Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DCC: BIO 232 Lecture > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are the deviations from normal mean arterial pressure?

A

Less than normal:
Systolic/Diastolic 90/60 or less = hypotension: inadequate blood flow to tissues
More than normal:
140/90+ = hypertension: stresses cardiovascular system (chambers and vessels) increasing the risk of aneurism and breaking blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) proportional to?

A

Cardiac output (CO) and Total peripheral resistance (TPR)
CO: amount of blood pumped from a ventricle in a minute (SV x HR)
TPR: resistance to flow in arterioles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does cardiac output affect mean arterial pressure?

A

Increasing the cardiac output increases the amount of volume into the arteries this increases the MAP because blood fills the artery faster than it can get out,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is total peripheral resistance variable and how does it affect mean arterial pressure?

A

Variable because arterioles have a lot of smooth muscle for vasoconstriction/dialation
Increased TPR means that the arterioles are constricted decreasing the space in them blood backs up into the arteries increasing MAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does the nervous system respond to high blood pressure? What is this called?

A

Baroreceptor reflex:
1) high blood pressure
2) arteries stretched more than normal
3) baroreceptors, stretch receptors in the carotid artery and aorta, are activated
4) sensory neurons are stimulated
5) stimulates cardiovascular control center of the medulla (cardioinhibitory)
6) excite parasympathetic neurons in CN X, vagus nerve
7) Stimulate the heart through the SA & AV nodes hyperpolarizing them with ACh
8) decreases heart rate because the cells do not signal as fast
9) decreases cardiac output decreasing the blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the nervous system respond to low blood pressure? What is this called?

A

Baroreceptor reflex:
1) low blood pressure
2) arteries stretched low than normal
3) baroreceptors, stretch receptors in the carotid artery and aorta, are activated
4) sensory neurons are stimulated
5) stimulates cardiovascular control center of the medulla (cardioexcitatory)
6) excite sympathetic neurons in spinal cord –> sympathetic chain ganglia
7) Stimulate the SA, AV, ventricles, arterioles and veins
8) SA AV increases heart rate b/c cells signal faster
ventricles: increase stroke volume
arterioles & veins: vasoconstrict
9) increased Cardiac output, increased total peripheral resistance, increased venous return (increasing stroke volume, increasing CO) increasing blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three aspects of the lymphatic system?

A

Lymphatic vessels: run parallel to veins and arteries
Lymphoid tissue & organs: stroma- abundant reticular CT in lymphatic tissue & organs, involved in removing damaged cells and debris, get nutrients, immune response
Lymph: fluid CT, comes from interstitial fluid (between cells) when it enters L. vessel called lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A

1) bring fluid back into circulation from interstitial spaces preventing edema (from fluid build up b/c cancerous cell blockages, parasitic infections “elephantiasis”
2) Absorb digested fat: in intestinal mucosa lymph capillaries called lacteals b/c have milky appearance because contain lots of fat
3) Cleanse lymph and fight infection
-macrophages and lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are lymphatic capillaries found?

A

In the same areas we find cardiovascular capillaries. In almost all cells in the body except the skeletal system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What makes lymphatic capillaries so different than other capillaries and what do they absorb?

A

Lymph capillaries are much more permeable due to endothelial flaps (flaps in between cells) allowing large molecules to pass through
Absorb: cells pathogens (things that cause infection), cancer cells, proteins, chylomicrons (fat-containing particles)
Why lymph nodes are checked for cancer. Cancer cells get into lymphatic vessels and collect in the nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are lymphatic vessels similar and different to cardiovascular vessels?

A

They both have the same three tunics and similar composition of the tunics. Both large versions of these vessels get nutrients from vasa vasorum.
Lymphatic vessels have thinner walls with more internal valves because nothing is giving it pressure to flow. They are also more interconnected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where are lymphatic vessels found?

A

Collecting vessels in the skin travel with superficial veins.
Deep vessels travel with the arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is special about the right and left lymphatic vessels?

A

They are not symmetrical.
Right lymphatic duct drains right thoracic, arm, and head regions into the right subclavian vein.
Thoracic duct drains the left head, arm, and thoracic regions as well as the legs, abdominal and pelvic regions into the left subclavian vein.
this is how interstitial fluid is brought back into circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is lymph moved?

A

There is no pump so lymph uses:
1) muscular pump and pulsations of nearby arteries
2) Respiratory pump
3) Contractions of smooth muscle in the walls of lymphatic vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the lymphoid cells?

A

Macrophages: engulf worn-out cells, cell debris, sometimes while wandering encounters something, phagocatizes it then warns the T-cell that something is up
Lymphocytes: involved in immune response, protects body against cells expressing non-native antigens (other organisms have antigens)
T cells, Natural Killer cells, b cells, plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do T cells do?

A

Start immune response, activated by weird cells (these are the cells destroyed by HIV).
immune response cannot start without T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do Natural Killer cells do?

A

innate immune system: wander and kill what does not have MHC I antigen
-all body cells with nuclei have MHC I
-cancer cells, foreign cells, & cells with a viral infection do not have MHC I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do B cells do?

A

Start the antibody production by producing plasma cells that pump out tons of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the primary and secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Primary:
bone marrow
thymus: lymphocyte maturation
Secondary:
lymph nodes, spleen, MALT, and GALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the bone marrow do for the lymphatic system?

A

It produces blood cells including lymphocytes, particularly B-cells & T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What role does the thymus play in the lymphatic system?

A

Most active in the neonatal to pre-adolescent period the thymus allows the T cells to mature and become immunocompetent (able to recognize non-self antigens) and self tolerant (does not attack normal body antigens)
Thymus slowly atrophies after puberty and is replaced with fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the lymph nodes?

A

Lymph nodes are hundreds of balls of lymphoid cells and proteins that cluster along a lymph vessel each with a size of a few millimeters to 1-2 cm. They can be felt where they are highly concentrated (armpit, groin, neck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What role do lymph nodes play in the lymphatic system?

A

Lymph nodes use macrophages to filter out and destroy microorganisms and debris in the lymph.
They also activate the immune system by monitoring for antigens and notifying T-cells to mount an attack against them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the spleen and what is its structure?

A

It is the largest lymphoid organ. In the spleen the strong fibrous capsule is missing (unlike other lymphoid organs). It has lymphocytes and macrophages and has two areas: white pulp and red pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What role does the spleen play in the lymphatic system?

A
  1. Lymphocytes: this is where some B cells hand out for the immune system
  2. Blood cleansing: macrophages remove old erythrocytes, platelets, and debris in the blood
  3. Erythrocyte and Hb breakdown and iron storage
  4. Platelet and RBC storage
  5. Fetal erythrocyte production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is MALT and what is its role in the lymphatic system?

A

Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue
Functions to protect the digestive and respiratory systems
Examples: tonsils, Peyer’s patches, the appendix, and lymphoid nodules in the walls of the bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the tonsils and what are their role in the lymphatic system?

A

Tubal (medial top), adenoid (center top), palantine (lateral), lingual (under tongue)
Functions to form a ring of lymphoid tissue around the pharynx to trap pathogens from the air and food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is GALT and what is its role in the immune system?

A

gastrointestinal-associated lymphatic tissue
Peyer’s patches and appendix function to destroy bacteria, preventing them from breaching the intestinal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

Peyer’s patches: isolated clusters of lymphoid tissue similar to tonsils found in the wall of the distal portion of the small intestine (ileum) similar to structures found in appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the function of the immune system and what are the two divisions?

A

Functions to distinguish between self and non-self and then destroyed non-self.
Innate immune response and adaptive/acquired immune response
these divisions are intertwined and are not completely separate responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the general aspects of the innate immune response?

A

Non-specific (general), fast, short terms, present from birth, centers around inflammation, uses the same strategies no matter what it is fighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the general aspects of the acquired immune response?

A

Specific, slow (but powerful, this is how you get over something), long-term: it keeps a memory of pathogens (so it is built over time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the surface barriers of the immune system?

A

Physical and chemical barriers of the cutaneous and mucous membranes provide a barrier to most microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the chemical barriers of cutaneous and mucous membranes?

A

Acid: acidity of skin, stomach acid, urinary tract & vagina inhibits the growth of microorganisms
Enzymes: in saliva, respiratory mucus, and lacrimal fluid (tears) kill some microorganisms
Mucin: Sticky mucus that lines digestive and respiratory tract traps microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the physical barriers of cutaneous and mucous membranes?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium produces physical barrier to abrasion and infection
Nose-hairs trap inhaled particles
Cilia of respiratory tract sweeps mucus containing microorganisms away from lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When is the innate immune system needed and what does it use?

A

Necessary if microorganisms invade deeper tissue: uses inflammatory response, fever, phagocytes, natural killer (NK) cells, and antimicrobial proteins (interferons and complete proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What causes inflammation?

A

Chemical messengers called inflammatory cytokines–a term that can include local and distant control, but it associated with the immune system. Cytokines are released by any time of cell for different purposes. Released by tissue damage and as a response to pathogens
(cause vasodilation of local arterioles, make capillaries leaky, and attract phagocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the purpose of inflammation?

A

To create a barrier to prevent the spread of a pathogen/ damaging agent, to bring in WBCs, disposes of cell debris and pathogens, alerts adaptive immune system, and sets the stage for repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the signs of inflammation and what causes these signs?

A

Redness, heat, swelling, and pain
Cytokines cause vasodilation to bring in WBC and provide a barrier (redness & heat)
& cause leaky capillaries by increasing the spaces between endothelial cells to allow fluid, blood cells and proteins to leak out. WBC after diapedesis follow chemotoxins to site (chemotaxis). The leakage of antibodies and cytokines lead to a decrease in osmotic pressure causing swelling and then pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a fever?

A

An abnormally high body temperature. a systemic (whole body) response to invading microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes a fever?

A

Specific cytokine called pyrogen secreted by leukocytes & macrophages when they are exposed to a foreign substance.
When released into the bloodstream pyrogens travel to the hypothalamus (temperature regulation center) and resets the set point from ~98.7 to 102

42
Q

What are the benefits of a fever?

A

Increases the functioning of some immune cells
decreases the functioning of the pathogen
causes liver and spleen to sequester iron and zinc (needed by microorganisms) increases metabolic rate (increases the rate of repair)

43
Q

What are the potential costs of a fever?

A

A fever above 106 leads to brain damage (and you just don’t feel good)

44
Q

Which immune response are phagocytes part of, what are they, what do they do, and what are the different types?

A

The innate response. Cells that are involved in phagocytosis: they engulf pathogens and cell debris. Neutrophils, macrophages, and dendritic cell.

45
Q

How are neutrophils involved in phagocytosis?

A

Neutrophils are the most abundant phagocyte, they become phagocytic on exposure and die fighting. Neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.

46
Q

What are macrophages and how are they involved in phagocytosis?

A

Macrophages are specialized monocytes. They are the chief phagocytic cell and the most robust (b/c they’re dedicated) phagocytic cell. Macrophages locate infection through chemotaxis, they follow the trail because they must be right on scene to be effective.

47
Q

How are dendritic cells involved in phagocytosis?

A

Dendritic cells are found in body tissues such as the epidermis and not in the blood stream. They can alert other immune cells to the presence of a pathogen. Due to their location in the body dendritic cells may be the first to contact a pathogen.

48
Q

What is phagocytosis and what are the steps?

A

Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis.
1) Recognize and sticks to pathogen’s antigens
2) Cytoplasmic extensions–pseudopods– extend around the pathogen until it is completely enclosed in a vesicle called a phagosome “eat” “body”
3) The phagosome fuses with a lysosome “cut/break” forming a phago-lysosome that will expose the bacteria to digestive enzymes and destroy it
4) Phgolysosome is acidified and the lysosomal enzymes digest the particles
5) All indigestible and residual waste is released via exocytosis.

49
Q

What is MHC?

A

Major Histological Complex is a protein displayed by all nucleate cells. There are two types.

50
Q

What are NK cells and what is there role in the immune response?

A

Natural Killer cells play a role in innate immunity.
They are non-phagocytotic large lymphocytes that patrol the blood and lymph.
Function: destroy cancer and virus-infected cells before the adaptive immune response is activated. It attacks cells that lack MHC I by secreting a chemical that causes apoptosis (programmed cell death) and by punching holes in cell membranes.

51
Q

What is the complement cascade?

A

~25 blood proteins that circulate inactivated until they are activated by antibodies or chemicals on pathogens similar to the coagulation cascade except for the fact that the goal of this cascade is to create a response that will kill a pathogen.

52
Q

What is the result of activating the proteins in the complement cascade?

A

Trigger inflammation, produces opsonins that stimulate phagocytosis of a pathogen and generate MAC: membrane attack complex that rupture the pathogens membrane (like NK hole punching)
Enhancing the adaptive (by increasing chemotaxis for T-cells to promote antibody production) and innate immune responses

53
Q

What are the characteristics of adaptive immunity and what are the two main branches?

A

Specific: recognizes & targets specific antigens
Memory: mounts and even stronger attack to “known” antigens during second and subsequent exposures
Slow: requires time to be set up
Two main branches:
1) Humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity [in plasma and involves chemicals]
2) Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity

54
Q

What are the cells of the acquired immune response?

A

B lymphocytes (B Cells), T lymphocytes (T Cells), and Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs)

55
Q

What do B Cells do for acquired immunity?

A

B cells never directly attack. They stay in the lymphatic system and do not wander. They help to produce humoral immunity as they produce antibodies on a large scale

56
Q

What do T Cells do for acquired immunity?

A

T cells are involved in cellular immunity. They directly attack pathogens as they wander around.

57
Q

What are APCs and what do they do for acquired immunity?

A

Antigen-presenting cells. Cells, both dendritic and macrophages, that present antigens on MHC II membrane protein platforms alerting T cells to the presence of a pathogen.
These cells really move around and are likely to be the first to encounter a pathogen.

58
Q

Where does T cell maturation occur and what are the steps?

A

T cell maturation occurs in the thymus. A positive and negative selection. T cells must be able to find to MHC and to the pathogen antigen to initiate immune response. T cells are sensitive to a specific antigen.
Positive selection: Immunocompetent: T-cells must recognize MHC
Negative selection: self tolerant: T-cells must not bind to self antigens
Fail a selection? Apoptosis
Only 2% of T cells pass and are released into circulation and lymphatic organs. At first they are naive (not activated)

59
Q

Where does B cell maturation occur and what are the steps?

A

B cells mature in the bone marrow. Each cell expresses a different type of antibody that is embedded in plasma membrane (looks like Y antigen).
Cells must become self-tolerant: antibodies must not bind to self antigens (negative selection) Fail: apoptosis
Pass: released into circulation and congregate in lymphatic organ. At first Naive (not activated)

60
Q

What are the steps of the primary response of humoral immunity?

A

1) Naive B cell is presented with an antigen
2) If the antigen matches the B cell’s antibody the B cell engulfs the pathogen
3) The cell expresses the pathogen antigen on MHC II
4) Helper T cell is activated by the same antigen and seeks out the B cell and binds to it activating it (Tells it that antigen is bad)
5) The activated B cell proliferates (mitosis) making many clones
6) Most of the clones will become plasma cells that will generate thousands of antibodies
7) The rest of the clones will become memory cells that will remember being exposed and will cause a faster response if the body is reexposed to the pathogens

61
Q

What are the steps of the secondary response of humoral immunity?

A

(This may be years after first exposure)
1) Memory B cell binds with pathogen antigen activating the B cell
2) Activated B cell makes clones
3) Nearly all the clones become plasma cells more plasma cells are produced in this response
4) Thousands of antibodies are made more
5) Some activated B cells will become memory cells

62
Q

What are the differences between the primary and secondary responses of humoral immunity?

A

Primary:
time- 3-6 days before any antibodies are made, antibody levels peaks around 10 days and then declines
Secondary: (faster & more antibodies)
Time: hours before antibodies production
Peak: 2-3 days and at much higher levels
Antibodies: bind with greater affinity (they stick better) and levels remain high for weeks to months (the decline is not as sharp)

63
Q

What do vaccines do?

A

Vaccines mimic primary infection so the body produces the secondary response if it is exposed to the pathogen.
Some vaccines must be repeated because memory cells are not immortal

64
Q

What is active humoral immunity and what are the two types?

A

Your B cells make antibodies
1) Naturally acquired: you were exposed to the pathogen
2) Artificially acquired: you were given a vaccine (dead or attenuated pathogen or pathogen antigen (mRNA))

65
Q

What does an mRNA vaccine do?

A

mRNA is a recipe for 1 protein (in the case of a vaccine this is one pathogen antigen). Ribosomes read the mRNA and makes the antigen which is then expressed on the cell surface.

66
Q

What is passive humoral immunity and what are the two types?

A

Your B cells did not make the antibodies
1) Naturally acquired: from mother to baby (placenta or breast milk)
2) Artificially acquired: injection of exogenous (made outside of body) antigens. (made synthetically in a lab or made in another organism)
*Protection is immediate but antibodies will degrade over time

67
Q

What does the cellular immunity activate?

A

Humoral and cellular because it activates both types of T-cells.

68
Q

How is a T cell activated in cellular immunity?

A

APC presents an antigen on a MHC-II to Naive T cell that binds to the MHC II & antigen. Some naive T cells become Helper T cells while some will become Cytotoxic Killer T cells

69
Q

What do Helper T Cells do?

A

Helper T cells activate B cells in the humoral immunity and work with dendritic cells to stimulate some activated T cells to form Cytotoxic Killer T cells

70
Q

What do Cytotoxic Killer T cells do?

A

Cytotoxic Killer T cells seek out body cells presenting abnormal antigens on MHC-I and stimulates the cell to undergo apoptosis.

71
Q

What is the function of the respiratory system?

A

Gas exchange:
Conditioning of Air
Speech
Olfaction
Protection

72
Q

Why does the body need gas exchange?

A

O2 in (for mitochondria for ATP production) & CO2 out (byproduct from pyruvic acid in Krebs cycle in mitochondria)

73
Q

Why does the body need to condition air?

A

Cold/dry dries out mucus membranes so respiratory system warms and humidifies air to make gas exchange process better

74
Q

How does the respiratory system protect the body?

A

The respiratory system is lines with mucus membranes that trap or attack and destroy infectious agents.

75
Q

How does the respiratory system allow for speech and olfaction?

A

Speech (vocal cords in larynx)
Olfaction (Top of nasal cavity containing olfactory bipolar neurons)

76
Q

What is the job and the structures of the upper respiratory system?

A

Brings air into the body, begins to condition the air, and protection
Nostrils, nasal cavity, oral cavity, and pharynx.

77
Q

What is the job and the structures of the lower respiratory system?

A

Brings air to the gas exchange in lungs (smaller and smaller tubes)
Larynx, trachea, carina of trachea, left and right main (primary) bronchus, bronchi, alveoli, right and left lung, parietal pleura, and diaphragm.

78
Q

What is the major respiratory epithelium?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium, simple squamous epithelium.

79
Q

Where is the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium found and what notable structures are found on/in it?

A

Found throughout respiratory tract except the lower pharynx (near the voice box), in the bronchioles and alveoli
Goblet cells: produce mucus that is slippery and sticky to coat the surface where air interacts with epithelium that can trap pathogens in the air.
Cilia: pushes mucus away from lungs in rowing movement (like crowd wave) “mucus escalator” to where mucus can be coughed out of the body or swallowed and digested.

80
Q

What is the structure, location, and function of stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Structure: stacks of squamous epithelium
Location: Oropharynx & laryngopharynx (areas shared with the digestive tract)
Function: protect against abrasion and chemicals (from food & water)

81
Q

What is the structure, location, and function of simple squamous epithelium?

A

Structure: single layer of flat cells for diffusion
Location: alveoli
Function: diffusion of gases

82
Q

What is the zone of the respiratory tract and what is the function of this zone?

A

Conduction zone: carries air to gas exchange, warms, humidifies, and filters air.
(All upper respiratory and some lower respiratory)

83
Q

What are the structures before the nasal cavity?

A

Nostrils (external nares) permits entry of air to nasal cavity
Nose hairs (vibrissae) filters large particles (and traps some)

84
Q

What are the structures of the nasal cavity?

A

Paranasal sinuses: cavities in the skull lined with mucus membrane. Mucus drains into nasal cavity through openings in the bone around the nasal cavity (sphenoid, olfactory, cribriform, frontal, ethmoid)
Nasal conchae: bumps that create turbulents. This swirling warms, humidifies, filters the air
Olfactory epithelium (top of NC below ethmoid bone) chemicals dissolve in mucus stimulating chemoreceptors that sense them as oderents.

85
Q

What is another name for the pharynx and what are the sections?

A

The throat. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx

86
Q

What is the tissue, location, and the structures of the nasopharynx?

A

Tissue: pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
Location: begin at the end of the nasal cavity and end at the soft palate
Pharyngeal (adenoid) tonsil: posterior superior region of NP
Eustachian tube: linked to middle ear to relive pressure build up
Soft palate & uvula: helps to direct food & drink down. Uvula pushed up while swallowing closing the entrance to the NP.

87
Q

What is the tissue, location, and the structures of the oropharynx?

A

Tissue: stratified squamous epithelium

88
Q

What is the tissue, location, and the structures of the oropharynx?

A

Tissue: stratified squamous epithelium
Location: Inferior to Npharynx: soft palate - epiglottis
Connects to oral cavity at fauces (space between oral cavity and throat).
Palatine tonsils: lateral walls of fauces
Lingual tonsils: posterior surface of tongue

89
Q

What is the location and function of the laryngopharynx?

A

Location: Area from the glottis to the esophagus (parallel to the larynx)
Function: for the passage of food and air

90
Q

What are the zones of the lower respiratory tract?

A

Conducting zone (same as upper tract)
Respiratory zone: functions as an are of gas exchange
structures: microscopic- bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli

91
Q

What is another name for the larynx and what are its structures?

A

Voice box
Structures: epiglottis, hyaline cartilage, glottis, and vestibular folds

92
Q

What is the epiglottis?

A

Flap made of elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the trachea (glottis) during swallowing

93
Q

What is the hyaline cartilage of the larynx?

A

Thyroid cartilage: large, inferior to hyoid bone anterior & lateral
Cricoid cartilage: continual ring superior to tracheal cartilage to stabilize area around the glottis
Arytenoid cartilage: moves because of a muscle to change tension in vocal cords (folds) (pitch of sound depends on length & tension of folds)

94
Q

What is the glottis and the vestibular folds?

A

Glottis: opening between/ below the vocal folds
Vestibular folds: stimulate cough reflex- big fat areas of tissue

95
Q

What are the structures of the trachea?

A

Tracheal cartilage: C-shaped rings (anterior & lateral) for support. Holds the trachea open so it does not collapse while allowing esophagus to expand.
Trachealis: smooth muscle connecting “C” controlling diameter of trachea
Tissue: pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Carina: end of trachea where it bifurcates (splits in two to form two new structures)

96
Q

What are the structures of the bronchial tree?

A

Primary bronchi splits many times into secondary bronchi splits many times into tertiary bronchi that branches into bronchioles (0.3-0.5mm) the structure where the hyaline cartilage plates disappear but still has smooth muscles and elastin and tissue changes from pseudostratified columnar to simple cuboidal.

97
Q

What are the alveoli?

A

Round gas exchange areas that group into alveolar sacs. Singular is alveolus. Sacs are surrounded by capillaries and elastic tissue. (~150 million alveoli per lung)

98
Q

What are the types of alveolar cells?

A

Type 1: simple squamous epithelium for gas exchange
Type 2: cuboidal epithelium secrete substances that act as surfactant
Alveolar macrophages: live in cells eat dust, debri, particulates (anything that does not belong) then climb up bronchial tree to be coughed out or swallowed

99
Q

What does a surfactant do?

A

decrease surface tension helping to keep alveoli open (keep from collapsing)

100
Q

What are the structures of the lung?

A

Pleura: serous membrane, parietal, pleural cavity, visceral
Right: 3 lobes
Left: 2 lobes because of a cardiac notch.

101
Q

What are in the red and white pulp of the spleen?

A

Red: Erythrocytes and macrophages
White: Lymphocytes

102
Q

What cells are in the lymph nodes?

A

T cell, B cells, and Phagocytes

DCC: BIO 232 Lecture (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions