Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
anatomy
A
studies the form and structure of the body
2
Q
physiology
A
examines how the body functions
3
Q
form and function are
A
interrelated
4
Q
frontal section/coronal section
A
cuts the body into anterior and posterior parts
5
Q
cross-sectional/transverse
A
cuts body into superior and inferior parts
6
Q
midsaggital section
A
divides body into left and right (midsagittal specifically even)
7
Q
homeostasis
A
the ability of an organism to maintain consistent internal environment or “steady state” in response to changing internal or external conditions
8
Q
pathology (disease) results from
A
disturbed homeostasis
9
Q
components of a homeostatic control mechanism
A
- stimulus- changes in a variable (temp)
- receptor- structure that detects stimulus (sensory neurons in skin)
- receptor send input information to the control center (if receptor and control center are separate structures)
- control center- integrates input and initiates change through the effector (usually brain or endocrine gland)
- control center sends output information to an effector
- effector- structure (gland) that brings about a change to the stimulus
HOMESTASIS RESTORED
10
Q
what happens in negative feedback
A
homeostatic control responds to move variable in opposite direction to bring it into normal range
11
Q
positive feedback
A
stimulus reinforced to continue moving variable in same direction until a climactic event occurs, then body returns to homestasis
12
Q
example of negative feedback
A
cold environmental temp lowers body temp to below normal
sensory receptors in skin detect cold
hypothalamus of brain compares sensory input regarding temp to normal set point of 37 degrees C
blood vessels in skin constrict, sweat glands become inactive; skeletal muscles shiver to generate heat
body temp is returned to normal
13
Q
positive feedback example
A
baby sucks on breasts
sensory receptors in skin of breast detect the sucking and send impulses to hypothalamus
hypothalamus signals posterior pituitary to release oxytocin
breast is stimulated to eject breast milk
milk is released and baby continues sucking
14
Q
tissues
A
groups of similar cells and extracellular material, share a common function
15
Q
histology
A
study of tissues
16
Q
what are the four types of tissues
A
epithelial
connective
muscle
nervous
17
Q
characteristics of epithelial tissue
A
composed of a single layer or two or more layers of closely packed cells
contains little to no extracellular matrix
covers body surfaces
lines body cavities
forms majority of glands
18
Q
simple epithelium
A
one layer thick with all cells in direct contact with basement membrane
only in areas where stress is minimal
functions in filtration, absorption, or secretion
eg. lining or air sacs of lungs, intestines, blood vessels
19
Q
stratified epithelium
A
two or more layers of epithelial cells where only the basal layer is in contact with basement membrane
in areas that are subject to stress to enable better ability to resist wear and tear
skin, lining of esophagus, lining of urinary bladder
20
Q
cells in the basal layer of stratified epithelium are continuously regenerated as
A
apical layer cells are lost
21
Q
pseudostratified epithelium
A
simple epithelium that has distribution at different levels causing it to appear layered but all cells are attached to basement membrane
22
Q
squamous cells
A
flat, wide, irregular in shape
floor tile arrangment
nucleus flat
23
Q
cuboidal cells
A
about as tall as they are wide
edges somewhat rounded
nucleus spherical and in center of cell
24
Q
columnar cells
A
slender and taller than they are wide
nucleolus oval; oriented lengthwise in basal region
25
transitional cells
change shape depending on stretch of epithelium (lining of bladder)
26
where would you find pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
upper respiratory tract like the trachea
helps protect and secrete mucus by way of cilia
27
where would you find simple squamous epithelium
within alveolus walls in the lung and in capillary walls
a single thin layer allows for rapid diffusion of gases between an alveolus of the lung and a capillary
28
where would you find simple columnar epithelium
within small intestine
the microvilli and single layer of cells facilitate absorption of nutrients and the goblet cells secrete mucus
29
where would you find nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
lining the oral cavity and esophagus
multiple layers of cells withstand abrasion from ingested materials
30
where would you find keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
epidermis of skin
multiple layers protect underlying tissue from abrasion; offers stronger protection than nonkeratinized epithelium
31
where would you find transitional epithelium
lining of urinary bladder, ureters, and part of urethra
the distensible multilayer tissue protects deeper tissue from urine, distends and relaxes to accommodate urine volume changes
32
glands
individual cells (goblet cells) or multicellular organs that secrete substances like mucin, hormones, or enzymes used elsewhere or for elimination
33
endocrine glands
lack ducts
secrete hormones into blood
chemical messengers that influence cell activity elsewhere
34
endocrine glands
lack ducts
secrete hormones into blood
chemical messengers that influence cell activity elsewhere
35
exocrine glands
connected with epithelial surface by duct
eg. sweat glands, mammary glands, salivary glands
36
acinus
secretory portion of gland
37
duct
conducting portion of gland
38
simple glands
simple tubular
simple branched tubular
simple coiled tubular
simple acinar
simple branched acinar
39
compound glands
compound tubular
compound acinar
compound tubular acinar
40
what is the difference between simple glands and compound glands
simple glands contain an unbranched duct while compound glands contained a branched duct
41
connective tissue
most widely distrubuted tissue that supports, protects, and binds organs
consists of cells, protein fibers, and ground substance
examples: tendons, ligaments, adipose tissue, cartilage, bone, blood
42
protein fibers in connective tissue assist with
strength and support
43
collagen fibers
unbranched, cable-like long fibers that are strong flexible and resistant to stretching
usually found in tendons and ligaments
44
reticular fibers
similar to collagen but thinner and form branching, interwoven framework
tough but flexible
abundant in stroma
-lymph nodes
-spleen
-liver
45
elastic fibers
contain protein elastin and are branching and wavy
stretch and recoil easily
help return structures back to shape after stretching
found in skin, arteries, and lungs
46
ground substance
noncellular material produced by CT cells
ground substance + protein fibers = ECM
47
in blood what is the consistency of ground substance
viscous (liquid)
48
in cartilage what is the consistency of ground substance
semisolid
49
in bone what is the consistency of ground substance
solid
50
all connective tissue is derived from
mesenchyme
51
mesenchyme differentiates into what connective tissue types
CT proper
supporting CT
fluid CT
52
connective tissue proper divides into what 2 categories
loose CT
dense CT
53
loose CT
fewer cells and protein fibers than dense CT
protein fibers are sparse and irregularly arranged
abundant ground substance
supports structures
54
what are the three types of loose CT
areolar- collagen and elastic fibers; subcutaneous layer
adipose- composed mostly of adipocytes
reticular- reticular fibers, framework for lymphatic organs
55
dense CT
mostly protein fibers
less ground substance than loose CT
collagen fibers predominate
56
what are the 3 categories of dense CT
dense regular
dense irregular
elastic
57
dense regular connective tissue
densely packed parallel arrays of collagen fibers; fibroblasts squeezed between layers of fibers; scare ground substance; greatly reduced blood supply
58
what is the function of dense regular CT
attaches bone to bone (ligament) as well as muscle to bone (tendon); resists stress applied in one direction
59
where is dense regular CT found
tendons and ligaments
60
dense irregular CT
collagen fibers randomly arranged and clumped together; fibroblasts in spaces among fibers; more ground substance than in dense regular CT, extensive blood supply
61
what is the function of dense irregular CT
withstands stress applied in all directions, durable
62
where is dense irregular CT found
most of dermis of skin; periostium covering bone; perichondrium covering cartilage, some organ capsules
63
elastic CT
predominately composed of elastic fibers; fibroblasts occupy some spaces between fibers
64
what is the function of elastic CT
allows for stretching and recoil
65
where is elastic CT found
walls of elastic arteries (aorta), trachea, and vocal chords
66
what are the two types of supporting CT
cartilage
bone
67
cartilage
firm semisolid extracellular matrix that consists of collagen and elastic protein fibers
contain chondrocytes (mature cells that occupy small spaces called lacunae)
surrounded by a dense irregular CT covering
-perichondrium
68
hyaline cartilage provides
support and forms most of fetal skeleton
69
where is hyaline cartilage found
tip of nose, trachea; most of larynx, costal cartilage; articular ends of long bones; most of fetal skeleton
70
fibrocartilage resists
compression; acts as shock absorber in some joints
71
elastic cartilage function
maintains shape while permitting extensive flexibility
72
where is elastic cartilage found
external ear, epiglottis of larynx
73
function of bone
provides levers for body movement, supports soft structures, protects organs, stores calcium and phosphorus; spongy bone contains hemopoietic tissue and is the site for hemopoiesis
74
what are the two types of fluid CT
blood and lymph
75
blood
fluid connective tissue with formed elements
-cells
-erythrocytes
-leukocytes
-cellular fragments (platelets)
76
blood contains a liquid ground substance called
plasma
77
components of plasma
dissolved proteins
transports nutrients, wastes, horemones
78
lymph
derived from blood plasma
colorless fluid containing white blood cells
bathes tissue cells throughout body
ultimately returned to bloodstream via lymphatic vessels
79
body membranes
formed from epithelial layer bound to underlying CT
line body cavities
cover viscera
cover bodys external surface
80
four types of body membranes
mucous
serous
cutaneous
synovial
81
mucous membrane lines
compartments that open to external environments such as digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts
82
what functions does the mucous membrane perform
absorptive, protective, and secretory functions
83
what is the mucous membrane formed from
epithleium and underlying CT
covered with a layer of mucus derived from goblet cells, multicellular glands, or both
84
serous membranes
lines body cavities that do not open to external environment such as the thoracic and abdominal cavity
85
what is the serous membrane made of
simple squamous epithleium (mesothelium)
86
serous membrane forms
parietal and visceral layers
87
where is the serous membrane in relation to parietal and visceral layers of a cavity
in between
88
serous fluid
derived from blood plasma, helps reduce friction between opposing sufaces
89
cutaneous membrane
refers to skin, covers external surface of body
composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
90
what does the cutaneous membrane do
protects internal organs and prevents water loss
91
synovial membrane
lines some joints of body
92
what is the synovial membrane composed of
areolar CT
covered by simple squamous epithelium
93
synovial fluid
secreted by epithelial cells
reduces friction among moving bone parts
distributes nutrients to cartilage
94
glucose catabolism
step-by-step breakdown of glucose with energy release
95
what is formed as an end product of glucose catabolism
CO2 and H2O
96
glucose
energy rich molecule with many C-C C-H and C-O bonds
97
chemical reaction of glucose catabolism
C6H12O6 +6 O2 ----> 6CO2 + 6 H2O
98
glucose is a
carbohydrate
99
catabolism
breakdown of something
100
what are the 4 steps of cellular respiration
glycolysis
intermediate stage
citric acid cycle
etc
101
where does glycolysis occur
in the cytosol
102
which of the 4 steps of cellular respiration can occur without oxygen
glycolysis
103
explain the process of glycolysis
glucose activation:
glucose changes to fructose biphosphate by using 2 ATP molecules which breaks down to 2 ADP molecules which provides energy to create fructose biphosphate
energy harvest:
fructose biphosphate is converted into G3P which is then coverted to pyruvate by the conversion of 4 ADP to 4 ATP and 2 NAD+ to 2 NADH
104
glucose activation is an example of what kind of reaction
endergonic - requires input of energy
105
energy harvest is an example of what kind of reaction
exergonic - gives of energy
106
what is the total ATP produced at the end of glycolysis
4 ATP produced in total
2 ATP end product
107
net product of glycolysis
2 ATP
108
end products of glycolysis
2 ATP, 2 NADH
109
intermediate stage
links glycolysis and the citric acid cycle by taking pyruvate and adding CoA to create pyruvate dehydrogenase to form acetyl CoA and remove a carbon dioxide atom by decarboxylation
110
where does the intermediate stage occur
within mitochondrial matrix
111
mitochondria
double membrane organelles where the intermediate stage, citric acid cycle, and etc occur
112
mitochondrial matrix
semi liquid fluid filled with enzymes that help catalyze reactioins
113
cristae
inner folds of the mitochondria
114
matrix of mitochondria
inner membrane
115
outer compartment
space outside of cristae
116
is the intermediate stage exergonic or endergonic
exergonic
117
citric acid cycle
pyruvate - acetyl CoA
acetyl CoA binds to oxaloacetic acid which releases CoA
118
acetyl CoA is converted into
two CO2 molecules
119
in one cycle of the citric acid cycle what is formed
ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2
120
what is higher energy FAD or FADH2
FADH2
121
why is the citric acid cycle called a cycle
oxaloacetic acid is regenerated at end of cycle to bind with acetyl CoA again
122
2 turns of one glucose molecule forms
2 ATP, 6 NADH 2 FADH2
123
what is the function of the electron transport system
transfer of electrons from NADH and FADH2 which provides energy to be released to make ATP
124
where does the ETC occur
the cristae of the mitochondria
125
what does the ETC consist of
electron carriers, H+ pumps, ATP synthase enzymes
126
what is the final electron acceptor
oxygen
127
NADH and FADH2 pass electrons throguh
a series of electron carriers within cristae with the last electron acceptor being oxygen
128
the energy of electrons "falling" is used by H+ pumps to...
move H+ up its concentration gradient from the matrix to outercompartment
129
ATP synthase harnesses the kinetic energy of the H+ falling down its concentration gradient to
bond ADP and P to form ATP
130
what would happen to the ETC is oxygen wasn't present
ETC wouldn't occur so no ATP would be produced
131
chemiosmosis
refers to the passive diffusion of H+ ions
132
after H+ is pumped into the outer compartment they can passively diffuse back to the matrix through ATP synthase which helps
capture energy to create ATP
133
which stages of ATP production make ATP through substrate level phosphorylation
glycolysis and citric acid cycle
134
for every NADH we get how many molecules of ATP
3
135
for every FADH we get how many ATP
2
136
gluconeogensis
metabolic pathway resulting in generation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as fats and proteins
137
where does gluconeogenesis usually occur
in liver
138
initiation of transcription
DNA is unwound by enzymes to expose a segment of a gene; RNA polymerase attaches to promoter region of gene
139
elongation of transcription
RNA polymerase assists with complementary base pairings of free ribonucleotides with exposed bases of the template strand of DNA
140
termination of transcirption
RNA polymerase reaches the terminal region of the gene; newly formed RNA strand is released from the DNA strand, transcription is complete and DNA finishes rewinding into a double helix
141
initiation phase of translation
small subunit, large subunit and charge tRNA with UAC anticodon and attached methionine (Met) come together to form a complex
142
codon
sequence of three bases
143
anticodon
sequence of bases is complimentary to mRNA
144
e
exit
145
p
pecital
146
a
aminopectial
147
elongation phase of translation
anticodon of a charged tRNA complementary base-pairs with codon of mRNA in the A site
peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids
ribosome shifts down one codon and additional amino acids delivered by tRNA base-pair with mRNA until a stop codon is reached
148
termination phase of translation
release factor binds with stop codon of mRNA; newly formed protein strand is released
149
where does transcription occur
in the nucleus
150
where does translation occur
at the ribosomes
151
amino acids
can be used to generate ATP by the removal of an amine group (deamination) creating urea
can enter into glycolysis, intermediate stage, or citric acid cycle
152
how many amino acids are glucogenic
13/21
153
lipids
fats
154
triglycerides
most common, long-term energy storage in adipose tissue that provide structural support, cushioining, and insulation
155
lipogenesis
formation of triglycerides when conditions of excess nutrients exist
156
lipolysis
breakdown of triglycerides when nutrients are needed
157
what reaction forms a triglyceride
a dehydration reaction
158
can essential fatty acids be synthesized by the body
no so they have to be included in diet
159
glycerol and fatty acids
glycerol enters pathway of glycolysis and converted to glucose through gluconeogenesis
carbons of fatty acids are removed to form acetyl CoA through beta oxidation which produces ketones
160
what would happen if there were too many ketones
it would be harmful because they're acidic
161
beta oxidation
fatty acids are enzymatically changed two carbons at a time to acetyl CoA
162
lipoproteins
lipids with protein "wrap" to facilitate transport
163
where are lipoproteins formed
in the liver
164
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
contain the most lipid
165
low density lipoproteins (LDL)
less lipid than VLDL
166
high density lipoproteins (HDL)
least amount of lipid
167
what lipids are involved with transportation from the liver to peripheral tissues
VLDLs and LDLs
168
what lipids are involved with transport from peripheral tissues to the liver
HDLs
