What happens when you inhibit aldosterone

A

Inhibits reabsorption of Na

265
Q

Why is it important to excrete Na for high blood pressure?

A

To excrete water along with the Na

BMS 260 Exam Review (2 decks)

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