Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effector?

A

a. the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The neurotransmitter responsible for translating action potentials into mechanical actions at muscles is

A

c. acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alpha motor neurons in the spinal cord communicate with muscle fibers by releasing acetylcholine, which influences muscle activity by

A

b. directly causing muscle contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The primary interaction of muscles and the nervous system involves the alpha motor neurons, which originate in the _______, exit through the _______, and terminate in the muscles

A

d. spinal cord; ventral root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A laboratory dog has had surgery to separate the spinal components of its motor system from the cortical and subcortical components. Which of the following best describes the motor abilities of this animal?

A

c. The dog demonstrates reflexive withdrawal of its foot in response to sudden stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When a voluntary movement such as contracting one’s right biceps is generated, what other signals, if any, must accompany this command?

A

a. A signal to antagonist muscles, such as the right triceps, to relax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hemiplegia is the

A

a. paralysis of the side of the body that is contralateral to the injured brain region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Loss of blood flow in the _______ is the most common cause of hemiplegia

A

c. middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The loss of a motor skill that cannot be attributed to hemiplegia, muscle weakness, sensory deficits, or motivation is called

A

c. apraxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

After suffering a focal brain injury, a patient has great difficulty in pantomiming particular motor actions such as turning a key in a lock. Because other problems like hemiplegia, muscle weakness, sensory deficits, and lack of motivation have been ruled out, your diagnosis would be

A

b. apraxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the basal ganglia?

A

b. the claustrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lesions to this region of the cerebellum lead to postural instability and difficulty in keeping one’s eyes fixed on a visual object despite head or body movements

A

b. the vestibulocerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Corticospinal fibers originate primarily in the

A

d. primary motor cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The term decussation refers to

A

c. the crossing of nerve fibers from one side of the body to the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The excitatory command to contract the biceps muscle of the arm is normally accompanied by an inhibitory command to relax the antagonist triceps muscle. If this inhibitory signal failed to occur,

A

a. the passive stretching of the triceps would trigger a stretch reflex that would return the arm to its original position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Neurons in each half of the cerebellum synapse on _______ targets in the thalamus and other subcortical structures, and therefore regulate the effectors on the _______ side of the body.

A

c. contralateral; ipsilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Single-cell recording studies have indicated that the _______ may be especially important in the control of internally guided motor sequences, whereas the _______ may be especially important in the control of externally guided motor sequences.

A

a. supplementary motor cortex; premotor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The pyramidal motor tract carries signals from the motor cortex of each cerebral hemisphere to _______ side(s) of the spinal cord, whereas the extrapyramidal motor tracts carry signals from various subcortical structures to _______ side(s) of the spinal cord.

A

c. the contralateral; both the ipsilateral and contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lesions to the pyramidal motor tract would produce difficulty in moving effectors on which side of the body?

A

a. the contralateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

One major difference between the pyramidal and the extrapyramidal motor tracts is their points of origin. The pyramidal tracts carry messages from _______ to the spinal cord, whereas the extrapyramidal tracts carry messages from _______ to the spinal cord.

A

a. cortical structures; subcortical structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Simple reflexive motor responses to external stimuli rely primarily on the function of the _______, whereas motor behaviors that are only minimally dependent on such external cues rely primarily on the function of the _______.

A

c. spinal cord; motor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sherrington (1947) surgically disconnected spinal motor neurons from cortical and subcortical motor centers in laboratory animals. Which of the following statements is true about the subsequent motor behavior of these animals?

A

b. Reflexive responses were intact, but complex voluntary movements were disrupted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Neurons in the spinal cord that can mediate sequences of motor actions even in the absence of external sensory feedback signals are called

A

b. central pattern generators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following types of motor behavior probably relies most on the function of a central pattern generator?

A

a. walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Studies of deafferentation and its effect on movement control in humans and other species demonstrate that

A

a. movement depends on internal mental representations of the consequences of motor commands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The concept of endpoint control refers to the observation that voluntary muscle events

A

b. are programmed to result in the displacement of an effector based on its desired final location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Single-cell recording studies of the motor control of reaching movements have demonstrated that neurons in the motor cortex are selectively active based on the

A

b. direction in which a reaching movement is generated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Using single-cell recording, a researcher isolates a neuron in the motor cortex of a monkey that is extremely active when the monkey moves its arm from left to right. In subsequent trials, the animal is required to move its arm from the starting to the ending locations diagrammed here.

A

b. A and B

arrows moving diagonally from left to right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

With regard to motor cortex, a population vector is the

A

c. total number of neurons that are tuned to the same preferred direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the population vector associated with a reaching movement from left to right?

A

d. The population vector shifts from left to right before the arm begins to move.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The fact that the population vector recorded in the motor cortex precedes the corresponding reaching movement indicates that motor cortex activity

A

a. is primarily involved in the planning of movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When you first learn how to execute the complex motor sequence that comprises a slam dunk in basketball, a circuit including the _______ is active. After much practice, once you have learned the sequence well, a second circuit involving the _______ is active.

A

b. lateral premotor area; supplementary motor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The _______ seem(s) particularly important in the control and planning of complex motor sequences as opposed to simple movements.

A

c. motor cortex regions in the prefrontal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In the period of time immediately following focal brain injury to the supplementary motor cortex, patients may reach out and grasp objects with the affected arm when they have not been asked to do so, or even when they have been explicitly told not to do so. This is an example o

A

d. alien hand syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In the days following her stroke, Patient E cannot refrain from reaching out and grasping nearby objects even when she has been asked not to do so. This syndrome probably is the result of the abnormal dominance of the __________ loop.

A

c. medial supplementary motor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Franz and colleagues (1996) asked a patient who had had his corpus callosum surgically severed to draw figures like the ones here, each simultaneously with a different hand. Compared to neurologically intact control participants, they found that this patient

A

a. was better at producing movements simultaneously with both hands, even when they differed in direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chapin’s early work on a brain-machine interface (BMI) in rats used an online population vector that matched the _______ of the rats’ movement.

A

b. force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Once a BMI takes on the ability to reward a rat that was previously rewarded by pressing a lever, how will the rat’s lever-pressing rate change?

A

d. Lever-pressing will eventually stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following sets of elements is sufficient to produce an effective brain-machine interface?

A

c. an electrode array to record neural activity, a prosthetic limb, and computer software that can interpret intended actions from neural activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

One limitation of most BMI systems is that they

A

b. use only visual feedback and not somatosensory feedback.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Parkinson’s disease results from cell death in the _______, which is a part of the _______.

A

b. substantia nigra; basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A patient has damage to the basal ganglia, particularly within the striatum, and demonstrates both chorea and hyperkinesia. What is your diagnosis?

A

b. Huntington’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What disorder is characterized by a loss of dopaminergic fibers in the substantia nigra, which results in deficits in initiating voluntary movements, bradykinesia, and the progressive emergence of a resting tremor?

A

b. Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Hyperkinesia is to _______ as hypokinesia is to _______.

A

b. Huntington’s disease; Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

One proposed role of dopamine in the context of motor learning via the basal ganglia is that dopamine release

A

c. in the basal ganglia results in a combination of stimulatory and inhibitory influences that reinforces particular motor actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of a process related to basal ganglia influence/striatal disinhibition?

A

d. Inhibition of the internal segment of the globus pallidus dampens cortical activity to decrease motor output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Keele’s work with people with Parkinson’s disease suggests that they may have difficulties in which of the following cognitive operations?

A

d. set shifting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

One reason that lesions to the cerebellum disrupt the eye blink conditioning response is because

A

b. this structure is involved in timing the activation of different effectors involved in a learned motor sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following would demonstrate the finding that some aspects of motor learning are independent of the specific effectors used to perform an action?

A

d. One’s signature looks very similar regardless of whether one uses the left or the right hand to produce it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Using transgenic mice, Wagner et al.’s 2017 study provided which of the following pieces of evidence that the cerebellum is involved with learning and predictive processes?

A

c. Not only did the activity of certain cerebellar cells correspond with certain motor activity, but the activity of some cerebellar cells reflected trial outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Kawai et al.’s 2015 study used rats to explore how lesions of the motor cortex impact the ability to learn and perform motor sequences. What results regarding the motor cortex did this study yield?

A

c. Once a new motor sequence had been learned, the cerebellum was sufficient to produce that motor sequence, even without motor cortex input.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The supplementary motor area (SMA) is particularly active during externally guided movements.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

With time, people who experience a hemiplegia typically experience a full recovery.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A diagnosis of apraxia is mainly exclusionary: a person is said to have apraxia if he or she has a coordination problem that can’t be linked to a deficit in controlling the muscles themselves.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Single axons of the corticospinal tract can extend for more than one meter.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Although simple reflexes can occur without sensory input, the generation of rhythmic walking movements requires sensory feedback from the environment.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In performing a sequence of complex actions, such as playing the piano, each movement is planned primarily in relation to the immediately preceding and subsequent movements.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Before a movement is initiated, the population vector in the motor cortex has already shifted in the direction of the planned movement

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Activity in the premotor cortex reflects not only the trajectory of a movement but also the context in which the movement occurs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

________ is the process of acquiring new information, whereas ________ is the trace that results from this process and can be revealed at a later time.

A

c. Learning; memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

________ refers to the processing of incoming information to be stored.

A

c. Encoding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The encoding of information to be stored involves two stages: ________, in which inputs in sensory buffers and sensory analysis stages are registered, and then ________, in which a stronger representation for storage is created.

A

d. acquisition; consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The result of acquisition and consolidation is to the process involved in accessing memory traces as __________ is to __________.

A

d. storage; retrieval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which brain structure is located in the medial temporal lobe and is of particular importance in the formation of new long-term memories?

A

c. the hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of the following is NOT an area of cortex in the medial temporal lobe that interacts with the hippocampus in the formation of new long-term memories?

A

a. cingulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Deficits in memory as a function of brain damage, disease, or psychological trauma are known collectively as

A

d. amnesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the kind of amnesia demonstrated by people with bilateral hippocampal damage (like patients H.M. and R.B.) or people with diencephalon injury (like people with Korsakoff’s syndrome)?

A

b. They can still learn new skills, such as the serial reaction time task, after the injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A 1957 study of patients who had undergone removal of the medial temporal lobe for the treatment of epilepsy suggested that

A

d. profound amnesia is associated only with bilateral medial temporal lobe removal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following would be the most difficult for the famous patient H.M. and other patients with medial temporal lobe removal?

A

c. learning the words for numbers in a foreign language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Your favorite cartoon character has been struck over the head and can no longer remember his name or where he lives. This is an example of

A

d. retrograde amnesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Decreased oxygenation and cell death is to ____________ as beta-amyloid proteins negatively affecting synapse formation and neuroplasticity is to ____________.

A

c. vascular dementia; Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

You diagnose two different patients, each with a form of dementia. Patient 1 has a neurogenerative disease; Patient 2 does NOT have a neurogenerative disease. Which of the following summarizes the two patient reports?

A

d. Patient 1: Alzheimer’s disease, areas affected: medial temporal lobes. Patient 2: frontotemporal lobar dementia, areas affected: frontal lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

After suffering a severe head injury, a patient demonstrates a dense anterograde amnesia. She

A

b. cannot remember events that occurred after the injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A patient visits a neurologist and complains of memory problems, such as trouble remembering telephone numbers. After a few tests, the neurologist determines that there is a large impairment in the digit span, but no impairment in remembering the past or in forming new memories. Which brain area is the most likely to be impaired?

A

c. the left perisylvian cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The memory performance of patients K.F. and E.E., when compared to the memory performance of people with amnesia, such as patient H.M, demonstrates a double dissociation between two types of memory. Which of the following statements best describes these results?

A

b. H.M. has a deficit limited to long-term memory, whereas K.F. and E.E. have deficits limited to short-term memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Research using the mismatch field (MMF), which is the magnetic equivalent of the mismatch negativity (MMN), has suggested that auditory sensory memory has a duration of about

A

d. 10 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

George Miller and other investigators found that humans can hold about ________ items in short-term memory at a time.

A

c. seven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Organizing individual bits of information into higher-order units can increase the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory. This strategy is called

A

d. chunking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

According to the modal model of memory, information that is currently held within short-term memory originates from

A

a. sensory memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following best describes the flow of information in the Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968) modal model of memory?

A

c. sensory memory ® short-term storage ® long-term storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following statements concerning types of memory in the modal model of memory is FALSE?

A

b. Some contents of sensory memory are selected via attention and next processed in long-term memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

You learn of an experiment conducted in 1942 by a researcher named Malmo. Malmo discovered that monkeys with certain lesions were impaired in a delayed-response task, but not when the lights were turned off. Malmo hypothesized that switching off the lights removed potential interference. Which of the following theories incorporates this kind of short-term interference?

A

d. the modal model of memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The term ________ refers to a limited-capacity store that not only retains information over the short-term (maintenance) but also permits the performance of mental operations with the contents of this store (manipulation).

A

a. working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

One finding that supports the idea that information in working memory is represented by an acoustic (auditory) code rather than a semantic (meaning-based) code is that when participants are given a list of words to learn and then are immediately tested for recall, performance is ______ when the list contains items that are similar in _______.

A

c. worse; sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Of the following choices, damage to the ________ is most likely to result in impairment to the visuospatial sketch pad, or visual working memory.

A

a. parietal–occipital cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Visual sensory memory is to ________ as auditory sensory memory is to ________.

A

a. iconic memory; echoic memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

One major difference between the visual icon and the auditory echo is that the

A

b. auditory echo lasts longer than the visual icon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

One property of the central executive mechanism proposed by Baddeley and Hitch is that it

A

b. is not linked to a single modality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The component that is responsible for acoustically coding information in working memory is the

A

c. phonological loop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Declarative or explicit memory is knowledge that

A

a. one can access consciously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Barbara remembers that Madrid is the capital of Spain, but she has no idea when or where she acquired this knowledge. Her ________ memory is accurate, but her ________ memory is incomplete.

A

a. semantic; episodic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Classical conditioning is an example of a specific type of ________ memory.

A

d. nondeclarative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

________ memory does NOT affect behavior consciously.

A

a. Nondeclarative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In the delayed nonmatching to sample task, animals are taught in a single trial that a specific object is associated with a food reward. When this object is shown again in a subsequent trial in the presence of a new object, the animal

A

b. must select the new item to receive a food reward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Patient H.M. is to the ________ as patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome are to the ________.

A

d. medial temporal lobes; diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

It appears that the medial temporal lobes and the diencephalon are important in consolidating explicit long-term memories but are not themselves the storage sites for this knowledge because

A

d. most episodic and semantic memories acquired before injury to these structures will remain intact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Two weeks ago, you saw a patient who was suffering from amnesia, and the amnesia appeared to be related to the vertebrobasilar artery system. Currently, the patient’s memory seems to have returned to normal. Which of the following people is most likely to be the patient described?

A

d. A 59-year-old grocery store owner who works long hours and is struggling financially.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Following a case of encephalitis, a person has developed lesions in his anterior temporal lobes, but his medial temporal structures are intact. Which of the following is most likely to be true of this person?

A

b. The person has isolated retrograde amnesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

After a brain injury, a person is found to have isolated retrograde amnesia. Which of the following brain regions is probably damaged?

A

b. the anterior temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Greater activity in the frontal and parietal portions of the retrieval network is to __________ as greater activity in the medial temporal lobe and sensory areas is to __________.

A

a. false memories; true memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Neuroimaging work has suggested that during the retrieval of a list of studied items, the hippocampus is most active

A

a. for items that are correctly recollected as old items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Recent neuroimaging and neuropsychological work in memory has attempted to disentangle ________, which seems to implicate the hippocampus and the posterior parahippocampal cortex, from ________, which seems to implicate the perirhinal cortex.

A

c. recollection; familiarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Neuroimaging studies of the left and right hemispheres in memory function indicate that

A

b. encoding and retrieval processes in long-term memory may be lateralized to different hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When individuals encode information that relates to themselves, which of following regions is particularly likely to be active?

A

c. retrosplenial cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Consider the binding-of-items-and-contexts (BIC) model. The perirhinal cortex is to the parahippocampal cortex as __________ is to __________.

A

c. who and what; when and where

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Under the standard consolidation theory, the involvement of the hippocampus in accessing memories is best described as

A

a. temporary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Under the multiple trace theory, the neocortex is to semantic memory as the hippocampus is to

A

d. episodic memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which of the following best describes a component of the multiple trace theory?

A

b. Episodic memory relies on the hippocampus for retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Herpes simplex encephalitis shares which characteristic with semantic dementia?

A

c. viral transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Hebbian learning occurs when

A

a. a synapse is strengthened by the synchronous activity of the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Long-term potentiation does NOT occur unless the neurotransmitter ________ is present in the synapse to bind to postsynaptic NMDA receptors.

A

d. glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Imagine that a new drug is discovered that acts by depleting the brain of free magnesium ions. How would this drug affect long-term potentiation (LTP)?

A

a. The amount of LTP would increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of NMDA receptors in mediating LTP in the brain?

A

a. NMDA receptors are critical to inducing LTP but not to maintaining LTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Patients with damage to the medial temporal lobe and hippocampus typically do not have difficulty performing short-term memory tasks such as the digit span.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Patient H.M. had severe retrograde amnesia.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

People with amnesia often show preserved implicit learning and nondeclarative memory.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

In the Atkinson and Shiffrin modal model, information can be lost by both decay and interference at each stage.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Semantic memory is a kind of declarative memory that concerns events we recall from our own lives.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Most forms of classical conditioning can be considered declarative memory.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Lesions to the hippocampus typically do not result in profound memory problems unless the lesions also encompass the amygdala.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome is associated with alcoholism.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

During memory retrieval, cortical regions that were important during encoding are reactivated.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Dopamine is the neurotransmitter most associated with long-term potentiation.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of emotions?

A

b. similarity to moods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Emotions are ________ responses to external or internal stimuli.

A

d. valenced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered one of the six basic facial expressions representing emotional states?

A

b. jealousy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the distinction between affect, mood, and emotion?

A

a. Affect is the most general term of the three, and it includes emotions, which tend to be short-term and reactionary; moods tend to last longer than emotions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

One theory of emotion and the brain from the mid 20th century implicated the hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus. These structures were later named the ________ circuit.

A

d. Papez

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Which of the following is NOT a well-established basic emotion?

A

c. contempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

A patient reports feeling intense sadness. Which of the following signs would indicate that this is true?

A

a. facial expression
b. physiological reaction
c. brief duration
d. All of the answer options are correct.

D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which of the following best describes our current understanding of the brain areas that process emotions?

A

b. The limbic system seems to be heavily involved in processing emotion, with contribution from other brain areas, particularly in frontal-medial cortical areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Which of the following outcomes is MOST likely to be produced by the information gleaned from studies using multivoxel pattern analysis (MVPA) and 7-tesla scanning (7T) technology to better elucidate the neural structures associated with different emotional states?

A

d. Each emotion is processed by a network of brain regions, some of which overlap with many other emotions, and some of which overlap with few or no other emotions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Some theories of emotion employ a factor approach. In one conceptualization, the first factor is ________, or how pleasant or unpleasant the stimulus is, and the second factor is ________, or how intense the emotional response is.

A

b. valence; arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

In one conceptualization of emotions (Davidson et al. 1990), some emotional states such as happiness and surprise create a tendency to ________, whereas other emotional states such as fear and disgust create a tendency to ________.

A

a. approach; withdraw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Which of the following would be MOST useful in establishing discrete categories of emotions?

A

b. A better understanding of which overlapping networks of brain regions process which emotions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which of the following, in itself, would be expected to have the LEAST effect on individual differences in emotional processing of a particular stimulus?

A

d. Differences in the gender of individuals processing the stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Julian spots a snake in the forest. He immediately runs away from it and then notes that he is scared as he is running. Which of the following theories would suggest that his feeling of fear is due entirely to the fact that Julian notices his physiological response?

A

a. James–Lange theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Klüver–Bucy syndrome is associated with damage to which brain structure or region?

A

c. the amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

The ________ is a small, almond-shaped structure in the medial temporal lobe, immediately adjacent to the anterior portion of the ________.

A

d. amygdala; hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

The amygdala consists of several subnuclei. During fear conditioning, information converges on the ________ of the amygdala and from there projects to the ________.

A

a. lateral nucleus; central nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Fear conditioning is a more specific instance of

A

a. classical conditioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the “low road.” This pathway can be characterized as ________ and involves a ________.

A

c. “quick and dirty”; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the “high road.” This pathway can be characterized as _________ and involves a ________.

A

b. “slow and analytical”; project to the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

A double dissociation has been demonstrated between people with damage to the ________, who show impairment in the explicit or declarative aspects of fear conditioning, and people with damage to the ________, who show impairment in the implicit or nondeclarative aspects of fear conditioning

A

b. hippocampus; amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Which of the following results best supports the notion that the amygdala modulates the consolidation of hippocampus-based memories?

A

d. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning by arousal occurs after the initial encoding of the task, during retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

The mechanism through which the amygdala modulates hippocampus-based learning may be related to the observation that

A

a. arousing stimuli decay less quickly than nonarousing stimuli do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

You conduct an experiment in which you expose a rat repeatedly to a 440 Hz tone and an electric shock. After a few trials, the rat begins to show signs of fear in response to the tone. In this paradigm, the electric shock is the ________, while the tone is the ________.

A

b. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Lesions to the amygdala ________ unconditioned responses to aversive events, ________ the ability to acquire and express a conditioned response to neutral stimuli.

A

b. do not block; but they do block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Patient S.P., who had bilateral damage to the amygdala, participated in a study involving the pairing of a blue square with an electric shock. S.P.’s skin conductance response (SCR) and verbal report indicated that

A

b. she had an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square but did not demonstrate any implicit fear-conditioning SCR response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Which of the following is true about the role of the amygdala in explicit emotional learning?

A

a. The amygdala performs a modulatory role in declarative memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

In a fear-conditioning experiment, you find a person who shows a normal skin conductance response to a conditioned stimulus (such as a blue square) but who does not consciously remember the pairing of the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus (such as a shock). This person may have damage to the

A

b. hippocampus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which of the following is a way in which the amygdala interacts with hippocampus-dependent memories?

A

d. enhancing the strength of explicit or declarative memories for emotional events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and emotional learning?

A

a. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses, regardless of whether the initial learning was implicit or explicit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

A rat’s performance on the Morris water maze, a test of spatial ability and memory, will be affected in what way by a lesion to the amygdala?

A

b. The rat will not be impaired in a basic water maze task, but it will fail to show the stronger retention that would otherwise be expected if the task includes a physical stressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Neuroimaging of the perception of facial expression suggests that

A

d. the amygdala responds most strongly to fearful faces, but it also shows some response to other expressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

The amygdala responds to fearful facial expressions

A

a. regardless of whether the face is consciously perceived.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Which of the following is typically true of people with bilateral damage to the amygdala?

A

b. They are like controls in their implicit and explicit reactions to race

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The implicit association test (IAT) measures the degree to which social groups are automatically associated with positive and negative evaluations. Which of the following is FALSE regarding this test?

A

c. The IAT is designed to reflect declarative memories.

159
Q

Research on racial stereotypes conducted by Phelps and colleagues (2000) suggested that when European–American participants viewed pictures of unfamiliar African–American men, activity in the ________ of these participants was correlated with the results of ________ behavioral measures of racial beliefs and attitudes.

A

d. amygdala; indirect or implicit

160
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and indirect evaluations of racial bias?

A

a. White participants who show greater amygdala activity during the presentation of black faces tend to have stronger racial bias as measured by an implicit behavioral task.

161
Q

Cunningham and colleagues (2004) suggested that although the amygdala plays a role in the automatic evaluation of social groups, controlled processing may implicate which of the following brain regions?

A

c. the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex

162
Q

Which statement best characterizes the insula’s role in emotional processing?

A

a. The insula processes interoception and bodily states, and plays a role in connecting the physiology of emotion with emotional state.

163
Q

The insula is MOST involved in which of the following?

A

b. disgust

164
Q

Emotional regulation refers to the processes that influence emotions in which of the following ways?

A

a. the type of emotions we have
b. when emotions occur
c. how emotions are experienced and expressed
d. All of the answer options are correct.

D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER

165
Q

EEG studies have found that those with more ________ activity are better able to suppress negative emotion voluntarily.

A

d. left-sided

166
Q

A friend comes into your house and eats all the chocolates in your pantry. You come in and at first are very angry. Then you think to yourself, “That’s actually better for me. Now I don’t have to eat all those calories.” What have you done?

A

a. antecedent-focused regulation
b. reappraisal
c. reduction of your anger
d. All of the answer options are correct.

D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER

167
Q

Which area of the frontal lobe does NOT show increased activity in the cognitive control of emotion?

A

a. left lateral prefrontal cortex

168
Q

Patient S.M., who had damage to the amygdala, had difficulty recognizing sadness in the expressions of other people.

A

False

169
Q

Evidence from cognitive neuroscience suggests that the recognition of the six basic facial expressions of emotion is processed in the amygdala.

A

False

170
Q

The Papez circuit includes the hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus.

A

True

171
Q

Paul Ekman argued that the perception of facial expressions of emotion is highly relative across cultures.

A

False

172
Q

The role of the amygdala in emotion and memory has been studied using a form of classical conditioning known as fear conditioning.

A

True

173
Q

One pathway through which information about unconditioned or conditioned stimuli reaches the amygdala is known as the “high road” and has a cortical component.

A

True

174
Q

The role of the amygdala in learning to respond to stimuli that have come to represent aversive events through fear conditioning is primarily implicit.

A

True

175
Q

A common conditioned stimulus (CS) in fear-conditioning experiments is an electric shock.

A

False

176
Q

In some of the fear-conditioning experiments described in your text, simple shapes like a blue square are used as the conditioned stimulus (CS).

A

True

177
Q

When someone is emotionally aroused, the hippocampus plays a modulatory role in strengthening the consolidation of amygdala-based memory.

A

False

178
Q

Which of the following, if true, would be most helpful toward advancing our understanding of the anatomy of language?

A

a. if mice had a sophisticated spoken language

179
Q

The language-relevant regions of the right hemisphere would be most critical to understanding which of the following?

A

b. sarcasm

180
Q

Which of the following brain structures is NOT directly involved in language?

A

a. Sylvian fissure

181
Q

The left perisylvian network of language includes which areas?

A

c. both Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

182
Q

A patient with dysarthria has trouble

A

a. controlling the muscles that articulate speech sounds.

183
Q

________ is a general term for deficits in language comprehension and production that occur as the result of brain injury.

A

b. Aphasia

184
Q

Which of the following statements best describes agrammatic aphasics?

A

c. They are unable to use syntax.

185
Q

Which of the following statements does NOT describe agrammatic aphasics?

A

d. They have difficulty with comprehension.

186
Q

Patient “Tan,” studied by the neurologist Broca, had great difficulty in generating spontaneous speech and was unable to utter any word other than the nonsense syllable “tan.” Postmortem autopsy of Tan’s brain revealed

A

b. a lesion in the left inferior frontal cortex.

187
Q

You encounter an aphasic patient with language deficits resulting from brain injury. You are also likely to also observe hemiparesis on the ________ side of the body, which would indicate that the ________ hemisphere is especially critical to language function.

A

c. right; left

188
Q

The German neurologist Wernicke found that injury to which region of the brain resulted in poor language comprehension and nonsensical but relatively fluent speech?

A

b. the left posterior and superior temporal lobe

189
Q

The speech of people with Broca’s aphasia is usually slow and effortful and consists of primarily concrete words, while words that serve grammatical functions are omitted. This type of speech output is called

A

b. telegraphic speech.

190
Q

Which of the following sentences would a person with Broca’s aphasia be most likely to misunderstand?

A

b. “The woman whom Richard met yesterday is leaving for Vancouver.”

191
Q

People with Broca’s aphasia may have subtle deficits in their ability to comprehend language based on its grammatical structure. This symptom is called

A

c. agrammatism

192
Q

A current controversy regarding the usefulness of Broca’s aphasia as a diagnostic category focuses on the observation that

A

a. there is no strict correspondence between lesions of Broca’s area and the symptoms classically associated with Broca’s aphasia.

193
Q

A patient’s symptoms include poor spoken and written comprehension but fluent and reasonably grammatical speech output. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A

c. Wernicke’s aphasia

194
Q

A patient’s symptoms include poor spoken and written comprehension but fluent and reasonably grammatical speech output. Which part of this person’s brain is most likely damaged?

A

d. the posterior language areas in the left hemisphere

195
Q

Recent studies have shown that the lesion associated with persistent severe Wernicke’s aphasia may have to include not only Wernicke’s area itself, but also

A

c. the white matter tracts below Wernicke’s area.

196
Q

A person with conduction aphasia is most likely to have difficulty in

A

c. repeating spoken language.

197
Q

The term ________ refers to the collective store of information about the semantics, syntax, orthography, and phonology of words.

A

c. mental lexicon

198
Q

________ is to the meaning of a word as ________ is to the spelling of a word.

A

d. Semantics; orthography

199
Q

When you are shown the written word “neuroscience” and you read it aloud, you are translating ________ information into ________ information about this word.

A

c. orthographic; phonological

200
Q

The concept of “words in the same neighborhood” is analogous to which of the following in the semantic domain?

A

c. words related in meaning

201
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the organization of semantic networks is FALSE?

A

a. The most frequently associated nodes have the largest distances between them in the network.

202
Q

The mental lexicon is thought to be organized as a semantic network in which word meanings are connected to each other, as in the two-dimensional diagram here. Based on what you know about how strength of association between word meanings is represented in semantic networks, determine which of the following statements regarding the network is true.

A

d. The association between dog and cat is stronger than the association between animal and cat.

203
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of the Word Bank?

A

c. It has more than one pronunciation

204
Q

Language errors in which a person substitutes words that are related in meaning for one another are called

A

c. semantic paraphasias.

205
Q

An aphasic person who makes semantic paraphasia errors in her speech might say “________” when she actually intends to say “________.”

A

c. cow; horse

206
Q

The symptoms of all of the following neurological language syndromes suggest the disruption of an organized semantic network in which word meanings are stored, EXCEPT

A

d. conduction aphasia.

207
Q

Which of the following best describes the three main components of word or lexical processing in the correct order, according to most modular models of word recognition?

A

b. lexical access ® lexical selection ® lexical integration

208
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of infants’ speech recognition abilities?

A

c. At 9 months infants are unable to recognize foreign language phonemes.

209
Q

Segmenting the boundaries between words is a particularly difficult computational problem in

A

c.speech perception.

210
Q

________ specifically refers to the variations in the pitch of a speaker’s voice that convey emotion and emphasis in speech.

A

b.Prosody

211
Q

Which of the following best describes a case that depends primarily on prosodic aspects of language?

A

a. The ability to recognize the characteristic rise that occurs at the end of a sentence in a speaker’s voice when she asks a question.

212
Q

The observation that we can understand the speech of different speakers, regardless of variations in the
pitches of the speakers’ voices, the speakers’ rates of speech, and the speakers’ dialects, indicates that

A

d. speech recognition cannot rely on the direct matching of specific sounds to language representations in memory.

213
Q

A major issue in the study of word recognition involves the extent to which relatively low-level
sensory representations interact with relatively high-level information, such as the context in which a
word appears. A modular model of word comprehension would be most likely to argue that

A

b. processing at each level is independent, and there is little or no interaction between them.

214
Q

You receive a text message that reads “What time do you want to have lunch tomorrow night?” Which
word would lead to an N400 for you?

A

d. night

215
Q

You receive a text message that reads “My steak eaten up by the broccoli.” Which word would lead to a P600 for you?

A

b. eaten

216
Q

The P600, also known as the SPS, is an ERP component that is sensitive to the violation of
expectations based mostly on

A

d. syntax.

217
Q

An early ERP component associated with morphosyntactic violations is the

A

a. LAN.

218
Q

In Hagoort’s language model, the “memory” component is mediated by the ________, the
“unification” component by the ________, and the “control” component by the ________.

A

d. temporal lobe; inferior frontal gyrus; lateral frontal cortex

219
Q

Considering the Memory and Unification components of Hagoort’s model of language comprehension,
during a conversation with your professor,

A

d. unification would be pulling together and integrating various components of the words
coming out of your professor’s mouth to process what she was saying.

220
Q

The brain regions involved with the unification process in Hagoort’s model suggest that a person with
a major comprehension deficit due to significant damage in Brodmann area 45 (BA45) could be
expected to exhibit which of the following?

A

c. both an abnormal N400 and an abnormal P600

221
Q

In studies with implanted electrodes, Sahin and colleagues (2009) found that Broca’s area processed
which elements of language?

A

a. lexical
b. grammatical
c. phonological
d. All of the answer options are correct.

D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER

222
Q

Under certain circumstances, when the conceptual representation of an item is activated, there is
subsequent difficulty activating the corresponding word form in the mental lexicon, even though other
information about the item can be accessed. This phenomenon is called

A

d. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

223
Q

According to Levelt’s (1989) model of speech production, two main processing stages are involved in
generating a meaningful utterance. In the ________ stage, the speaker determines what he or she
intends to express to the listener; in the ________ stage, word choices and the grammatical role that
each word will play are determined.

A

d. macroplanning; microplanning

224
Q

According to Levelt, information-specific networks exist for word forms at the ________ level and for
the grammatical properties of words at the ________ level.

A

b. lexeme; lemma

225
Q

Which of the following evolutionary anatomical developments from apes to humans seems to have
most greatly facilitated humans’ capacity for sophisticated spoken language?

A

d. increased connectivity between inferior frontal, lateral temporal, and inferior parietal areas

226
Q

Animal calls were thought to be purely emotional. Which of the following findings with monkey calls
does NOT contradict this view?

A

d. Calls can be strung together in predictable orders.

227
Q

What is the main reason that there has been more success teaching nonhuman primates to use sign
language than spoken language?

A

a. Hand signals are easier than vocalizations.
b. Vocalizations are better controlled in humans.
c. Control of manual gestures is better in nonhuman primates.
d. All of the answer options are correct.

D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER

228
Q

Homo sapiens have made the leap from ________ to ________ sequences.

A

c. manual; vocal

229
Q

Which of the following, if true, would be damaging to evidence cited to support the hypothesis that
spoken language evolved from gestural language?

A

c. Monkey brains are organized ipsilaterally with regard to motor control.

230
Q

A normal adult speaker has passive knowledge of about 50,000 words

A

True

231
Q

Semantic priming effects are due to spreading activation in many models of lexical processing.

A

False

232
Q

. Saying the word “horse” when intending to say the word “cow” is an example of a semantic
paraphasia.

A

True

233
Q

Phonemes are the smallest units of sound that make a difference to meaning.

A

True

234
Q

The information that a listener derives from the speech rhythm and pitch of the speaker’s voice is
referred to as morphological.

A

False

235
Q

The three primary ways in which words are symbolized in different writing systems are alphabetic,
syllabic, and logographic.

A

True

236
Q

The Spanish language uses the logographic system for written words.

A

False

237
Q

Modular models of language comprehension argue for a high degree of interactivity between different
specialized modules.

A

False

238
Q

The immediate assignment of syntactic structure of incoming words is known as parsing.

A

True

239
Q

Listening to a sentence like “He spreads the warm bread with socks” will evoke a P600 brain potential

A

False

240
Q

Cognitive control is often associated with

A

a. goal-oriented behavior.
b. decision making.
c. cognitive flexibility.
d. All of the answer options are correct.

D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER

241
Q

Cognitive control is NOT involved in which of the following?

A

d. implicit memory

242
Q

Which of the following processes would LEAST involve cognitive control?

A

b. jumping rope with your niece and nephew, after not having jumped rope for at least
10 years

243
Q

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is sometimes thought of as being associated with
cognitive control deficits. Which piece of evidence best supports this?

A

a. ADHD stimulant medications have a particularly high affinity for frontal lobe structures
involved in cognitive control.

244
Q

The statement “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” is discussed in multiple places in this chapter.
Which of the following, if true, would be inconsistent with that statement?

A

c. The frontal lobes of chimpanzees become fully developed at a younger age than the frontal
lobes of squirrel monkeys or dogs

245
Q

Three main subdivisions of the prefrontal cortex are the

A

b. lateral prefrontal cortex, frontal pole, and medial frontal cortex.

246
Q

The most caudal part of the frontal lobe contains the ________ region.

A

d. primary motor

247
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the anatomical connectivity of the prefrontal lobes to
the rest of the brain?

A

d. There are extensive projections to and from the prefrontal cortex to all other lobes of the
brain.

248
Q

The ventromedial zone is also known as (the)

A

d. orbitofrontal cortex

249
Q

Focal injuries of the prefrontal cortex generally produce all of the following cognitive changes or
symptoms EXCEPT

A

c. fluent aphasia.

250
Q

John is unable to carry on the most rudimentary conversations. Whenever someone changes the subject
he persists on the same topic for several minutes. Eventually, people simply leave him alone, talking to
himself. John has

A

b. perseveration in responding.

251
Q

A patient with a frontal lobe lesion kneels and prays when watching another person do the same thing
in the middle of the cafeteria. This is an example of

A

c. utilization behavior.

252
Q

The information that you are currently thinking about, perceiving, or using to guide responding is held
in this type of memory store.

A

c. working memory

253
Q

Which of the following best describes a real-life example of the delayed-response task?

A

b. After looking up the phone number of a local pizza place, you walk across the room to the
telephone and begin dialing it.

254
Q

You are driving around town. Which of the following stops will require the most working memory?

A

d. stopping at a business you have never visited before

255
Q

Working memory has been called the ________ of the mind

A

a. blackboard

256
Q

A monkey is taught that food is associated with a stimulus card that has a star on it. After training, the
animal receives a lesion to the lateral prefrontal cortex. The monkey’s memory for the food–stimulus
card association is then tested by presenting the animal with the two stimulus cards diagrammed here. How will the monkey now respond?

A

a. The monkey will remember the correct response and choose stimulus card 1 to earn a food
reward.

257
Q

Lesions of the lateral prefrontal cortex disrupt ________ memory but not ________ memory.

A

c. working; long-term

258
Q

A monkey that has previously received a lesion in the lateral prefrontal cortex is shown two food
wells, each of which is covered by a marked stimulus card:
As the monkey watches, a food reward is placed into the left well and then both wells are covered. If
the monkey is now allowed to retrieve the food reward immediately, it will

A

a. correctly select the left food well.

259
Q

The human analog of the delayed-response task that is used as a test of cognitive development in
human infants is the ________ task.

A

b. object permanence

260
Q

While the ________ will be most active during the encoding of a face stimulus, the ________ will be
active during the delay period.

A

b. fusiform gyrus; prefrontal cortex

261
Q

Which patient group is most likely to be impaired on a task in which one must decide which of two
pictures was seen most recently?

A

a. patients with frontal lobe injuries

262
Q

Which of the following is NOT a gradient along which the prefrontal cortex is organized?

A

c. left-right

263
Q

A person who has difficulty with “recency memory” tasks would have the most difficulty with which
of the following?

A

d. entering the ingredients for a recipe in the correct order

264
Q

Neuroimaging experiments have demonstrated that working memory engages the

A

c. prefrontal cortex and more posterior brain areas involved in perception and mental
representation.

265
Q

You conduct a single-cell recording study of a lateral prefrontal cortical cell while an animal performs
a delayed-response task. Which of the following response profiles best matches the behavior of the cell
if it is primarily involved in working memory function? (Each vertical line represents an action
potential.)

A

b. no response during cue, lines during delay, no response during response

266
Q

________ theories describe what people ought to do, whereas ________ theories describe what people
actually do.

A

a. Normative; descriptive

267
Q

Action-outcome decisions involve a more ________ form of processing, whereas stimulus-response
decisions are more ________.

A

c. controlled; automatic

268
Q

Primary reinforcers involve ________, whereas secondary reinforcers do not.

A

d. survival value

269
Q

Ventromedial prefrontal cortex involves ________ valuation, whereas dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
involves more ________ valuation.

A

b. automatic; controlled

270
Q

You encounter a bear, which triggers an emotional response. Which of the following areas would not
show increased dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway?

A

d. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

271
Q

With which of the following is prediction error NOT correlated?

A

d. the unconditioned stimulus

272
Q

People with frontal lobe injuries and control participants were asked to figure out a way to clean a
floor when there are no towels. Which of the following statements would be associated with frontal
lobe patients and not controls?

A

b. “Just take your blouse off and clean it with that.”

273
Q

One conceptualization of the prefrontal cortex, offered by Shimamura (2000), which could explain the
seemingly disparate set of impairments associated with damage to this area, is that

A

a. one underlying function of the prefrontal lobes is to select the information that is most
task-relevant.

274
Q

Imagine that a frontal lobe patient meets a very good friend and his family doctor. Which of the two
would this patient be able to engage more easily in a short conversation?

A

b. the family doctor

275
Q

Thompson-Schill and colleagues (1997, 1998) conducted an experiment in which participants
generated an appropriate verb in response to a presented noun. They found that the processing of
nouns such as rope, which have many semantically associated verbs, elicited ________ activity in the
inferior frontal cortex than did nouns such as scissors, which do not. This result supports the ________
hypothesis of inferior frontal lobe function.

A

b. greater; selection

276
Q

An experiment that requires participants to respond based on one goal, such as naming digits, on some
trials and another goal, such as naming letters, on other trials is an example of a(n) ________
paradigm.

A

b. task-switching

277
Q

In the task-switching experiment involving a digit task and a letter task, a digit or letter response was
indicated by a word or by a color. Which of these conditions was particularly problematic when
switching between digits and letters for frontal lobe patients?

A

b. digits indicated by colors

278
Q

Which of the following findings, if true, would best argue in favor of the parallel processing model of
multi-tasking, as opposed to the task-switching model?

A

d. Participants’ improvements over time in the dual task condition were highly correlated
with their improvements on each individual task.

279
Q

The idea that the prefrontal cortex filters out and inhibits irrelevant information is supported by the
ERP findings of Knight and Grabowecky (1995), who found that patients with prefrontal lesions
produced ________ in response to ignored tones during a listening task.

A

b. larger evoked potentials

280
Q

In a delayed response task, participants were asked to look at faces or scenes or engage in passive
viewing. Which of the following results distinguished older adults from young adults when viewing
faces relative to passive viewing?

A

d. The young adults showed reduced activation in the parahippocampal place area.

281
Q

In a stop-signal task, participants are asked to

A

a. choose between two responses but abort their response when signaled to do so.

282
Q

At any given time, many different schema control units may be activated. However, we can rarely
carry out more than one unit at a time and must select the most appropriate one to translate into action.
The units are mutually inhibitory, and only the most activated one wins the competition for expression.
This type of selection mechanism is called

A

b. contention scheduling.

283
Q

For situations in which no routine procedure can be used to generate an appropriate response, which
type of mechanism is used to select the best schema control unit for translation into action?

A

c. the supervisory attentional system

284
Q

Which of the following is NOT a situation that you would expect to engage the supervisory attentional
system?

A

a. one that engages a specific schema control unit

285
Q

Which of the following situations would be most likely to engage the anterior cingulate cortex?

A

c. You enter your classroom and find someone sitting in your usual seat.

286
Q

In general, increased activity in the anterior cingulate cortex has been observed when participants
perform tasks that have any of the following properties EXCEPT:

A

b. The task involves well-learned or automatic responses

287
Q

The supervisory attentional system, which seems to be localized to the ________ in the brain, becomes
active during the Stroop task because this task requires ________.

A

d. anterior cingulate cortex; a response (vocalizing a perceived color) that competes with a
strong habitual response (reading)

288
Q

Hypothetically, which of the following would represent a potential consequence of a population of
children whose frontal lobes were far more developed than neurotypical children?

A

b. They would be more cognitively inflexible.

289
Q

The lateral prefrontal cortex is important for working memory tasks.

A

True

290
Q

People with frontal lobe lesions are often impaired in organizing and segregating events in memory.

A

True

291
Q

Appropriate goal-oriented behavior is typically described as stimulus-driven.

A

False

292
Q

Although the prefrontal cortex is not essential for working memory, it is particularly important for the
storage of associative knowledge.

A

False

293
Q

Prefrontal areas are likely a temporary repository for representations accessed from other neural sites

A

True

294
Q

Switching tasks requires maintenance but not manipulation of information in working memory

A

False

295
Q

Dynamic filtering is one view of the prefrontal cortex, in which this area is a repository of
representations and selects information most relevant to the current task.

A

True

296
Q

The error-related negativity (ERN) has been localized to the anterior cingulate cortex.

A

True

297
Q

The key function of the inferior temporal lobe is to evaluate response conflict.

A

False

298
Q

Which brain region is the most susceptible to coup-contrecoup injury?

A

d. the orbitofrontal cortex

299
Q

A traumatic brain injury in which impact causes the brain to bounce against the back of the skull and
then rebound is known as a ________ injury

A

c. coup-contrecoup

300
Q

The most salient symptom in people who have suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is

A

a. inappropriate social behavior

301
Q

What were the circumstances under which Phineas Gage sustained his brain injury?

A

c. an explosion while laying a Vermont railway that sent a tamping iron through his head

302
Q

Which of the following resulted in the significant personality changes observed in Phineas Gage?

A

c. orbitofrontal damage

303
Q

Phineas Gage, who suffered injury to the orbitofrontal cortex, experienced changes in all of the
following areas as a result of his injury EXCEPT

A

b. performance on cognitive tests

304
Q

Which of the following areas is LEAST involved in social cognition?

A

b. inferior frontal gyrus

305
Q

Which term describes the deficits associated with autism spectrum disorder?

A

d. mindblindness

306
Q

Baron Cohen has proposed that people with ________ have impaired theory-of-mind abilities, coining
the term mindblindness.

A

d. autism spectrum disorder

307
Q

Which of the following hypothetical programs would be MOST helpful toward alleviating the social
deficits typically observed in antisocial personality disorder (APD), autism spectrum disorder (ASD),
or schizophrenia?

A

a. A program that is able to teach people with ASD how to interpret intentions of others

308
Q

The self-referent effect refers to the phenomenon that

A

d. information processed in relation to the self is enhanced in memory.

309
Q

In what way might the self-referent effect and the depth-of-processing effect be related?

A

a. Information processed in relation to the self may benefit from the wealth of information
about the self in memory.

310
Q

In an experiment by William Kelley and colleagues (2002), participants judged personality adjectives
in relation to either themselves or the U.S. president. The results suggested that memory for words
processed in relation to the self was ________ than that for words processed in relation to the U.S.
president, and that the former condition resulted in greater neural activity in the ________ cortex.

A

c. better; medial prefrontal

311
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and event-related potentials (ERP) studies suggest that
the medial prefrontal cortex may be involved in tasks requiring

A

b. self-referential processing.

312
Q

When deciding whether an adjective describes ________, we rely on ________.

A

a. others; memories of specific behaviors

313
Q

Stanley Klein and colleagues (2002) found that after rating a personality adjective for
self-descriptiveness, participants were ________ to recall a time in which they exhibited the
characteristic, suggesting that self-characteristics ________ linked to recall of specific past behaviors.

A

d. equally fast; are not

314
Q

People with retrograde and anterograde amnesia are ________ to maintain a sense of self because our
judgments about self-characteristics are ________ recall of specific past behaviors.

A

b. able; not linked to

315
Q

Studies using fMRI have found that neural activity in the medial prefrontal cortex ________ when
people make self-referential judgments compared to other judgments, suggesting that when we are “at
rest” we are engaging in a number of self-referential processes.

A

d. decreases less

316
Q

One concern with interpreting fMRI studies employing a “resting state” for comparison with cognitive
activities of interest is that

A

b. many processes are engaged “at rest,” including self-referential processes.

317
Q

Which brain area seems to be the most important for selectively attending to positive self-relevant
information, as opposed to negative self-relevant information?

A

a. the anterior cingulate cortex

318
Q

People with damage to the orbitofrontal cortex tend to be ________ of their social mistakes in the
moment, ________ become embarrassed by them if they view a video of themselves after the fact.

A

c. unaware; but they do

319
Q

Most children who are asked to sort a set of facial pictures will likely sort on the basis of ________,
whereas autistic children will likely sort on the basis of ________.

A

a. emotional expression; physical features

320
Q

Which of the following is true of the prefrontal cortex, schizophrenia, and depression?

A

d. While schizophrenia is associated with hypometabolism in the prefrontal cortex,
depression is associated with hypermetabolism in the prefrontal cortex.

321
Q

A patient recently had a tumor near his temporoparietal junction (TPJ) removed. Since then, he has
been experiencing occasional out-of-body experiences. Which of the following surgical ramifications
might explain this?

A

a. removal of a brain region that inhibits TPJ activity

322
Q

Anomalies in bodily experience, such as xenomelia and alien limb syndrome, are generally thought to
be due to __________, but are actually due to __________.

A

c. psychological issues; issues with processing in a particular area of the brain related to
sensorimotor integration

323
Q

The Sally-Anne task is used to test whether someone

A

a. understands that people can have different mental states.

324
Q

To engage in joint attention, a child will pay attention to

A

a. the direction of your eye gaze.

325
Q

The term theory of mind refers to

A

b. our ability to make inferences about the mental states of other people.

326
Q

Studies of the perception of the self and others have suggested that

A

b. similar regions of the medial prefrontal cortex are activated when we answer questions
about the self and about others, if they are close.

327
Q

If neuroimaging studies showed that entirely different brain regions were activated when a person
experienced pain from those that are activated when a person viewed or imagined someone else
experiencing pain, this would

A

a. be inconsistent with mirror neuron involvement in empathic processes.

328
Q

Which of the following statements best characterizes our ability to modulate our empathic responses?

A

d. Our empathic responses are not particularly static, and can be modulated even by
relatively trivial connections to others.

329
Q

When reading a series of statements such as “At the party, he was the first to start dancing on the
table,” the ________ is more active when making a personality inference as opposed to remembering
the order of the statements

A

d. medial prefrontal cortex

330
Q

Tasks involving thinking about mental states often engage which region of the brain, in comparison to
thinking about social background or life events?

A

c. the right temporoparietal junction

331
Q

What do mentalizing tasks have in common with attentional cuing tasks?

A

c. Both tasks require that participants direct their attention away from invalid information

332
Q

Single-cell recording studies in monkeys and human neuroimaging studies support the idea that the
________ is important for interpreting eye gaze in relation to mental states.

A

b. superior temporal sulcus

333
Q

Autistic children are likely to report that ________ when performing the Sally–Anne task

A

a. Sally will look in the location in which Anne has put the marble

334
Q

What did Ami Klin find when autistic people watched the film Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf?

A

c. They did not pay attention to the faces and eyes of the characters.

335
Q

Studies of the neural bases of autism have found that people with autism

A

a. have less activation in the medial prefrontal cortex and superior temporal sulcus when
performing theory of mind tasks.
b. have smaller amygdalae in comparison to nonautistic people.
c. do not significantly deactivate the medial prefrontal cortex when performing
non-self-referential tasks.
d. All of the answer options are true

D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER

336
Q

Studies of people with autism have suggested that they do not significantly deactivate the ________
when performing non-self-referential tasks. This is consistent with the observation that many people
with autism have an unusual focus on ________ rather than ________.

A

a. medial prefrontal cortex; the external world; internal states

337
Q

In a social faux pas experiment, participants are presented with a scenario in which one character
accidentally says something impolite to another character. When people with orbitofrontal damage
perform this task

A

c. they believe that the impolite comment was intentional

338
Q

In a teasing experiment, people with orbitofrontal injuries and control participants were asked to make
up nicknames for an experimenter whom they did not know well. What were the results?

A

a. The control participants chose flattering nicknames, whereas the people with orbitofrontal
injuries chose unflattering ones.

339
Q

The experimental economics task known as the “Ultimatum Game” provides evidence that humans

A

c. do not always make decisions that maximize rewards and minimize losses.

340
Q

In the experimental economics task known as the “Ultimatum Game,” one participant must choose
how to split a sum of money with another player. The second player can choose to accept the offer—or
to reject it, meaning neither player receives anything. Consideration of unfair offers is associated with
activity in the ________, an area that has been associated with disgust.

A

d. insula

341
Q

The trolley problem and footbridge problem are ethical thought experiments involving life-or-death
situations. Which of the following is true?

A

a. Both situations involve sacrificing one life to save multiple other lives.

342
Q

Functional MRI studies of ethical dilemmas suggest that ________ decisions recruit working memory
processes, whereas ________ decisions recruit emotional and social cognitive processes.

A

b. impersonal; personal

343
Q

Raine (2002) has argued that ________ factors play a role in determining whether someone exhibits
violent behavior.

A

c. both genetic and environmental

344
Q

If a stroke patient was better at answering abstract conditional logic questions that evaluate rule
violations than at answering equivalent logic questions that evaluate rule violations involving people,
this would indicate that the person’s stroke most likely had

A

b. specifically affected the patient’s brain system attuned to social contract violations.

345
Q

Phineas Gage was a famous neurological patient who suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex.

A

True

346
Q

Information processed in relation to the self is better remembered than that which is processed in
relation to others.

A

True

347
Q

Research suggests that self-description judgments rely on recall of specific autobiographical episodes.

A

False

348
Q

Neuroimaging studies suggest that the medial prefrontal cortex activates more relative to a baseline
when people make self-referential judgments than when they make other kinds of judgments

A

True

349
Q

The anterior cingulate cortex is important for distinguishing positive self-relevant information from
negative self-relevant information.

A

True

350
Q

Simulation theory suggests that theory of mind is based on an ability to put ourselves in the shoes of
another person, using our own minds to simulate what might be going on in the mind of someone else.

A

True

351
Q

The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex plays a strong role in forming impressions about the internal states
of other people.

A

False

352
Q

False-belief tasks require participants to direct their attention away from invalid information to answer
questions about another person’s mental states.

A

True

353
Q

Research suggests that the brain regions that are active during mentalizing tasks and during attentional
cuing are functionally distinct from one another.

A

False

354
Q

Neuroeconomics is the field of philosophy that discusses the rights and wrongs of the treatment or
enhancement of the human brain.

A

False

355
Q

Which psychologist would be most likely to agree with the statement, “I attend, therefore I am
conscious.”

A

d. Stanislas Dehaene

356
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of unconscious processing?

A

d. short-term memory

357
Q

How would theorists who follow Pinker’s perspective label your subjective experience of viewing the
colors of your textbook?

A

b. sentience

358
Q

Which aspect of conscious experience is NOT well understood from a cognitive neuroscience
perspective?

A

c. the subjective conscious experience itself

359
Q

Which of the following of Damasio’s categories is most associated with the brainstem?

A

a. core consciousness

360
Q

Which structure is responsible for extended consciousness?

A

c. cerebral cortex

361
Q

Core consciousness is turned off by lesioning which intralaminar nuclei (ILN) of the thalamus?

A

c. both left and right

362
Q

Which of the following would NOT result from damage to the pons?

A

a. blindsight

363
Q

Patients in a vegetative state are evidence for which of the following statements?

A

b. Wakefulness does not depend on consciousness.

364
Q

Which of the following pieces of neuroimaging evidence would best support the conclusion that a
patient was experiencing locked-in syndrome (LIS), as opposed to a vegetative state (UWS)?

A

d. There was activation in the patient’s visual cortex when he was asked to imagine the Eiffel
Tower, but not when he was asked to imagine music playing.

365
Q

Which of the following comparisons between someone experiencing somnambulism (sleepwalking)
and someone experiencing locked-in syndrome (LIS) is true?

A

b. Both are opposite in terms of their automatic behaviors and conscious awareness

366
Q

Which of the following properties is NOT true of layered architecture systems?

A

c. Each layer must be privy to the protocol of the previous layer

367
Q

Which of the following findings would violate the principle of multiple realizability?

A

c. A creature that had only one combination of neuronal activity for each behavior

368
Q

For people with blindsight, “blind” can be considered ________, with “sight” reflecting ________.

A

a. perception; sensation

369
Q

Employing subliminal perception by quickly flashing an angry face before an image of someone could
__________ the participant’s attitude about the person.

A

c. worsen

370
Q

Which of the following is NOT thought to be an evolutionary pressure that gave rise to
access-consciousness?

A

d. cost of prey

371
Q

The scaffolding to storage framework was proposed to account for the movement from ________ to
________.

A

a. conscious; unconscious

372
Q

Which system processes novel task demands under the scaffolding to storage framework?

A

a. scaffolding

373
Q

Compared to a novice, a chess grandmaster is more likely to be using their ________ when playing
chess.

A

b. right cortical hemisphere

374
Q

Without the brain’s “interpreter” system,

A

b. we would not have our own personal set of beliefs about the world

375
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the interpreter system?

A

d. It processes emotion.

376
Q

A neural event occurs at 1:00 p.m. Libet’s backward referral hypothesis suggests that awareness is
assigned to what time?

A

b. Exactly 1:00 p.m.

377
Q

Which statement below is both true and suggestive that chimpanzees and bonobos might have a conscious state?

A

a. They share a common ancestor with humans.

378
Q

What is the earliest age at which humans can typically succeed at mirror self-recognition (MSR)?

A

b. 2 years

379
Q

A research participant fails the MSR test. Which of the following questions should be asked before
concluding that this person lacks self-awareness?

A

d. Do you have prosopagnosia?

380
Q

Which of the following abilities do chimpanzees NOT possess?

A

b. sharing intentionality

381
Q

The work of biologist Andrew Barron and neuroscience philosopher Colin Klein suggests that
subjective experience may be present in animals as evolutionarily primitive as

A

d. invertebrates.

382
Q

Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would suggest that the cortex is required for
sentience in humans?

A

c. The extent and characteristics of sentience in people with hydranencephaly can be
predicted by cortex mapping

383
Q

You meet a Capgras syndrome patient who insists their spouse is an imposter. Why do they think this?

A

a. They recognize their spouse but feel no emotion toward them.

384
Q

Which of the following hypothetical experimental results would support the idea that the two
hemispheres have different conscious experiences?

A

c. A split-brain patient’s right hemisphere cannot infer that “match” and “paper” can lead to
fire.

385
Q

Imagine you develop a technique to introduce language processing into a split-brain patient’s right
hemisphere. How would this likely change the right hemisphere’s ability to make inferences?

A

d. Its inferences abilities would not change

386
Q

Regarding layered architecture, “abstraction” refers to the phenomenon that the processing of each
layer is hidden from the following layer.

A

True

387
Q

Multiple realizability refers to the principle that multiple combinations of neuronal activity patterns
can result in the same observable behavior.

A

True

388
Q

Regarding layered architecture, abstraction refers to the phenomenon that the processing of each layer
is hidden from the following layer

A

True

389
Q

The content of conscious experience for people with Alzheimer’s disease typically changes as the
neurodegenerative process progresses through various brain regions.

A

True

390
Q

Neuroimaging studies of conversation indicate that a person’s brain activity is unchanged by
interaction with another person

A

False

391
Q

Evidence suggests that chimpanzees are unable to understand false beliefs

A

False

392
Q

A determinist would believe that free will does not exist and that the experience of free will is an
illusion.

A

True

393
Q

The principle of complementarity suggests that we can understand our phenomenal experience if we
understand the firing of neurons.

A

False

394
Q

Typically, split-brain patients are initially very distressed when unable to verbally communicate what
they are seeing in their left visual field.

A

False