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Human Anatomy and Physiology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what does the integumentary system consist of

A

covers body and consists of skin and accessary tissues (nails, hair, sweat glands, sebaceous glands)

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2
Q

integument =

A

skin

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3
Q

what does the integumentary system provide

A

a barrier to the outside world and a visual indicator of our physiology and health

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4
Q

dermatology

A

study of skin

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5
Q

layers of the integument

A

epidermis and dermis

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6
Q

what is the epidermis composed of

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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7
Q

what is the dermis composed of

A

primarily dense irregular connective tissue

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8
Q

is the hypodermis part of the integumentary system

A

no

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9
Q

what is the hypodermis composed of

A

layer or areolar and adipose tissue

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10
Q

what are the layers of the epidermis in order from deep to superficial

A

stratum basale
stratum spinosum
stratum granulosum
stratum lucidum
stratum corneum

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11
Q

the layers in the epidermis are

A

keratinized

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12
Q

what layers of the epidermis are composed of living keratinocytes

A

the first three layers

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13
Q

what is stratum lucidum and stratum corneum composed of

A

dead cells

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14
Q

what layer of the epidermis is the deepest

A

stratum basale

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15
Q

stratum basale

A

has a single layer of cells as well as a germanitive layer with keratinocytes melanocytes and tactile cells

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16
Q

whats the most abundant cell in the epidermis

A

keratinocytes

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17
Q

keratinocytes are

A

found in all layers
large stem cells and have ability to regenerate new cells

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18
Q

do keratinocytes always produce keratin

A

no, they CAN produce keratin but it doesn’t always mean that they are synthesizing it currently

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19
Q

keratin

A

a protein that strengths epidermis and makes skin almost waterproof

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20
Q

melanocytes

A

scattered among keratinocytes

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21
Q

what do melanocytes produce and store

A

melanin in response to UV light

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22
Q

melanocytes transfer _______ into keratinocytes

A

melanosomes

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23
Q

how does melanin show in our skin color

A

pigment of melanosomes enter into the nucleus of keratinocytes create a dark pigement to protect the nucleus from UV radiation/sun

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24
Q

tactile cells are also called

A

merkel cells

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25
Q

tactile cells

A

few in number
scattered within stratum basale
sensitive to TOUCH
when compressed, they release chemicals as a result of stimulation of sensory nerve endings

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26
Q

stratum spinosum

A

several layers of keratinocytes
daughter cells from stratum basale pushed into this layer

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27
Q

epidermal dendritic cells are also called

A

langerhans cells

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28
Q

where are epidermal dendritic cells found

A

in stratum spinosum and stratum granulosum

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29
Q

epidermal dendritic cells

A

initiate immune response when something enters the cells like a pathogen they are able to use phagocytosis to engulf the pathogen and break it down

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30
Q

phagocytosis

A

cells that are able to extend plasma membrane to engulf something and break it down

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31
Q

stratum granulosum contains how many layers of keratinocytes

A

3-5

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32
Q

where does keratinization start

A

within straum granulosum

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33
Q

keratinization

A

keratinocytes fill with keratin which caused nucleus and oragnelles to disintegrate

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34
Q

are fully keratinized cells living or dead

A

dead

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35
Q

is the process of keratinization done in stratum granulosum?

A

no it continues when cells rise to higher layers

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36
Q

are the cells in stratum granulosum dead

A

no because there isn’t enough keratin in the production to kill the cell

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37
Q

stratum lucidum has how many layers

A

2-3

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38
Q

stratum lucidum contains

A

dead translucent cells due to a byproduct of keratinization that contains a translucent protein

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39
Q

what is the only kind of skin found on the palms and soles of feet

A

stratum lucidum

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40
Q

stratum corneum contains how many layers

A

20-30 dead interlocking keratinized cells

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41
Q

the cells within stratum lucidium are

A

anucleate meaning without a nucleus

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42
Q

migration of keratinocytes

A

originate from stem cells is stratum basale
migrate through strata to straum corneum over two weeks
remain in stratum corneum for two weeks
shed

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43
Q

what is the purpose of stratum corneum having a dry and thickened surface

A

it makes it unsuitable for microorganism growth and secretions help protect it

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44
Q

thick skin

A

found in palms of hands and soles of feet
exhibits all five layers of epidermal strata
houses sweat glands
no hair follicles or sebaceous glands

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45
Q

thin skin

A

covers most of body
lacks a stratum lucidum
contains sweat glands, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands

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46
Q

dermis is composed of

A

CT proper (collagen with elastic and reticular fibers), blood bessels, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, sensory nerve endings, arrector pili

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47
Q

what are the two layers of the dermis

A

papillary layer and deeper reticular layer

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48
Q

papillary layer is composed of

A

areolar connective tissue

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49
Q

dermal papillae

A

projections of epidermis (epidermal ridges) interdigitate with papillae which helps interlock and increase area of contact between layers

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50
Q

reticular layer is composed of

A

dense irregular connective tissue with large bundles of collagen fibers interwoven into meshwork surrounding structures

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51
Q

what three pigments contribute to skin color

A

hemoglobin
carotene
melanin

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52
Q

hemoglobin

A

oxygen binding protein in red blood cells

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53
Q

what gives blood vessels in dermis a reddish tint

A

hemoglobin

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54
Q

carotene

A

shows a yellow orange pigement that is acquired from yellow/orange vegetables

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55
Q

where does carotene accumulate

A

in subcutaneous fat and keratinocytes of stratum corneum

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56
Q

melanin

A

pigment produced and stored in melanocytes

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57
Q

what does the amount of keratin in somebodies skin depend on

A

heredity and light exposure

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58
Q

what stimulates melanin production

A

UV light

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59
Q

does everyone have the same number of melanocytes

A

yes except other produce more and darker melanin

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60
Q

subcutaneous layer/ hypodermis

A

areolar and adipose CT that isn’t part of the integument that protects the body, acts as an energy reservoir, and provides thermal insulation

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61
Q

nails

A

scale-like modifications of stratum corneum

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62
Q

what is the function of nails

A

to protect distal tips of digits and assist in grasping objects

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63
Q

hair

A

pilus, shaped like slender filament that is composed of keratinized cells and grown from hair follicles

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64
Q

what are the three zones of hair

A

hairbulb, root, shaft

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65
Q

hair bulb

A

swelling at base where hair originates in dermis
surrounds hair papilla composed of CT
only region containing living epithelial cells

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66
Q

root

A

zone of hair from bulb to skin surface

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67
Q

shaft

A

portion of hair beyond skin surface

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68
Q

hair follicle

A

oblique tube surrounding hair root that extends to dermis

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69
Q

the outer connective tissue root sheath originates in the

A

dermis

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70
Q

the inner epithelial tissue root sheath orginates in the

A

epidermis

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71
Q

arrector pili

A

thin ribbons of smooth muscle that extend from hair follicle to dermal papillae

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72
Q

what does arrector pili do

A

elevates hair with contration “goosebumps”

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73
Q

what are the three phases of hair growth cycle

A

anagen
catagen
telogen

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74
Q

anagen

A

active phase where living cells in hair bulb rapidly grwoing dividing and transforming into hair

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75
Q

catagen

A

brief regression period where cell division ceases

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76
Q

telogen

A

resting phase where hair is shed

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77
Q

what is the longest phase of the hair cycle

A

anagen phase that is arround 18 months to 7 years depending on genetics

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78
Q

what percent of follicles are in anagen phase

A

80-95%

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79
Q

how long does the catagen phase last

A

3 to 4 weeks

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80
Q

how long does the telogen phase last

A

3 to 4 months

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81
Q

what happens after telogen phase

A

the hair bulb cells begin to regrow and the follicle re-renters anagen phase

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82
Q

what are the main functions of hair

A

protection, facial expression, heat retention, sensory reception, visual identification, chemical signal dispersal

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83
Q

phermones

A

chemical signals involved in attracting sexual partners

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84
Q

where are phermones secreted

A

specific sweat glands onto hairs in the axillary and pubic regions

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85
Q

sweat glands

A

coiled, tubular secretory portion in reticular dermis

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86
Q

myoepithelial cells

A

contract to squeeze gland and discharge secretions in response to sympathetic stimulation

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87
Q

how do sweat glands secrete

A

exocytosis

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88
Q

what is sweat composed of

A

99% water and 1% of other chemicals like electrolytes, metabolites, and waste products

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89
Q

what is the major function of a sweat gland

A

thermoregulation

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90
Q

thermoregulation

A

regulation of body temperature by fluid evaporation

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91
Q

what are some benefits of sweat

A

provides a means for loss of water and electrolytes
may help eliminate ingested drugs
antibacterial/antifungal

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92
Q

sebaceous glands

A

produce sebum which is a lubricant for skin and hair that helps kill bacteria

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93
Q

where does sebum dishcharge into

A

a hair follicle

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94
Q

the secretion of sebum is stimulated by hormones, mainly…

A

androgens

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95
Q

when is the secretion of sebum activated

A

during puberty

96
Q

functions of the integument

A

protection
prevention of water loss/gain
secretion
absorption
temperature regulation
sensory reception

97
Q

is the epidermis water resistant or waterproof

A

water resistant

98
Q

what waste products are secreted onto skin surface when you sweat

A

urea, salts, water

99
Q

secretion also assists with

A

electrolyte homeostasis

100
Q

what helps make skin water resistant

A

the sebum of sebaceous glands lubricating skin surface and hair

101
Q

skin is selectively permeable which allows for

A

the blocking of harmful things and absoption of certain chemicals or drugs

102
Q

transdermal administration

A

some oil-soluble drugs delieverd by adhesive patch that slowly penetrate epidermis, and then are absorbed into blood vessels in dermis

103
Q

epidermal dendritic cells are found in

A

stratum spinosum and initiate immune response against pathogens

104
Q

temperature regulation

A

influenced by capillaries and sweat glands in dermis as well as dermal blood vessles

105
Q

vasoconstriction

A

shunting of blood away from periphery of body toward depper structures

106
Q

if the temperature is very cold what kind of regulation of heat would you see

A

vascoconstriction

107
Q

vasolidation

A

more blood can travel close to the surface which results in a flushed face during exercise

108
Q

skin has extensive innervation (distribution of nerve fibers) that helps to

A

monitor stimuli in dermis and epidermis

109
Q

meissner’s corpuscle responds to

A

light touch

110
Q

ruffini corpuscle

A

deep pressure and skin distortion

111
Q

pacinain corpuscle

A

deep pressure or vibration

112
Q

free neuronal endings responds to

A

pain, itch, hot, and cold

113
Q

hair follicles respond to

A

light touch and vibration

114
Q

components of the skeletal system

A

bones
cartilage
ligaments
other CT (tendons; joint capsule)

115
Q

bones are the

A

primary organs of the skeletal system

116
Q

what are the two types of bone

A

compact and spongy bone

117
Q

compact bone

A

referred to as dense or cortical bone that is composed of relatively dense CT that appears white, smooth, and solid

118
Q

what percent of bone mass is compact bone

A

80%

119
Q

spongy bone

A

referred to as cancellous or trabecular bone is loacted internal to compact bone and appears porous

120
Q

what percent of bone mass is spongy bone

A

20%

121
Q

cartilage

A

semirigid CT that is more flexible than bone

122
Q

what are the three types of cartilage

A

hyaline
fibrocartilage
elastic

123
Q

hyaline cartilage

A

provides model for formation of most bones in the body

124
Q

where is hyaline cartilage found

A

within growth plates, at ends of ribs to connect to sternum, and covers the ends of some bones

125
Q

what does the embryonic skeleton consist of

A

only cartilage

126
Q

what cartilage is the strongest

A

fibrocartilage

127
Q

fibrocartilage

A

weight bearing cartilage that withstands compression

128
Q

where is fibrocartilage found

A

intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, cartilage pads of knees (menisci)

129
Q

ligaments

A

anchor bone to bone

130
Q

tendons

A

connect muscle to bone

131
Q

ligaments and tendons are comprised of

A

collagen fibers packed in a parallel fashion

132
Q

general functions of the skeletal system

A

support and protection
movement
hemopoiesis
storage of mineral and energy reserves

133
Q

how does the skeletal system function with support and protection

A

protects delicate tissues in the body like the rib cage protects the heart and lungs and the pelvis protect the urinary and reproductive organs and terminal end of GI tract

134
Q

movement

A

bone serves as the attachment sites for skeletal muscles

135
Q

hemopoiesis

A

refers to the production of blood cells

136
Q

where does hemopoiesis occur

A

in red bone marrow which helps produce red blood cells, 5 white blood cells, and platelets

137
Q

where are stem cells found

A

within bone

138
Q

what elements does bone store

A

calcium and phosphate which is released into blood as needed

139
Q

calcium is needed for

A

muscle contraction
blood clotting
nerve impulse transmission

140
Q

phosphate is needed for

A

ATP utilization
plasma membranes

141
Q

lipids are stored where

A

yellow bone marrow of adults

142
Q

Diaphysis

A

elongated shaft of bone that provides leverage and weight support with compact bone on the outside and spongy bone on the inside

143
Q

medullary cavity

A

hollow, cyndrilical space within the diaphysis that contains red bone marrow in children and yellow bone marrow in adults

144
Q

epiphysis

A

knob like region at each end of long bone that is composed of outer thin layer of compact bone and an inner region of spongy bone

145
Q

articular cartilage

A

covers joint surface with a thin layer of hyaline cartilage

146
Q

what does articular cartilage help with

A

helps to reduce friction and absorb shock in moveable joints

147
Q

metaphysis

A

region of mature bone between diaphysis and epiphysis

148
Q

epiphyseal plate

A

also called a growth plate, found in metaphysis and is a thin layer of hyaline cartilage that provides for lengthwise bone growth

149
Q

what happens to the epiphyseal plate in adults

A

it becomes the epiphyseal line once growth plate closes

150
Q

periosteum

A

means around the bone, it is a thin layer of connective tissue that surrounds the bone

151
Q

endosteum

A

layer of CT on the inside of the bone that lines the medullary cavity

152
Q

bone marrow

A

soft CT tissue of bone; red or yellow

153
Q

red bone marrow is also called

A

myeloid tissue

154
Q

red bone marrow

A

hemopoietic (blood cell forming) reticular CT that contains immature blood cells and fat

155
Q

where is red bone marrow found in children

A

spongy bone and medullary cavity of long bones

156
Q

where is red bone marrow found in adults

A

in selected areas of axial skeleton like the skull vertebrae ribs or the proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur

157
Q

yellow bone marrow

A

a fatty substance that is a product of red bone marrow degeneration as children mature

158
Q

what is bone composed of

A

cells and extracellular matrix

159
Q

what are the four types of bone cells

A

osteoprogenitor cells
osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts

160
Q

osteoprogenitor cells are

A

stem cells derived from mesenchyme

161
Q

what do osteoprogenitor cells mature into

A

osteoblasts

162
Q

where are osteoprogenitor cells found

A

the periosteum and endosteum

163
Q

osteoblasts form from

A

osteoprogenitor stem cells

164
Q

osteoblasts synthesize and secrete

A

osteoid

165
Q

osteoid

A

initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix that later calcifies

166
Q

osteoblasts become

A

entrapped within the matrix and then differentiate into osteocytes

167
Q

osteoblasts become

A

osteocytes

168
Q

osteocytes

A

mature bone cells derived from osteoblasts that don’t have a bone forming ability

169
Q

what is the function of osteocytes

A

to maintain bone matrix, detect mechanical stress of bone and then trigger a new bone matrix

170
Q

osteoclasts

A

large, multinuclear, phagocytic cells that were derived from fused bone marrow cells (monocytes)

171
Q

osteoclasts were derived from

A

fused monocytes or bone marrow cells

172
Q

osteoclasts have an

A

increased surface area exposed to bone to help in bone resporption

173
Q

bone formation

A

begins with the secretion of osteoid
calcification occurs which deposits hydroxyapatite crystals

174
Q

what is required for bone formation

A

vitamin d - enhances calcium absorption from GI tract
vitamin c - required for collagen formation
calcium and phosphate for calcification

175
Q

what is required for calification

A

phosphate and calcium to precepitate out and form hydroxyapatite crystals

176
Q

Bone resorption/loss of bone

A

bone matrix is destroyed by substances released from osteoclasts

proteolytic enzymes released from lysosomes within osteoclasts chemically digest matrix components

calcium and phosphate dissolved by hydrochloric acid

calcium and phosphate ions enter the blood

177
Q

when does bone resorption occur

A

when blood calcium levels are low

178
Q

what is compact bone composed of

A

osteons

179
Q

what is another name for osteons

A

haversian systems

180
Q

osteons

A

basic functional and structural unit of mature compact bone that is oriented parallel to bone diaphysis

181
Q

what are the 4 components of an osteon

A

central canal, concentric lamellae, osteocytes, canaliculi

182
Q

central canal

A

cylindrical channel in center of osteon and parallel to it that has blood vessels ad nervves extend through the channel

183
Q

concentric lamallae

A

rings of bone CT that surround the central canal

184
Q

osteocytes

A

mature bone cells found in lacunae that help maintain the bone matrix

185
Q

canaliculi

A

tiny interconnecting channels within bone CT that extend from each lacuna and travel through lamallae and connect to lacunae and central canal

186
Q

canaliculi house

A

osteocyte projections that allow intercellular contact

187
Q

canaliculi allows for exchange of

A

nutrients, minerals, gases, and wastes between blood vessels and osteocytes

188
Q

ossification (osteogenesis)

A

formation and development of bone CT

189
Q

where does ossification or osteogenesis begin

A

the embryo

190
Q

how long does ossification occur

A

continues through childhood and adolescence

191
Q

when does the skeleton begin forming in embryonic development

A

8-12 weeks

192
Q

intramembranous ossification (dermal ossification)

A

bone growth within a membrane (thin layer of mesenchyme)

193
Q

what does intermembranous ossification produce

A

flat bones of skull
some of the facial bones
mandible
central part of the clavicle

194
Q

steps of intermembranous ossification

A
  1. mesenchyme cells are going to give rise to osteoblasts and ossification centers form within thickened regions of mesenchyme
  2. osteoid undergoes calcification
  3. woven bone and surrounding periosteum form
  4. lamellar bone replaces woven bone as compact and spongy bone form
195
Q

endochorndral ossification

A

begins with a hyaline cartilage model and produces most bones in the skeleton like the upper and lower limbs, pelvis, vertebrae, ends of clavicle

196
Q

steps of endochondral ossification

A
  1. fetal hyaline cartilage model develops
  2. cartilage calcifies and a periosteal bone collar forms around diaphysis
  3. primary ossification center forms the diaphysis
  4. secondary ossification centers form in epiphyses
  5. bone replaces cartilage, except the articular cartilage and epiphyseal plates
  6. epiphyseal plates ossify and form epiphyseal lines
197
Q

interstitial growth

A

dependent upon cartilage growth in epiphyseal plate

198
Q

five zones of epiphyseal plate

A

zone of resting cartilage
zone of proliferating cartilage
zone of hypertrophic cartilage
zone of calcified cartilage
zone of ossification

199
Q

Zone 1: resting cartilage

A

closest to epiphysis

200
Q

zone 2: proliferating cartilage

A

see lots of chondrocytes

201
Q

zone 3: hypertrophic cartilage

A

not forming new cartilage but these cells are maturing and getting larger

202
Q

zone 4: calcified cartilage

A

cartilage is getting calcified

203
Q

zone 5: ossification

A

osteoblasts in the diaphyseal region are moving into calcified cartilage and osteoblasts are maturing into osteocytes

204
Q

bone growth in length occurs specifically in what zones

A

zone 2 (proliferating cartilage) and zone 3 (hypertrophic cartilage)

205
Q

bone growth in length occurs when

A

zone 2 and 3 pushes zone of resting cartilage toward epiphysis where hyaline cartilage permits growth and is then replaced by bone

206
Q

epiphyseal plate

A

maintains thickness during childhood and once matured the rate of cartilage production slows

207
Q

once the rate of cartilage production slows down _____ activity increases

A

osteoblastic

208
Q

what is the remnant of the epiphyseal plate in adults

A

epiphyseal line

209
Q

bone remodeling

A

continues throughout adulthood and occurs at different rates

210
Q

what percent of the skeleton is replaced yearly

A

20%

211
Q

bone remodeling is dependent on the coordinated activites of

A

osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts

212
Q

bone remodeling is influenced by

A

hormones and mechanical stress

213
Q

what increases due to mechanical stress

A

bone mass

214
Q

a decrease in bone mass from removal of mechanical stress causes

A

reduced collagen formation and demineralization

215
Q

growth hormone is also called

A

somatotropin

216
Q

growth hormone is produced by

A

anterior pituitary gland

217
Q

how does the growth hormone work

A

stimulates liver to produce hormone somatomedin that directly stimulate growth of cartilage in epiphyseal plate

218
Q

thyroid hormone

A

secreted by thyroid gland and influences basal metabolic rate of bone cells and regulates normal activity at epiphyseal plates

219
Q

estrogen and testosterone

A

secreted in large amounts during puberty and dramatically accelerate bone growth

220
Q

what is the relationship between bone formation and cartilage growth

A

bone formation rate is greater than cartilage growth

221
Q

calcium is required for

A

muscle contraction
exocytosis of molecules from cells like neurons
stimulation of the heart by pacemaker cells
blood clotting

222
Q

what primary hormones regulate blood calcium

A

calcitriol and parathyroid hormone

223
Q

calcitriol production

A

UV radiation or dietary intake is combined with the precursor molecule and then converted to vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol)

vitamin d3 is transported to liver cells and then coverted to calcidiol (when an -OH group is added)

then it travels through the blood stream into the kidney where it is converted into calcitriol when another -OH group is added

224
Q

parathryoid hormone (PTH)

A

secreted and released by parathyroid glands in response to reduced calcium levels

225
Q

parathyroid hormone accelerates

A

conversion to calcitriol by kidney

226
Q

PTH and calcitriol interact with major organs such as

A

bones, kidneys, and small intestine

227
Q

PTH and calcitriol with bone

A

act synergistcally to increase release of calcium from the bone into the blood and increase osteoclast activity

228
Q

PTH and calcitriol with kidneys

A

stimulate kidney to excrete less calcium in urine which increases calcium reabsorption in the kidney tubules

229
Q

PTH and calcitriol with small intestene

A

only calcitriol increases absorption of calcium from small intestine into the blood

230
Q

effects of parathyroid hormone and calcitriol on blood calcium levels

A

1.low blood calcium levels
2. parathyroid glands detect low blood calcium levels
3. prathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone
4. PTH and calcitriol act synergistically to increase activity in bone, decrease calcium in kindeys, and incease absorption of calcium in small intestine
5. blood calcium levels rise and return to normal homestatic range

231
Q

calcitonin

A

has opposite stimulus and opposite effects of calcitrol that aids in regulating blood calcium levels

232
Q

calcitonin is produced when

A

there is high blood calcium levels or hyperglycemia

233
Q

what releases calcitonin

A

thyroid gland

234
Q

calcitonin inhibits

A

osteoclast acitivty

235
Q

calcitonin stimulates

A

kidneys to increase loss of calcium in the urine which reduces blood calcium levels and reduces bone reapsorption

Human Anatomy and Physiology (5 decks)

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