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Med Surg I > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

with HTN which organs are we most concerned about effects?

A

brain
heart
kidneys

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2
Q

describe the patho of HTN

A

vessel remodeling –> arterioles thicken –> blood flow can’t get to organs –> tissues damaged due to lack of O2

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3
Q

what is the most common type of HTN? and what’s the definition?

A

primary / essential

not caused by existing health problem

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4
Q

modifiable risk factors for HTN

A

diet, exercise, weight, substance use, stress

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5
Q

non modifiable risk factors for HTN

A

age, genetics, family hx

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6
Q

what is most common cause of secondary HTN?

A

kidney disease

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7
Q

what BP measurement indicates malignant hypertensive crisis?

A

> 200/130-150

!!!

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8
Q

symptoms of hypertensive crisis

A

HA, blurred vision, uremia, dyspnea, nose bleed

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9
Q

what can happen if hypertensive crisis is not treated?

A

stroke
kidney failure
heart failure

(the 3 organs we’re mostly concerned with HTN affecting)

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10
Q

priority interventions for hypertensive crisis (3)

A
  1. cardiac monitor (12 lead)
  2. IV access
  3. administer IV antihypertensives (to SLOWLY reduce BP)
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11
Q

re: JNC8, what should BP be for adults > or = 60

A

less than 150/90

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12
Q

re: JNC8, what should BP be for adults 30-59?

A

less than 140/90

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13
Q

re: JNC8, what should BP be for adults 18+ w/CKD or DM?

A

less than 140/90

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14
Q

re: JNC8, what should BP be for adults 19-29?

A

based on expert / provider opinion

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15
Q

why is JNC8 scale for BP considered more holistic?

A

takes a person’s age into account + existing conditions

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16
Q

what about HTN makes “buy in” challenging for tx, meds, lifestyle changes?

A

usually no symptoms

silent killer

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17
Q

what is priority intervention for pt with HTN?

A

plan of care adherence –> following drug therapy + lifestyle changes

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18
Q

what’s the overall broad goal of HTN interventions?

A

lifestyle changes

low sodium, exercise, nutrient dense foods, quit smoking + drinking

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19
Q

what are the parameters for diagnosing orthostatic hypotension?

A

drop in systolic: 20
OR
drop in diastolic: 10
WITH increase HR: 10%-20%

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20
Q 
1.	A patient is prescribed a new medication for the treatment of hypertension. While supine, the patient’s blood pressure is 112/70 mmHg and the heart rate is 80 beats/minute. The healthcare provider assesses the patient when the patient changes to a sitting position. Which of the following indicates the patient is experiencing orthostatic hypotension?
A) BP 88/62, HR 100
B) BP 98/60, HR 68
C)BP 100/66, HR 90
D)BP 120/84, HR 82
A

A

systolic drop: 20+
OR
diastolic drop: 10+
WITH 
HR increase of 10-20%
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21
Q

what is angina defined as?

A

O2 supply not meeting demand –> ischemia –> prolonged leads to cell death

+ anaerobic metabolism –> lactic acid buildup = pain

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22
Q

person admitted to hospital for 1st time chest pain - would you label this stable or unstable angina? why?

A

CANNOT be called stable; no baseline to compare it to; need further assessment

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23
Q

what is stable angina? when does this cause pain?

A

stable plaque not moving that’s blocking blood flow - limited amt of blood can get to heart

pain with activity

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24
Q

what type of angina is relieved with nitroglycerin + rest?

A

chronic stable

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25
Q

when should pt call 911 with chest pain? (4 scenarios)

A
  1. when pain isn’t within normal pattern
  2. NGL isn’t helping
  3. rest isn’t heping
  4. pain lasting >15 mins

= this is considered unstable at this point

per Messer: call 911 based on provider’s recommendation for this pt

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26
Q

does chronic stable angina cause permanent damage to heart?

A

nope - as long as they’re managing it :)

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27
Q

which type of angina causes pain at rest or with exertion (no pattern)?

A

unstable angina

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28
Q

pt presents to ED with unstable angina. what are your priority interventions? (3)

A
  1. 12 lead
  2. VS
  3. pain assessment
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29
Q

what is HF?

A

pump failure + heart cannot work effectively (cannot meet O2 demands of body)

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30
Q

why would anemia be a risk factor for HF?

A

this person has low RBCs, which means they have a low O2 carrying capacity –> causes heart to work harder

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31
Q

what is most common cause of LEFT sided HF? why?

A

HTN

Left ventricle must overcome increased vascular resistance + has to constantly work harder –> leads to hypertrophy of LV –> HF

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32
Q

systolic LEFT sided HF is defined as….

A

left ventricle PUMP failure

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33
Q

systolic LEFT sided HF most commonly caused by what?

A

HTN

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34
Q

what is normal EF? (amt of blood pushed out of L ventricle)

A

50-70%

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35
Q

with systolic left sided HF, what would EF be?

A

<40%

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36
Q

diastolic LEFT sided HF is defined as….

A

left ventricle doesn’t relax during diastole + can’t fill with as much blood

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37
Q

most common cause of diastolic left sided HF?

A

aging

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38
Q

what would you see re: EF with diastolic left sided HF?

A

“preserved EF” - misleading because it can look normal but really, the heart hasn’t filled with as much blood as normal

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39
Q

what 2 things are happening with LEFT sided HF? (broad)

A
  1. tissues not getting enough O2 (perfusion)

2. blood backing up into lungs (oxygenation)

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40
Q

what measurement is a great indicator of cardiac output?

A

urinary output

kidneys take the hit first if CO is decreased. if they’re not being perfused, body isn’t producing urine

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41
Q

s+s of left sided HF

A
  • dyspnea
  • breathlessness
  • pulmonary congestion
  • oliguria
  • confusion
  • weakness
  • fatigue

= perfusion + oxygenation problems

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42
Q

RIGHT sided HF most commonly caused by what?

A

left sided HF (LHF increases pulmonary pressure + causes R ventricle to work harder / hypertrophy –> eventually fail

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43
Q

s+s of RIGHT sided HF

A
  • edema
  • weight gain
  • JVD
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44
Q

what is the most reliable indicator of HF?

A

a patient’s weight

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45
Q

weight gain in HF that would warrant a call to the provider

A

1-2 lbs/day
or
3lbs/week

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46
Q

what’s the best way to diagnose HF?

A

ECG (EF)

EF normal is 50-70%; anything below could be indicative of HF; aside from diastolic left sided as this EF can appear normal)

BNP is also helpful but not best choice

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47
Q

what is BNP? and what’s normal level?

A

hormone secreted by heart overstretching

<100

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48
Q

what electrolyte imbalance could we see with HF?

A

hyponatremia (dilutional r/t FVO)

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49
Q

knowing the manifestations of HF, what are the overall broad goals for interventions?

A

improve cardiac output + improve gas exchange

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50
Q

w/HF patients, what interventions can we use to improve gas exchange? (3)

A
  1. elevate HOB (high fowlers)
  2. O2 therapy (>90%)
  3. ventilation assistance
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51
Q

what intervention is strongly indicated for acute episodes of HF? why?

A

ventilation assistance: this increases pressure in thoracic cavity so less blood can come into heart + it opens alveoli

(ex: CPAP, BiPAP)

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52
Q

mnemonic for treating left sided HF

hint: non pharm and pharm

A

UNLOAD FAST

upright, nitrates, lasix, O2, ACE, dig

fluids (dec), afterload (dec), sodium (dec), test

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53
Q

what are the fluid and sodium restrictions for HF patients?

KNOW THIS

A

fluid: 2L/day
sodium: 2-3g/day

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54
Q

HF pt presents to ED with rapid onset of dyspnea, crackles in lungs, pink/frothy sputum and complaints of feeling anxious. what are you primary interventions?

A
  1. high fowlers

2. O2 therapy

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55
Q

what is the best way we can educate pts to monitor for disease progression of HF?

A

rapid weight gain

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56
Q

anemia is defined as what? (broad)

A

not enough RBCs to carry adequate O2 to tissues

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57
Q

2 ways to diagnosis anemia

A
  1. reticulocyte count: # of “baby” RBCs (0.5-2%)

2. mean corpuscle volume (MCV): size of RBC (80-95)

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58
Q

low number of reticulocytes =

A

production problem

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59
Q

high number of reticulocytes =

A 
destruction problem 
(hemolytic)
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60
Q

what is normal MCV?

A

80-95

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61
Q

3 different types of anemia r/t decreased RBC production

A
  1. normocytic
  2. microcytic
  3. macrocytic
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62
Q

macrocytic anemia is an issue with what?

A

DNA synthesis (B12 or folic acid deficiency anemia)

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63
Q

microcyctic anemia is an issue with what?

A

hemoglobin issue (iron deficiency anemia)

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64
Q

risk factors for anemia

A
  • blood loss
  • malabsorption
  • GI bleed
  • age
  • immune issue (SCD)
  • bone marrow suppression
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65
Q

s+s of anemia

A
  • pallor
  • jaundice (RBCs breaking down - only with hemolytic)
  • fatigue
  • dysrhythmias
  • dizziness
  • angina
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66
Q

what is the most common anemia?

A

iron deficiency

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67
Q

what is normal reticulocyte?

A

0.5-2%

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68
Q

mouth fissures are associated with which type of anemia?

A

iron deficiency anemia

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69
Q

interventions (3) for iron deficiency anemia

A
  1. diet changes
  2. supplements
  3. IV iron infusion
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70
Q

what are the macrocytic anemias?

A

B12 + folic acid deficiency anemias

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71
Q

common cause of folic acid deficiency

A

ETOH use

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72
Q

common cause of B12 deficiency anemia

A

pernicious anemia: lacking intrinsic factor to absorb B12

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73
Q

name the unique symptom of macrocytic anemias

name unique symptom of specifically B12 deficiency anemia

A

macrocytic: glossitis

B12 deficiency: paresthesia

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74
Q

what happens with the hemoglobin in Sickle Cell Disease?

A

the normal HgbA undergoes a mutation on one beta chain –> HgbS

this mutated Hgb is sensitive to low O2 environments + loses its structure

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75
Q

with SCD, what happens to the mutated Hgb in low O2 environments?

A

loses its structure –> sickles –> clumps together –> creates occlusion in vascular system –> exacerbates low O2 environment –> more RBCs sickle

vicious cycle

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76
Q

describe what As and ss mean with SCD inheritence

A

As = carrier w/mild symptoms

ss = have disease

77
Q

conditions that can cause sickling

A
  • low O2 environments
  • high altitudes
  • stress
  • extreme temperatures
  • exercise
  • pregnancy
  • dehydration
  • infection
78
Q

assessment of pt with SCD

think of what’s happening in the body - tissues not being perfused + there’s an occlusion

A
  • PAIN
  • pallor
  • fatigue
  • LE ulcers
  • joint pain
  • diminished pulses
  • tachycardia
79
Q

major complication of SCD + what can it lead to?

A

Sickle cell CRISIS –> multisystem organ failure

tissue death r/t chronic hypoxia

80
Q

what is most common cause of death with SCD patients?

A

acute chest syndrome

81
Q

re: SCD, what is their “new normal” for hematocrit levels?

* KNOW THIS*

A

20-30%

82
Q

what values for bilirubin, reticulocytes + WBCs would you expect to see with SCD?

A

bilirubin: high (RBCs breaking down)
reticulocytes: high (destruction of RBCs)

WBCs: high (inflammatory response)

83
Q

primary interventions (3) with SCD

A
  1. O2 if hypoxic
  2. pain management
  3. hydration - to “washout” occlusion (ex: D5 1/2 NS)

not in order… don’t stress, friends

84
Q

most commonly given blood product? and at what Hgb value should we give this?

A

PRBCs

Hgb <7

85
Q

what blood product would we expect to give to patient with previous reaction to blood products or allergy history?

A

washed PRBCs

86
Q

what blood product would we give for active bleed and <50,000 platelet count or only <20,000 platelet count?

A

platelets ◡̈

87
Q

hi you!

A

you’re doing such a good job ◡̈

88
Q

hello future nurse

A

keep it up! ◡̈

89
Q

what blood type is the universal donor?

universal recipient?

A

donor: O-
recipient: AB+

90
Q

what is your role as a nurse for blood product administration?

A
  • verify order
  • verify consent
  • recent type + cross
  • appropriate IV access (18-20g)
  • get blood + start within 15 minutes
  • identify pt + compare with blood product
  • verify w/2nd nurse or barcode system
  • administer all within 4 hours
  • stay with patient at bedside for 1st 15 minutes
  • frequent VS checks + monitoring
91
Q

re: blood transfusions, what adjustments do we need to make between an 18 gauge needle vs a 20 gauge needle?

A

run slower with 20g b/c of hemolysis risk

92
Q

what is most common transfusion rxn?

A

acute non-hemolytic febrile

93
Q

if you suspect an infusion reaction, what are your steps as a nurse? (8)

KNOW THIS

A
  1. STOP transfusion!
  2. remove tubing
  3. notify charge + activate rapid response
  4. flush IV unless only access
  5. O2 therapy
  6. benadryl + tylenol
  7. assess pt
  8. notify provider
94
Q

peripheral arterial disease is often r/t what?

A

atherosclerosis

95
Q

assessment findings of PAD

A
  • pain
  • diminished pulses
  • pallor
  • cool extremities
  • hair loss
  • thickened toenails
  • ulcers
  • dependent rubor
96
Q

describe what ulcers would look like with PAD

A

round, distinct edges

usually on foot or toes

97
Q

describe what dependent rubor is and what type of PVD you’d find this in

A

Peripheral Arterial Disease

pallor when legs are elevated + turn red when feet are danging

98
Q

how can we diagnose PAD?

A

ankle-brachial index: BP of both, should be 1:1 ratio (any less than that = PAD)

99
Q

interventions for PAD

A
  • exercise
  • legs in dependent position /\
  • heat to open things up ( only warm socks!! )
  • fluids
  • NOT HEATING PADS OR HOT WATER OR COLD**
100
Q

a patient has undergone a surgical vein bypass as an intervention for peripheral arterial disease. in the post op area, patient complains of throbbing pain in affected extremity. what should you do?

A

reassure patient this is a normal sign after vein bypass for PAD. this pain is reperfusion pain and it will improve.

101
Q

your patient is in the postoperative area following a vein bypass for peripheral arterial disease. what complaint by your patient should you recognize as a medical emergency?

A. “The leg they did surgery on is throbbing!”
B. “I feel pretty nauseous right now.”
C. “Can I have a snack?”
D. “The pain in my leg is really aching and it’s not stopping!”

A

D - this could indicate a graft occlusion and is a medical emergency. pain turns to continuous severe aching. throbbing pain is normal and signals reperfusion of the extremity.

102
Q

what are the 6 P’s of an acute arterial occlusion?

A
  1. poikilotherma
  2. pulselessness
  3. paresthesia
  4. paralysis
  5. pain
  6. pallor

SUDDEN ONSET

103
Q

what is an acute arterial occlusion? and what is most common cause?

A

embolism traveling and lodging in artery

a fib most common cause

104
Q

What are the 3 types of peripheral venous disease?

A
  1. venous insufficiency
  2. venous thromboembolism
  3. varicose veins
105
Q

describe venous insufficiency

A

veins unable to get blood back to heart

–> pools in extremities

106
Q

assessment findings of venous insufficiency

A
  • skin discoloration (stasis dermatisis)
  • ulcers
  • edema
  • thickened skin
107
Q

interventions for venous insufficiency

A
  • elevate legs \/ (20 mins 4-5x/day)

- compression devices

108
Q

what is a venous thromboembolism?

A

blood clot in vein b/c of pooling of blood

109
Q

where are venous thromboembolisms most likely to occur?

A

deep veins + lower extremities

110
Q

a DVT is associated with a risk of what complication?

A

PE!!!

111
Q

3 key* assessment findings of DVT

A
  • unilateral redness
  • swelling
  • warmth

*pain is a MAYBE

112
Q

interventions for DVT

(think risks + ABCs)

A
  • assess respiratory status (monitoring for PE)
  • anticoags
  • elevate extremities
  • ambulation
  • compression socks
  • DON’T MASSAGE*`
113
Q

describe what varicose veins are

A

protruding veins that are dark + twisted

114
Q

varicose veins are r/t what scenarios?

A

prolonged standing + heavy lifting

oh hi, it’s us

115
Q

what is the normal Hgb range for male + female? (per Messer)

A

11-17

116
Q

s+s of varicose veings

A
  • feeling of fullness
  • itching
  • edema
117
Q

what is parkinson’s?

A

progressive, neurodegenerative disorder of LOW DOPAMINE

118
Q

what are the 4 cardinal s+s of parkinson’s

A
  1. tremors
  2. muscle rigidity
  3. bradykinesia/akinesia
  4. postural instability
119
Q

what area of the brain is parkinson’s affecting?

A

substantia nigra –> decreased dopamine

120
Q

parkinson’s also has an effect on what other area of the body causing irreversible damage?

A

ANS

(reduced sympathetic effect on heart + vessels because of decreased dopamine (SNS NT) and increase in acetylcholine (PsNS NT))

121
Q

s+s of parkinson’s

A
  • resting tremor
  • handwriting changes
  • slurred speech
  • drooling
  • freezing
  • rigidity
  • facial expression changes
  • personality changes
  • sleep disturbances
  • parasympathetic symptoms
122
Q

what is TOP PRIORITY for pt with parkinson’s (think ABC)

A

protect airway

123
Q

aside from maintaining an airway, what’s the other priority for parkinson’s patients?

A

FALL RISK

124
Q

how do we diagnose for parkinson’s?

A

rule out other causes; b/c no definitive test

125
Q

main intervention goal for pt with parkinson’s

A

optimize independence

126
Q

what is a seizure?

A

rapid, uncontrolled firing of neurons

127
Q

epilepsy is defined as ……

A

> 2 seizures

128
Q

epilepsy can be caused by what?

A

imbalance of NTs
+
abnormal neuron activity

129
Q

what are the 3 types of seizures?

A

partial (focal) + generalized (both hemispheres) + unidentified

130
Q

what are the 3 types of generalized seizures? describe them

A
  1. tonic-clonic
  2. myoclonic
  3. atonic
131
Q

describe a tonic-clonic seizure

A

muscle rigidity then jerking

2-5 mins

loss of consciousness

132
Q

describe a myoclonic seizure

A

jerking of extremities

no loss of consciousness

133
Q

describe an atonic seizure

A

sudden loss of muscle tone; drops to ground

134
Q

what is priority after an atonic seizure occurs?

A

assess patient for injuries (they’ve had a sudden loss of muscle tone and could have fallen/hit their head)

135
Q

re: a complex partial seizure, how is LOC affected?

A

impaired consciousness

136
Q

re: a simple partial seizure, how is LOC affected?

A

NO LOSS of consciousness

137
Q

re: a complex partial seizure, what might you see with the patient?

A
  • staring into space
  • can’t follow commands
  • automatism (lip smacking)
138
Q

what classification of seizure is a pre seizure aura?

A

simple partial seizure

unilateral movement, weird feelings

139
Q

if a patient is on seizure precautions, how should you have the room prepared/set up? (5)

A
  1. airway kit
  2. suction
  3. IV access
  4. O2
  5. bed lowered + locked
140
Q

if a person starts having a seizure, what’s your role?

A
  • turn on side
  • protect their head
  • remove harmful objects
  • stay with them and record seizure activity
141
Q

if a patient is having a seizure for > 5 minutes, what do you do?

A

meds + airway

142
Q

status epilepticus is defined as what?

A

seizure >5 mins

143
Q

what 2 complications are you worried about with status epilepticus?

A

hypoglycemia + hypoxia

144
Q

what are your priority interventions with status epilepticus?

A
  1. AIRWAY
  2. lorazepam
  3. dilantin
145
Q

what is alzheimer’s?

A

a progressive loss of brain function
+
impaired cognition

146
Q

alzheimer’s is associated with a low level of what? + high level of what?

A

LOW acetyltransferase

high beta amyloid

147
Q

definitive diagnosis for alzheimer’s

A

with autopsy ONLY

tau tangles + beta amyloid plaques

148
Q

alzheimer’s disease begins with what ….

A

mild memory loss (losing keys, forgetting where you put something)

149
Q

death with alzheimer’s disease is commonly related to what?

A

immobility (PNA)

150
Q

what is agnosia? (r/t alzheimer’s)

A

can’t identify known objects + recall how to use them (ie: pencil)

151
Q

what is vitally important when caring for alzheimer’s patients?

A

structure
consistency
removing environmental simulation (but keep overall stimulation balanced for them)

152
Q

what is a TIA?

A

a brief interruption of blood flow to brain that causes neuro dysfunction

warning sign for CVA

153
Q

symptoms with TIA usually resolve when?

A

30-60 mins; can last 24 hours

154
Q

mnemonic to remember s+s of stroke

A

BEFAST

balance, eyes, face, arms, speech, TIME

155
Q

what is aphasia?

A

problems with comprehension + saying the wrong words

156
Q

what is dysarthria?

A

slurred speech

157
Q

assessment tool for TIA to determine if patient should be admitted to hospital

A

ABCD

Age: >60
BP: >140/90
Clinical features: unilateral weakness = increased CVA risk
Duration of symptoms: longer = increased CVA risk

158
Q

what is a CVA?

A

interruption in brain perfusion –> CELL DEATH

159
Q

what are the main 2 types of CVAs?

A

ischemic (blockage) + hemorrhagic (bleed)

160
Q

what are the 2 types of ischemic strokes?

A

thrombotic + embolic

161
Q

which type of ischemic stroke can cause a hemorrhagic stroke? why?

A

embolic stroke - because usually these emboli travel to smaller vessels in brain and the pressure causes the vessel to burst –> bleed

162
Q

what are the 2 types of hemorrhagic strokes?

A

intracerebral + subarachnoid

both are severe + sudden onset

163
Q

which type of stroke is often r/t uncontrolled HTN?

A

intracerebral hemorrhagic

164
Q

which type of stroke is associated with the common complaint: “WORST HEADACHE OF MY LIFE!!!”

A

subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke

165
Q

which type of hemorrhagic stroke is more common?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke

166
Q

what is agnosia?

A

can’t recognize well known object or use correctly (ie: pencil)

167
Q

what is apraxia?

A

can’t perform previous learned skill (motor or speech)

168
Q

re: CVAs, how are the stroke locations related to the manifestations?

A

effects are r/t location

s+s manifest on opposite side of body

(R sided CVA = L sided weakness)

169
Q

R hemisphere stroke s+s

A

L sided hemiparesis/plegia

impaired proprioception

personality changes

impulsiveness / poor judgement

UNAWARE

170
Q

L hemisphere stroke s+s

A

R sided hemiparesis/plegia

speech + language issues (agraphia + alexia)

can’t do math problems

impaired logic

cautious

depressed

171
Q

this complication of CVA most commonly occurs within 72 hours of onset of CVA

A

increased ICP (secondary to edema)

172
Q

what posturing would we see with increased ICP?

A

decorticate (arms to core)

decerebrate (arms by side)

173
Q

what is early sign of increased ICP?

A

decreased LOC

174
Q

what is late sign of increased ICP?

A

pupil constriction

175
Q

re: complications of CVA, when would you likely see a seizure occur?

A

within 24 hrs (r/t ICP)

176
Q

re: increased ICP + cushing’s triad, what are the hallmark signs?

A

HTN, widening pulse pressure, bradycardia

177
Q

cerebral vasospams are most common with which type of stroke? and when is higher occurrence (time frame)?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

4-14 days

178
Q

re: CVA complications, what is one you can think of r/t airway?

A

PNA (b/c of dysphagia, aspiration, immobility)

179
Q

what is protocol for ASA + tPa use?

A

no ASA within 24 hours of tPa!!!!!!

180
Q

what is most common risk factor for stroke?

A

HTN

181
Q

for prevention of CVA, where would we like to keep patients with Diabetes at w/blood glucose?

A

100-180

182
Q

which stroke center has more resources? (primary or secondary)

A

secondary

primary only has stroke team + IV thrombolytics

183
Q

when caring for patient with change in neurological function, what should you aim to do?

A

RULE OUT OTHER CAUSES

blood glucose changes, hypoxia, UTI, delirium, etc

184
Q

what is the NIHSS? what score determines a patient is NOT a candidate for tPa?

A

assessment tool to measure stroke-related neurological impairments

> 25 = not candidate for tPa

185
Q

what is our 1st line diagnostic for CVA?

A

CT scan (determines ischemic vs hemorrhagic; negative hemorrhagic –> ischemic)

186
Q

for which type of stroke should we use IV thrombolytics? what is our time frame for administration?

A

ISCHEMIC ONLY!!!!

within 4.5 hours of symptom onset

187
Q

Who is ineligible for tPa therapy?

A 
>80 yrs
>25 on NIHSS score
stroke involves 1/3 of brain 
hx of stroke AND diabetes (must have both)
active bleeding
188
Q

how should you dress a stroke survivor?

A

dress WEAK 1st

take off strong 1st

(to avoid damaging the affected extremity more through awkward movements)

189
Q

what side of patient should you walk on with CVA survivor?

A

nurse walk on UNAFFECTED side

+ pt hold cane on on UNAFFECTED side

Med Surg I (6 decks)

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