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Human Anatomy and Physiology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

anatomy

A

studies the form and structure of the body

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2
Q

physiology

A

examines how the body functions

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3
Q

form and function are

A

interrelated

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4
Q

frontal section/coronal section

A

cuts the body into anterior and posterior parts

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5
Q

cross-sectional/transverse

A

cuts body into superior and inferior parts

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6
Q

midsaggital section

A

divides body into left and right (midsagittal specifically even)

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7
Q

homeostasis

A

the ability of an organism to maintain consistent internal environment or “steady state” in response to changing internal or external conditions

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8
Q

pathology (disease) results from

A

disturbed homeostasis

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9
Q

components of a homeostatic control mechanism

A
  1. stimulus- changes in a variable (temp)
  2. receptor- structure that detects stimulus (sensory neurons in skin)
  3. receptor send input information to the control center (if receptor and control center are separate structures)
  4. control center- integrates input and initiates change through the effector (usually brain or endocrine gland)
  5. control center sends output information to an effector
  6. effector- structure (gland) that brings about a change to the stimulus
    HOMESTASIS RESTORED
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10
Q

what happens in negative feedback

A

homeostatic control responds to move variable in opposite direction to bring it into normal range

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11
Q

positive feedback

A

stimulus reinforced to continue moving variable in same direction until a climactic event occurs, then body returns to homestasis

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12
Q

example of negative feedback

A

cold environmental temp lowers body temp to below normal

sensory receptors in skin detect cold

hypothalamus of brain compares sensory input regarding temp to normal set point of 37 degrees C

blood vessels in skin constrict, sweat glands become inactive; skeletal muscles shiver to generate heat

body temp is returned to normal

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13
Q

positive feedback example

A

baby sucks on breasts

sensory receptors in skin of breast detect the sucking and send impulses to hypothalamus

hypothalamus signals posterior pituitary to release oxytocin

breast is stimulated to eject breast milk

milk is released and baby continues sucking

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14
Q

tissues

A

groups of similar cells and extracellular material, share a common function

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15
Q

histology

A

study of tissues

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16
Q

what are the four types of tissues

A

epithelial
connective
muscle
nervous

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17
Q

characteristics of epithelial tissue

A

composed of a single layer or two or more layers of closely packed cells
contains little to no extracellular matrix
covers body surfaces
lines body cavities
forms majority of glands

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18
Q

simple epithelium

A

one layer thick with all cells in direct contact with basement membrane

only in areas where stress is minimal

functions in filtration, absorption, or secretion

eg. lining or air sacs of lungs, intestines, blood vessels

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19
Q

stratified epithelium

A

two or more layers of epithelial cells where only the basal layer is in contact with basement membrane

in areas that are subject to stress to enable better ability to resist wear and tear

skin, lining of esophagus, lining of urinary bladder

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20
Q

cells in the basal layer of stratified epithelium are continuously regenerated as

A

apical layer cells are lost

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21
Q

pseudostratified epithelium

A

simple epithelium that has distribution at different levels causing it to appear layered but all cells are attached to basement membrane

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22
Q

squamous cells

A

flat, wide, irregular in shape

floor tile arrangment

nucleus flat

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23
Q

cuboidal cells

A

about as tall as they are wide

edges somewhat rounded

nucleus spherical and in center of cell

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24
Q

columnar cells

A

slender and taller than they are wide

nucleolus oval; oriented lengthwise in basal region

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25
Q

transitional cells

A

change shape depending on stretch of epithelium (lining of bladder)

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26
Q

where would you find pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A

upper respiratory tract like the trachea

helps protect and secrete mucus by way of cilia

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27
Q

where would you find simple squamous epithelium

A

within alveolus walls in the lung and in capillary walls

a single thin layer allows for rapid diffusion of gases between an alveolus of the lung and a capillary

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28
Q

where would you find simple columnar epithelium

A

within small intestine

the microvilli and single layer of cells facilitate absorption of nutrients and the goblet cells secrete mucus

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29
Q

where would you find nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

A

lining the oral cavity and esophagus

multiple layers of cells withstand abrasion from ingested materials

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30
Q

where would you find keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

A

epidermis of skin

multiple layers protect underlying tissue from abrasion; offers stronger protection than nonkeratinized epithelium

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31
Q

where would you find transitional epithelium

A

lining of urinary bladder, ureters, and part of urethra

the distensible multilayer tissue protects deeper tissue from urine, distends and relaxes to accommodate urine volume changes

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32
Q

glands

A

individual cells (goblet cells) or multicellular organs that secrete substances like mucin, hormones, or enzymes used elsewhere or for elimination

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33
Q

endocrine glands

A

lack ducts

secrete hormones into blood

chemical messengers that influence cell activity elsewhere

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34
Q

endocrine glands

A

lack ducts

secrete hormones into blood

chemical messengers that influence cell activity elsewhere

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35
Q

exocrine glands

A

connected with epithelial surface by duct

eg. sweat glands, mammary glands, salivary glands

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36
Q

acinus

A

secretory portion of gland

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37
Q

duct

A

conducting portion of gland

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38
Q

simple glands

A

simple tubular
simple branched tubular
simple coiled tubular
simple acinar
simple branched acinar

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39
Q

compound glands

A

compound tubular
compound acinar
compound tubular acinar

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40
Q

what is the difference between simple glands and compound glands

A

simple glands contain an unbranched duct while compound glands contained a branched duct

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41
Q

connective tissue

A

most widely distrubuted tissue that supports, protects, and binds organs

consists of cells, protein fibers, and ground substance

examples: tendons, ligaments, adipose tissue, cartilage, bone, blood

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42
Q

protein fibers in connective tissue assist with

A

strength and support

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43
Q

collagen fibers

A

unbranched, cable-like long fibers that are strong flexible and resistant to stretching

usually found in tendons and ligaments

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44
Q

reticular fibers

A

similar to collagen but thinner and form branching, interwoven framework

tough but flexible

abundant in stroma
-lymph nodes
-spleen
-liver

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45
Q

elastic fibers

A

contain protein elastin and are branching and wavy

stretch and recoil easily

help return structures back to shape after stretching

found in skin, arteries, and lungs

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46
Q

ground substance

A

noncellular material produced by CT cells

ground substance + protein fibers = ECM

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47
Q

in blood what is the consistency of ground substance

A

viscous (liquid)

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48
Q

in cartilage what is the consistency of ground substance

A

semisolid

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49
Q

in bone what is the consistency of ground substance

A

solid

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50
Q

all connective tissue is derived from

A

mesenchyme

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51
Q

mesenchyme differentiates into what connective tissue types

A

CT proper
supporting CT
fluid CT

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52
Q

connective tissue proper divides into what 2 categories

A

loose CT
dense CT

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53
Q

loose CT

A

fewer cells and protein fibers than dense CT
protein fibers are sparse and irregularly arranged
abundant ground substance
supports structures

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54
Q

what are the three types of loose CT

A

areolar- collagen and elastic fibers; subcutaneous layer
adipose- composed mostly of adipocytes
reticular- reticular fibers, framework for lymphatic organs

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55
Q

dense CT

A

mostly protein fibers
less ground substance than loose CT
collagen fibers predominate

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56
Q

what are the 3 categories of dense CT

A

dense regular
dense irregular
elastic

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57
Q

dense regular connective tissue

A

densely packed parallel arrays of collagen fibers; fibroblasts squeezed between layers of fibers; scare ground substance; greatly reduced blood supply

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58
Q

what is the function of dense regular CT

A

attaches bone to bone (ligament) as well as muscle to bone (tendon); resists stress applied in one direction

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59
Q

where is dense regular CT found

A

tendons and ligaments

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60
Q

dense irregular CT

A

collagen fibers randomly arranged and clumped together; fibroblasts in spaces among fibers; more ground substance than in dense regular CT, extensive blood supply

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61
Q

what is the function of dense irregular CT

A

withstands stress applied in all directions, durable

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62
Q

where is dense irregular CT found

A

most of dermis of skin; periostium covering bone; perichondrium covering cartilage, some organ capsules

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63
Q

elastic CT

A

predominately composed of elastic fibers; fibroblasts occupy some spaces between fibers

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64
Q

what is the function of elastic CT

A

allows for stretching and recoil

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65
Q

where is elastic CT found

A

walls of elastic arteries (aorta), trachea, and vocal chords

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66
Q

what are the two types of supporting CT

A

cartilage
bone

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67
Q

cartilage

A

firm semisolid extracellular matrix that consists of collagen and elastic protein fibers

contain chondrocytes (mature cells that occupy small spaces called lacunae)

surrounded by a dense irregular CT covering
-perichondrium

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68
Q

hyaline cartilage provides

A

support and forms most of fetal skeleton

69
Q

where is hyaline cartilage found

A

tip of nose, trachea; most of larynx, costal cartilage; articular ends of long bones; most of fetal skeleton

70
Q

fibrocartilage resists

A

compression; acts as shock absorber in some joints

71
Q

elastic cartilage function

A

maintains shape while permitting extensive flexibility

72
Q

where is elastic cartilage found

A

external ear, epiglottis of larynx

73
Q

function of bone

A

provides levers for body movement, supports soft structures, protects organs, stores calcium and phosphorus; spongy bone contains hemopoietic tissue and is the site for hemopoiesis

74
Q

what are the two types of fluid CT

A

blood and lymph

75
Q

blood

A

fluid connective tissue with formed elements
-cells
-erythrocytes
-leukocytes
-cellular fragments (platelets)

76
Q

blood contains a liquid ground substance called

A

plasma

77
Q

components of plasma

A

dissolved proteins
transports nutrients, wastes, horemones

78
Q

lymph

A

derived from blood plasma
colorless fluid containing white blood cells
bathes tissue cells throughout body
ultimately returned to bloodstream via lymphatic vessels

79
Q

body membranes

A

formed from epithelial layer bound to underlying CT
line body cavities
cover viscera
cover bodys external surface

80
Q

four types of body membranes

A

mucous
serous
cutaneous
synovial

81
Q

mucous membrane lines

A

compartments that open to external environments such as digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts

82
Q

what functions does the mucous membrane perform

A

absorptive, protective, and secretory functions

83
Q

what is the mucous membrane formed from

A

epithleium and underlying CT
covered with a layer of mucus derived from goblet cells, multicellular glands, or both

84
Q

serous membranes

A

lines body cavities that do not open to external environment such as the thoracic and abdominal cavity

85
Q

what is the serous membrane made of

A

simple squamous epithleium (mesothelium)

86
Q

serous membrane forms

A

parietal and visceral layers

87
Q

where is the serous membrane in relation to parietal and visceral layers of a cavity

A

in between

88
Q

serous fluid

A

derived from blood plasma, helps reduce friction between opposing sufaces

89
Q

cutaneous membrane

A

refers to skin, covers external surface of body

composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

90
Q

what does the cutaneous membrane do

A

protects internal organs and prevents water loss

91
Q

synovial membrane

A

lines some joints of body

92
Q

what is the synovial membrane composed of

A

areolar CT
covered by simple squamous epithelium

93
Q

synovial fluid

A

secreted by epithelial cells
reduces friction among moving bone parts
distributes nutrients to cartilage

94
Q

glucose catabolism

A

step-by-step breakdown of glucose with energy release

95
Q

what is formed as an end product of glucose catabolism

A

CO2 and H2O

96
Q

glucose

A

energy rich molecule with many C-C C-H and C-O bonds

97
Q

chemical reaction of glucose catabolism

A

C6H12O6 +6 O2 —-> 6CO2 + 6 H2O

98
Q

glucose is a

A

carbohydrate

99
Q

catabolism

A

breakdown of something

100
Q

what are the 4 steps of cellular respiration

A

glycolysis
intermediate stage
citric acid cycle
etc

101
Q

where does glycolysis occur

A

in the cytosol

102
Q

which of the 4 steps of cellular respiration can occur without oxygen

A

glycolysis

103
Q

explain the process of glycolysis

A

glucose activation:
glucose changes to fructose biphosphate by using 2 ATP molecules which breaks down to 2 ADP molecules which provides energy to create fructose biphosphate

energy harvest:
fructose biphosphate is converted into G3P which is then coverted to pyruvate by the conversion of 4 ADP to 4 ATP and 2 NAD+ to 2 NADH

104
Q

glucose activation is an example of what kind of reaction

A

endergonic - requires input of energy

105
Q

energy harvest is an example of what kind of reaction

A

exergonic - gives of energy

106
Q

what is the total ATP produced at the end of glycolysis

A

4 ATP produced in total
2 ATP end product

107
Q

net product of glycolysis

A

2 ATP

108
Q

end products of glycolysis

A

2 ATP, 2 NADH

109
Q

intermediate stage

A

links glycolysis and the citric acid cycle by taking pyruvate and adding CoA to create pyruvate dehydrogenase to form acetyl CoA and remove a carbon dioxide atom by decarboxylation

110
Q

where does the intermediate stage occur

A

within mitochondrial matrix

111
Q

mitochondria

A

double membrane organelles where the intermediate stage, citric acid cycle, and etc occur

112
Q

mitochondrial matrix

A

semi liquid fluid filled with enzymes that help catalyze reactioins

113
Q

cristae

A

inner folds of the mitochondria

114
Q

matrix of mitochondria

A

inner membrane

115
Q

outer compartment

A

space outside of cristae

116
Q

is the intermediate stage exergonic or endergonic

A

exergonic

117
Q

citric acid cycle

A

pyruvate - acetyl CoA
acetyl CoA binds to oxaloacetic acid which releases CoA

118
Q

acetyl CoA is converted into

A

two CO2 molecules

119
Q

in one cycle of the citric acid cycle what is formed

A

ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2

120
Q

what is higher energy FAD or FADH2

A

FADH2

121
Q

why is the citric acid cycle called a cycle

A

oxaloacetic acid is regenerated at end of cycle to bind with acetyl CoA again

122
Q

2 turns of one glucose molecule forms

A

2 ATP, 6 NADH 2 FADH2

123
Q

what is the function of the electron transport system

A

transfer of electrons from NADH and FADH2 which provides energy to be released to make ATP

124
Q

where does the ETC occur

A

the cristae of the mitochondria

125
Q

what does the ETC consist of

A

electron carriers, H+ pumps, ATP synthase enzymes

126
Q

what is the final electron acceptor

A

oxygen

127
Q

NADH and FADH2 pass electrons throguh

A

a series of electron carriers within cristae with the last electron acceptor being oxygen

128
Q

the energy of electrons “falling” is used by H+ pumps to…

A

move H+ up its concentration gradient from the matrix to outercompartment

129
Q

ATP synthase harnesses the kinetic energy of the H+ falling down its concentration gradient to

A

bond ADP and P to form ATP

130
Q

what would happen to the ETC is oxygen wasn’t present

A

ETC wouldn’t occur so no ATP would be produced

131
Q

chemiosmosis

A

refers to the passive diffusion of H+ ions

132
Q

after H+ is pumped into the outer compartment they can passively diffuse back to the matrix through ATP synthase which helps

A

capture energy to create ATP

133
Q

which stages of ATP production make ATP through substrate level phosphorylation

A

glycolysis and citric acid cycle

134
Q

for every NADH we get how many molecules of ATP

A

3

135
Q

for every FADH we get how many ATP

A

2

136
Q

gluconeogensis

A

metabolic pathway resulting in generation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as fats and proteins

137
Q

where does gluconeogenesis usually occur

A

in liver

138
Q

initiation of transcription

A

DNA is unwound by enzymes to expose a segment of a gene; RNA polymerase attaches to promoter region of gene

139
Q

elongation of transcription

A

RNA polymerase assists with complementary base pairings of free ribonucleotides with exposed bases of the template strand of DNA

140
Q

termination of transcirption

A

RNA polymerase reaches the terminal region of the gene; newly formed RNA strand is released from the DNA strand, transcription is complete and DNA finishes rewinding into a double helix

141
Q

initiation phase of translation

A

small subunit, large subunit and charge tRNA with UAC anticodon and attached methionine (Met) come together to form a complex

142
Q

codon

A

sequence of three bases

143
Q

anticodon

A

sequence of bases is complimentary to mRNA

144
Q

e

A

exit

145
Q

p

A

pecital

146
Q

a

A

aminopectial

147
Q

elongation phase of translation

A

anticodon of a charged tRNA complementary base-pairs with codon of mRNA in the A site

peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids

ribosome shifts down one codon and additional amino acids delivered by tRNA base-pair with mRNA until a stop codon is reached

148
Q

termination phase of translation

A

release factor binds with stop codon of mRNA; newly formed protein strand is released

149
Q

where does transcription occur

A

in the nucleus

150
Q

where does translation occur

A

at the ribosomes

151
Q

amino acids

A

can be used to generate ATP by the removal of an amine group (deamination) creating urea

can enter into glycolysis, intermediate stage, or citric acid cycle

152
Q

how many amino acids are glucogenic

A

13/21

153
Q

lipids

A

fats

154
Q

triglycerides

A

most common, long-term energy storage in adipose tissue that provide structural support, cushioining, and insulation

155
Q

lipogenesis

A

formation of triglycerides when conditions of excess nutrients exist

156
Q

lipolysis

A

breakdown of triglycerides when nutrients are needed

157
Q

what reaction forms a triglyceride

A

a dehydration reaction

158
Q

can essential fatty acids be synthesized by the body

A

no so they have to be included in diet

159
Q

glycerol and fatty acids

A

glycerol enters pathway of glycolysis and converted to glucose through gluconeogenesis

carbons of fatty acids are removed to form acetyl CoA through beta oxidation which produces ketones

160
Q

what would happen if there were too many ketones

A

it would be harmful because they’re acidic

161
Q

beta oxidation

A

fatty acids are enzymatically changed two carbons at a time to acetyl CoA

162
Q

lipoproteins

A

lipids with protein “wrap” to facilitate transport

163
Q

where are lipoproteins formed

A

in the liver

164
Q

Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)

A

contain the most lipid

165
Q

low density lipoproteins (LDL)

A

less lipid than VLDL

166
Q

high density lipoproteins (HDL)

A

least amount of lipid

167
Q

what lipids are involved with transportation from the liver to peripheral tissues

A

VLDLs and LDLs

168
Q

what lipids are involved with transport from peripheral tissues to the liver

A

HDLs

Human Anatomy and Physiology (5 decks)

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