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PTA 204 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which test measures a patient’s level of consciousness?

A

Glasglow Coma Scale

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2
Q

What are the 3 Categories of the Glasglow Coma Scale?

A

-Eyes
-Verbal
-Motor

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3
Q

What scores are indicative of Normal functioning each category of the Glasglow Coma Scale?

A

-Eyes: 4
-Verbal: 5
-Motor: 6

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4
Q

Definition: Responds immediately to minimal stimuli and is aware of environment

A

Alert

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5
Q

Definition: State of severe drowsiness

A

Lethargic

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6
Q

Definition: Displays indifference to external stimuli

A

Obtunded

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7
Q

Definition: Deep sleep; aroused only with vigorous stimulation

A

Stuppor

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8
Q

Definition: No verbal or voluntary response with vigorous stimulation

A

Coma

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9
Q

Definition: Awareness of stimulation without distraction from other stimulation

A

Attention

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10
Q

Definition: Awareness of time, place, person

A

Orientation

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11
Q

Definition: Overall management of emotions

A

Affect

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12
Q

What is Amnesia

A

The loss of Memory

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13
Q

What is Retrograde Amnesia?

A

Inability to recall events leading up to the brain injury

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14
Q

What is Post-traumatic Amnesia?

A

Inability to recall events in between brain injury and regaining consciousness

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15
Q

Which test measure Level of Cognitive Functioning?

A

The Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale

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16
Q

How many levels are included in the Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale?

A

10

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17
Q

Which Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale levels correspond with low, medium, and high cognition?

A

-Low (1-3)
-Medium (4-6)
-High (7 and up)

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18
Q

What are the 5 Aspects of Language and in which order do they occur?

A

-Comprehension
-Repetition of speech
-Naming
-Reading
-Writing

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19
Q

What are Cranial Nerve Tests used for?

A

To help provide the location of a dysfunction

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20
Q

Are pain, touch, and temperature primary or secondary sensations?

A

Primary

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21
Q

What is the Absence of Pain?

A

Analgesia

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22
Q

What is the Absence of Touch Sensation?

A

Anesthesia

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23
Q

What is the term for Abnormal Touch Sensation

A

Parasthesia

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24
Q

Are vibration, kinesthesia, and proprioception primary or secondary senses?

A

Primary

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25
Q

Are stereognosis, tactile localization, 2-point discrimination, graphesthesia, and barognosis primary or secondary sensations?

A

Secondary

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26
Q

Definition: Knowing what you are touching with your eyes clothes

A

Steriognosis

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27
Q

Definition: The inability to recognize objects by touch

A

Asteriognosis

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28
Q

Definition: Knowing where on your body you are being touched and how much of your body is being touched

A

Tactile Localization

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29
Q

Definition: Being able to distinguish being touched with one point or simultaneously with two points

A

2-point Discrimination

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30
Q

Definition: Knowing what is being drawn on your skin without looking

A

Graphesthesia

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31
Q

Definition: Knowing which object is heavier than the other without looking

A

Barognosis

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32
Q

Definition: A subjective opinion of own body

A

Body Image

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33
Q

Definition: knowledge of own body

A

Body Concept

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34
Q

Definition: perception of sensory input from body

A

Body Schema

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35
Q

Definition: Loss of perception of sensory input from a part of the body

A

Sensory Neglect

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36
Q

Which part of the brain controls Coordination

A

The Cerebellum

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37
Q

What is Intralimb coordination?

A

Coordinating movement with one limb

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38
Q

What is Interlimb coordination?

A

Integrated performance between 2 or more limbs

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39
Q

What is Dysdiadokinesis?

A

Rapid, alternating movements between agonist and antagonist

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40
Q

What is Dysmetria?

A

Difficulty with endpoint accuracy (finger to nose or finger to finger test)

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41
Q

What is Ataxia?

A

Difficulty coordinating movement/ Difficulty starting and stopping

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42
Q

What is the Rebound Phenomenon

A

This happens when a person is attempting to move a limb against resistance and the resistance is suddenly taken away, the limb will keep going in the direction of movement for a short time then rebound (jerk back in the opposite direction)

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43
Q

What is Nystagmus

A

Rapid, alternating eye movement after spinning

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44
Q

Definition: Degree of residual contraction in innervated muscle

A

Muscle Tone

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45
Q

What is Spasticity?

A

Hypertonia which specifically affects flexors or extensors

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46
Q

What is Rigidity?

A

Hypertonia of all the muscles

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47
Q

Which test measures how much hypertonia a patient has based on their ability to move through a ROM

A

Ashworth Scale

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48
Q

What is Sustained Clonus?

A

Continuous beating of contraction after a muscle is quickly stretched

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49
Q

What is Un-sustained Clonus?

A

After a muscle is quickly stretched, it will then perform a few beating contractions, then stop

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50
Q

Which tests measures the amount of tone a person has with reflexes?

A

Deep Tendon Reflex Test

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51
Q

What are the grades used in the Deep Tendon Reflex Test and what does each grade mean?

A

0 Absent, no response
1+ Low normal, diminished
2+ Normal
3+ Brisker or mor reflexive than normal
4+ Very brisk, hyperreflexive, with clonus
5+ Sustained Clonus

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52
Q

What is Flaccidity?

A

Absence of tone response (when a patient’s arm is limp when being passively moved)

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53
Q

What are Fasciculations?

A

Muscle twitches

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54
Q

What is Dystonia?

A

A disorder causing muscles to contract involuntarily.

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55
Q

Definition: The cooperative action of muscles working together

A

Synergies

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56
Q

What are the Brunnstrom Stages of Recovery?

A

7 recognized stages of Stroke recovery

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57
Q

What is Plegia?

A

Complete paralysis

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58
Q

What is Paresis?

A

Weakness from an incomplete lesion

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59
Q

What is Apraxia?

A

Difficulty with motor planning?

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60
Q

What is Ideational Apraxia?

A

Patient is unable to conceptualize what movement they’d like to perform

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61
Q

What is Ideomotor Apraxia?

A

Patient is unable to comprehend a command to perform a movement

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62
Q

What is the Romberg test?

A

Testing balance with eyes open and closed

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63
Q

Which outcome measure assesses Sitting and Standing Balance and also assesses fall risk/ambulation potential

A

Berg Balance Scale

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64
Q

Which outcome measure assesses walking balance?

A

Functional Gait Analysis

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65
Q

Which outcome measure assesses walking speed?

A

10 Meter Walk Test

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66
Q

Which outcome measure assesses Walking Distance?

A

6 Minute Walk Test

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67
Q

Which outcome measure assesses Transfer Ability?

A

5 Times Sit to Stand (5TSTS)

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68
Q

Which outcome measure assesses Balance Confidence?

A

Activity-Specific Balance Confidence Scale

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69
Q

Definition: Neuro deficits lasting less than 24 hrs/ AKA mini strokes with no lasting effects

A

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

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70
Q

Definition: Neuro deficits lasting >24 hrs with minimal deficits

A

Reversable Ischemic Neuro Deficit (RIND)

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71
Q

Definition: Syndrome with onset of neuro deficits involving a specific area of the brain ranging from mild to fatal

A

Stroke

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72
Q

What are the 2 types of Strokes and what makes them different?

A

-Ischemic: Cut off of blood supply to a specific area of the brain (most commonly from atherosclerosis)
-Hemorrhagic: Pressure on neural tissue due to brain bleed (typically occurs in the younger population)

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73
Q

What are the 2 causes of an Ischemic Stroke?

A

-Thrombus (80%)
-Embolism (20%)

74
Q

Name the 4 locations for Brain Hemorrhage?

A

-Epidural Space: Between the Cranium and Dura Mater
-Subdural Space: Below the Dura Mater
-Subarachnoid Space
-Intracerebral/Parenchymal Space

75
Q

What are the Risk Factors for a Stroke?

A

-HTN
-Heart Disease
-Diabetes
-Risk Increases with Age

76
Q

What are the Prevention Factors for a Stroke?

A

-Diet
-Exercise
-Obesity
-Smoking Cessation
-Alcohol Consumption

77
Q

What are the Warning Signs of a Stroke?

A

-Trouble Walking
-Trouble Talking
-Trouble Seeing (commonly intermittent)
-Numbness on one side of the body
-Sudden, Severe Head Ache (typically a sign of a hemorrhagic stroke)

78
Q

Signs of which side CVA:
-Language involvement (Aphasia)
-Apraxia
-Difficulty with sequencing

A

Left CVA

79
Q

Signs of which side CVA:
-Body awareness (neglect)
-Impaired spatial awareness
-Impaired simultaneous processing
-Impaired Judgement
-Impaired time perception

A

Right CVA

80
Q

What is the term used to describe Leaning toward the Hemiplegic side causing postural imbalance?

A

Pusher’s Syndrome

81
Q

Clinical signs of a lesion in which artery?
-Contralateral motor and sensory deficits (greater in UE an face)
-Aphasia
-Homonomous Hemianopsia

A

MCA Lesion

82
Q

Clinical signs of a lesion in which artery?
-Contralateral motor and sensory deficits (mostly LE
-Expressive aphasia
-Memory and behavioral changes

A

ACA Lesion

83
Q

Clinical signs of a lesion in which artery?
-Homonomous Hemianopsia
-Visual Neglect
-Reading and writing deficits

A

PCA Lesion

84
Q

Clinical signs of a lesion in which artery?
-Diplopia
-Vertigo
-Ataxia
-Nystagmus
-Cranial nerve involvement
-Cerebellum involvement

A

Vertebral/Basilar Artery

85
Q

Which syndrome is responsible for:
-Ipsilateral decreased pain and temp to face
-Ipsilateral Ataxia
-Contralateral decreased pain and temp to body

A

Wallenberg Syndrome

86
Q

Clinical signs of lesion to which artery?
-Typically no combined cortical affect (pure sensory, pure motor deficits)

A

Lacunar Arteries

87
Q

What is the body’s response to a CNS injury?

A

Neuroplasticity

88
Q

What is the body’s response to a PNS injury?

A

Wallerian Degeneration

89
Q

What are the Deficits caused by a Stroke?

A

-Hemi-motor
-Hemi-sensory
-Presence of pathological reflexes
-Cognitive changes
-Cardiovascular deficits

90
Q

Which Stage of Stroke Recovery are these symptoms present:
-Decrease or absence of tone
-GH subluxation
-Pain and edema distally
-SC/Brainstem reflex level

A

Acute (Flaccid, Hypotonic) Stage

91
Q

Which Stage of Stroke Recovery are these symptoms present:
-Presence of synergistic movement
-Volitional effort on uninvolved side
-Abnormal Posture
-Instability at joints

A

Subacute and Chronic Phase

92
Q

What are the Goals of treatment for those in the Acute Stage of a Stroke?

A

-Positioning and handling
-Skin protection
-ROM
-Weight bearing to the affected side
-Early mobility

93
Q

In regards to a stroke patient, what is a Symmetrical Reaction?

A

Flex of the uninvolved UE will result in flex of the involved UE

94
Q

In regards to a stroke patient, what is a Crossed Reciprocal Reaction?

A

Flexion of the uninvolved LE will result in extension of the involved LE

95
Q

In regards to a stroke patient, what is a Ramiste Reaction

A

Hip abduction of the involved side will result in hip abduction of the contralateral side

96
Q

In regards to a stroke patient, what is a Homolateral Synkineses Reaction?

A

Flexion of UE will result in Flexion of LE on same side

97
Q

What is the Clinical Picture of a Stroke patient?

A

-Head posturing: SCM short on involved side
-Limb posturing: Brunnstrom’s limb posturing
-Trunk posturing: Lateral flexion to affected side
-Gait pattern: circumduction

98
Q

What is the Etiology of Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A

-Can be caused by CVA, tumors, trauma, degeneration
-Can also be caused by nutritional and metabolic influences

99
Q

What is the Clinical Picture of a patient with Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A

-Decreased muscle tone
-Decreased postural control
-Postural tremor
-Intention Tremor
-Dysmetria
-Dysdiadochokinesis
-Ataxia
-Decrease in balance (with or without vision)

100
Q

What are the Safety issues associated with a Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A

-Fall prone
-Impaired Rebound Phenomenon

101
Q

What are the 2 types of Tumors and what are their characteristics?

A

-Benign Tumor: Will adhere to a specific part of the body
-Malignant: A spreading tumor
-Primary: Where the tumor originates
-Secondary: Area of the body the tumor spreads to

102
Q

What other neurological deficits follows the same rehab course as a CVA?

A

Brain Tumors

103
Q

What is the Clinical Picture of a patient with a Brain Tumor?

A

Depends on the location?

104
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a Brain Tumor?

A

-ICP
-Seizures
-Pathological Fractures

105
Q

Definition: A sudden, explosive disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons resulting in motor or sensory changes

A

Seizure

106
Q

Definition: More than one unprovoked seizure with no full recovery between seizures or seizure lasting more than 5 minutes

A

Status Epilipticus

107
Q

Etiology of what Neurological Deficit:
-Familial/genetic pre-disposition
-Fever
-Toxic substances
-TBI
-Brain Tumors
-Endocrine/Metabollic disturbances
-Vascular brain disorders
CNS infection
Idiopathic

A

Seizures

108
Q

What is the term for residual paralysis after a seizure?

A

Todd’s Paralysis

109
Q

What is a Tonic-Clonic (Grand Mal) Seizure?

A

A period of loss of consciousness/stopping of activity, followed by convulsions

110
Q

What is an Absence (Petit Mal) Seizure?

A

Zoning out/no convulsions

111
Q

What is a Partial Seizure?

A

Just part of the body convulses

112
Q

What is a Complex Partial Seizure?

A

A simple partial seizure which can spread to become more generalized.
-no loss of consciousness

113
Q

Etiology of which Neurological Deficit:
-An insult to the brain not of degenerative or congenital nature, but caused by an external physical force that may produce a diminished or altered state of consciousness, which results in an impairment of cognitive abilities or physical function.

A

Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)

114
Q

What is the definition of an Open Head Injury?

A

Some type of Fx to cranium

115
Q

What is the definition of a Closed Head Injury?

A

Trauma to head with no Fx to cranium (Brain moves too much) (e.g. IED explosion, being hit in head with helmet on)

116
Q

What is the definition of an Acquired TBI?

A

No direct injury to the head (drowning, electrocution)
-causes loss of oxygen to the brain

117
Q

Clinical Picture of a patient with which neurological dysfunction:
-Increased ICP
-Altered states of consciousness
-Altered states of cognitive functioning
-Ventilation
-Amnesia
-Seizures
-Variable motor and sensory deficits
-De-corticate/De-cerebrate rigidity

A

TBI

118
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with a TBI

A

-ICfP
-Seizures
-Change in safety awareness and judgement
-Long-term effects of immobility

119
Q

Definition: Trauma that induces an alteration in mental status

A

Minimal TBI (Concussion)

120
Q

What are the Clinical Manifestations of a Minimal TBI?

A

-Dizziness
-Disorientation
-Blurred Vision
-Difficulty Concentrating
-Altered Sleep Patterns
-Nausea
-Headache
-Loss of Balance

121
Q

Etiology of which Disorder?
ATYPICAL:
-Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
-Striato-Nigral Degradation
-Lewy Body Dementia
-NPH (Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
-Multiple System Atrophy
SECONDARY
-Trauma
-Ischemic
-Metabolic
-Drug Induced
-Brain Tumor

A

Parkinson’s Disease

122
Q

What percent of Parkinson’s Disease is Idiopathic?

A

85%

123
Q

What is the Clinical Picture for Parkinson’s Disease?

A

-Rigidity
-Flexed Posture
-Bradykinesia
-Akinesia
-Resting Tremor
-Flat Affect
-Abnormal Postural Reactions
-Festinating Gait Pattern

124
Q

What are the things doctors look for when diagnosing someone with Parkinson’s Disease?

A

-Early motor symptoms like Bradykinesia, Tremors, Rigidity
-Asymmetrical Distribution
-Positive response to Dopamine replacement therapy
-Differential diagnosis

125
Q

What is the Clinical Picture for someone with a Young Onset of Parkison’s Disease?

A

-Slower progression
-Increased dystonia
-Lower rated of dementia
-Increased dyskinesias due to L-Dopa (medication)

126
Q

Which Scale recognizes the progressive stages of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

The Modified Hoehn and Yahr Scale

127
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for patients with Parkinson’s Disease?

A

-Orthostatic Hypotension
-On-Off Phases
-Fall prone
-Sometimes can see decrease in judgement

128
Q

Pathophysiology of which disorder?
-Plaques disseminated throughout CNS
-Plaques have a prediction for white matter resulting in the de-myelinization of axons

A

Multiple Sclerosis

129
Q

What is the Clinical Picture for someone with Multiple Sclerosis?

A

-Motor weakness
-Spasticity
-Parasthesias
-Unsteady gait
-Diplopia
-Incontinence
-Tremor
-Nystagmus
-Fatigue***

130
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with MS?

A

-Temperature (they have trouble cooling off)
-Response time
-Fall precautions

131
Q

What is the Etiology for a Spinal Cord Injury?

A

Trauma, Disease, or Congenital

132
Q

What are the different Spinal Cord Syndromes?

A

-Anterior Cord
-Posterior Cord
-Central Cord
-Brown Sequard
-Cauda Equina

133
Q

What classifies Anterior Cord Syndrome?

A

Bilateral paraplegia (UMN), bilateral loss of pain and temperature, and sphincter dysfunction (urinary retention)

134
Q

What classifies Posterior Cord Syndrome?

A

Bilateral loss of vibration and proprioception sense. Preserved motor function, but can have bladder dysfunction.

135
Q

What classifies Central Cord Syndrome?

A

Bilateral motor weakness (UE > LE). Intact sensation above and below level of injury.

136
Q

What classifies Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral: Loss of voluntary motor (UMN), vibration and proprioception sense
Contralateral: Loss of pain and temperature 2-3 levels below the lesion

137
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a progressive degeneration and loss of motor neurons in the spinal cord, brainstem, and motor cortex?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (AKA Lou Gehrig’s Disease)

138
Q

What is the Clinical Picture of a patient with ALS?

A

-Progressive weakness of skeletal muscle
-Cranial nerves also involved
-Hypoventilation (weakness in breathing muscles)

139
Q

What are the Safety Factors for a patient with ALS?

A

-Profound weakness
-Risk for aspiration

140
Q

Which disorder causes atrophy of muscles in the lower leg?

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth (AKA Progressive Peroneal Atrophy)

141
Q

Which disorder is classified by inflammation of the nerve roots and peripheral nerves?

A

Guillain Barre Syndrome

142
Q

What is the clinical picture for someone with Guillain Barre Syndrome?

A

-Progressive loss of motor function
-Parasthesia
-Hyperasthesia
-Hypoventilation
-Myalgia

143
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with Guillain Barre Syndrome?

A

-Hypersensitivity
-Impaired sensation

144
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a viral infection that affects the anterior horn cells resulting in muscle paralysis?

A

Polio

145
Q

What are the late effects of Polio called?

A

Post-Polio

146
Q

What is the Clinical Picture of a patient with Polio?

A

-Weakness
-Pain

147
Q

Does a Stroke affect the vestibular system centrally or peripherally?

A

Centrally

148
Q

Does Meniere’s Disease affect the vestibular system centrally or peripherally?

A

Peripherally

149
Q

Does an infection affect the Vestibular system centrally or peripherally?

A

Centrally

150
Q

What are the Vestibular Contraindications for PT?

A

-Unstable Meniere’s Disease
-Uncontrolled migraines
-Unrepaired superior semicircular canal dehiscence
-Sudden loss of hearing
-Increased feeling of pressure/fullness in one or both ears
-Ringing in one or both ears
-s/p: any discharge from ears or nose

151
Q

What is the Etiology of Peripheral Neuropathies?

A

-Trauma
-Entrapment: pressure on nerves
-Systemic: Diabetes, HIV

152
Q

What is the Clinical Picture of a patient with Peripheral Neuropathies?

A

-Weakness of denervated muscle
-Hyper or Hypo sensation
-Trophic changes

153
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with Peripheral Neuropathies?

A

Sensory Loss

154
Q

Which disorder is characterized by pre or per-natal trauma resulting in a decrease in O2 to the brain before, during or shortly after birth?

A

Cerebral Palsy

155
Q

What does Athetoid CP look like?

A

It is characterized by fluctuating muscle tone between hyper and hypotonia. It looks like writhing movements.

156
Q

What forms can Spastic CP take?

A

-Diplegia/Paraplegia
-Quadriplegia
-Hemiplegia

157
Q

What is the Clinical Picture for a patient with CP?

A

-Postural deviations
-Scissoring gait pattern
-Common foot deformities

158
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with CP?

A

-Age
-Hip subluxation
-Seizure history
-Positions to avoid: W-sitting, chair sitting without foot support

159
Q

Which disorder is characterized by malformation of the neural tube during the germinal phase of pre-natal development?

A

Spina Bifida

160
Q

Which form of Spina Bifida is characterized by failure of 1 or more vertebrae to fuse?

A

Spina Bifida Oculta

161
Q

Which form of Spina Bifida is characterized by the protrusion of meninges and can include spinal cord and cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Spina Bifida Cystica

162
Q

Which form of Spina Bifida can present as a spinal cord injury?

A

Spina Bifida Cystica

163
Q

Where does Spina Bifida usually occur?

A

In the Lumbar region

164
Q

What is the Clinical Picture for a patient with Spina Bifida?

A

-Flaccid paralysis below level of lesion
-Impaired sensation below level of lesion
-Absence of or diminished reflexes
-Skeletal deformities
-Scoliosis (Congenital: Fixed/ Acquired: Flexible)
-Flattened acetabulum
-May have neurogenic bladder
-Foot deformities

165
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with Spina Bifida?

A

-Shunts
-Hip integrity
-Sensory deficits
-Latex allergies
-Positions to avoid (“frog leg”, W sitting, ring sitting, heel sitting, cross-legged sitting)

166
Q

What are the Precautions for a patient with a Shunt?

A

-Headaches
-Sudden high spiking fever
-lethargy
-vomiting
-disorientation
-vision change
-changes in coordination or balance

**Need to send for medical assistance!

167
Q

Which disorder is characterized by having an extra chromosome?

A

Down’s Syndrome (AKA Trisomy 21)

168
Q

What is the Clinical Picture for a patient with Down’s Syndrome?

A

-Moderate to severe intellectual functioning
-Low muscle tone
-Ligament laxity
-Developmental delays
-Congenital heart defects
-Atlanto-Axial subluxation
-Visual and hearing impairments

169
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with Down’s Syndrome?

A

-Congenital heart defects
-Atlanto-axial subluxation

170
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a sex-linked recessive gene in males causing progressive weakening of muscles proximal to distal. Also by muscle being replaced by fatty tissue?

A

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

171
Q

What is the life expectancy for a patient with Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Adolescence

172
Q

What is the Clinical Picture of a patient with Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

-Impaired strength
-Gower sign
-Impaired:
-Respiration
-Gait
-Functional Activities

173
Q

Which disorder is characterized by atrophy of the facial, scapular, and humeral muscles; and usually with adolescent onset?

A

Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy

174
Q

Which disorder is characterized by shoulder and hip girdle muscle atrophy with very late onset?

A

Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy

175
Q

Which disorder is characterized by chronic, progressive deterioration of anterior horn cell and cranial nerve nuclei resulting in marked muscle atrophy?

A

Spinal Muscular Atrophy (AKA Werdnig-Hoffman Disease)
-Pediatric form of ALS

176
Q

Which disorder is characterized by congenital contractures of limbs with wasting of skeletal muscles and stiff/deformed joints?

A

Arthrogryposis

177
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a slow and progressive presence of tumors in CNS and PNS; also, cafe au lait spots on skin indicates presence of tumors?

A

Neurofibromatosis

178
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a disease of collagen synthesis that affects bone production; brittle bones and skeletal deformities; susception to fractures.

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

179
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a breakdown in perceptual motor skills due to SI dysfunction, and may be accompanied by ADD/ADHD?

A

Developmental Coordination Disorder (DCD) (AKA Minimal Brain Dysfunction or Clumsy Child)

180
Q

When do children usually start showing signs of DCD?

A

Pre-school age

181
Q

What is the Clinical Picture for a patient with DCD?

A

-“Soft neurological signs”
-Low muscle tone
-Tactile defensiveness
-Gravitational insecurity
-Poor eye-hand coordination
-Apraxia
-Learning disability

182
Q

What are the Safety Considerations for a patient with DCD?

A

Do not overstimulate!

PTA 204 (4 decks)

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