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NUR 622: Adv. Pharmacology Lectures > Exam 1B: Dr. Bagwell > Flashcards

Exam 1B: Dr. Bagwell Flashcards

1
Q

This is a low cost alternative antibiotic in children > 2 months and PCN allergic.

A

Sulfonamides

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2
Q

This drug binds to the beta subunit of mycobacteria DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibits RNA synthesis.

A

Rifampin

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2
Q

Metabolism of INH is highly variable and dependent on ____.

A

acetylator status

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3
Q

Block box warning for Fluoroquinolones.

A

Avoid in < 18 y.o; can cause tendon rupture/ tendonitis; potential for bone development problems

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3
Q

Vancomycin Adverse reactions (3)

A
  1. Ototoxicity 2. Nephrotoxicity 3. Red Man syndrome
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3
Q

These organisms grow slowly and are relatively resistant to drugs that are largely dependent on how rapidly cells are dividing.

A

Mycobacteria They have the ability to go into dormant state

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3
Q

Drug used as TB preventive therapy

A

INH

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3
Q

Tamiflu needs to be taken within _____ onset of flu symptoms.

A

1st 48 hours

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3
Q

Lab test you need to monitor in patients taking Flagyl

A

CBC (leukopenia)

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4
Q

This is used for severe gram + infections such as MRSA resistant to first line antibiotics

A

Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)

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5
Q

This drug blocks folic acid synthesis

A

sulfonamides

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6
Q

mebendazole may cause ____

A

transient neutropenia

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7
Q

What do you need to monitor in patients taking cephalosporins (2)

A
  1. Diarrhea (C.Diff) 2. Renal function
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7
Q

Lincosamides are the first line antibiotics in special populations such as ___

A

children and pregnant moms

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8
Q

Diagnostic test to watch for in patients taking Moxifloxacin (avelox), a fluoroquinolone?

A

ECG (Aflutter)

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9
Q

Fluoroquinoles interfere with ________ required for the synthesis of _______.

A

bacterial enzymes ….. bacterial DNA

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9
Q

Mycobacteria have a ______ cell wall relatively impermeable to many drugs.

A

lipid-rich

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10
Q

6 Causes of drug resistance (raid-me)

A
  1. Recent use of Antibiotics 2. Age: 65 3. Immunosuppression 4. Day care center attendance 5. Multiple medical comorbidities 6. Exposure to young children
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10
Q

For roundworms, hookworms, and whipworms, stool samples are obtained before and ______ after treatment for proof of cure.

A

1 -3 weeks

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11
Q

Name 2 antifungals which are active against yeast and dermatophytes.

A
  1. Naftifine (Naftin) 2. Terbinafine (Lamisil)
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11
Q
A
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12
Q

this drug is converted to acyclovir after oral administration.

A

Valacyclovir

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12
Q

Varicella: Antivirals should be started within ___.

A

24 hours of outbreak

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14
Q

Anti-influenza B. (Inhaled)

A

Zanamivir (relenza) 4-17% absorbed

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15
Q

These tetracyclines are used for treatment of acne

A

doxycycline minocycline

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15
Q

Valtrex may cause ____ (2) in immunocompromised patients.

A
  1. Thrombocytopenic purpura (CHECK PLATELET) 2. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
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17
Q

Macrolides adverse reactions include urticaria, eczema, and _____.

A

stevens-johnson syndrome

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19
Q

This is the drug of choice for community acquired PNA (mycoplasma)

A

Macrolides

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20
Q

Antimycobacterials (2) which inhibit synthesis of mycolic acids

A

INH and ethambutol

22
Q

Monitoring needed for patients taking sulfonamides (3)

A
  1. WBC (longterm users) 2.C/S for UTI: 9/10 pts are already resistant 3. CXR: Cough in Macrobid use
24
Q

T/F: Rifampin is an inducer of CYP450 enzyme

A

true

25
Q

Ethambutol inhibits synthesis of ______, an essential component of mycobacteria cell wall.

A

arabinogalactan

27
Q

This is the first line therapy for MRSA

A

Lincosamides (e.g. Clinda)

27
Q

Common adverse reaction of metronidazole

A

metallic taste

29
Q

This is the drug of choice for H. pylori infections

A

Clarithromycin (Macrolides)

31
Q

It decreases absorption of tetracyclines.

A

Milk and Calcium

32
Q

4 drug therapy used in Active TB

A

INH, ethambutol, Pyrazinamide, Rifampin

33
Q

Intestinal parasites are treated with (2)

A
  1. mebendazole (vermex) 2. Pyrantel (Pin-x)
34
Q

Cephalosporins inhibit ______ in the bacterial cell wall.

A

mucopeptide synthesis

36
Q

Macrolides are potent inhibitors of ____

A

CYP 450 3A4

37
Q

FYI: Antimycobacterials: resistance develops rapidly to mono therapy. Cross resistance with INH and ethionamide

A

!

38
Q

This drug is effective against amebiasis, trichomoniasis, giadiasis.

A

Tinidazole

39
Q

Alcohol should be avoided in patients taking flagyl or tinidazole due to

A

disulfiram-like reactions (N/V)

41
Q

Anti-influenza A drugs (3). Given orally

A
  1. Amantadine (symmetrel) 2. Rimantadine (Flumadine) 3. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
42
Q

Ivermectin may cause ___

A

Mazzotti reaction (swollen and tender lymph nodes, fever, tachycardia, hypotension, etc)

43
Q

This antihelmentic should not be taken if pregnant and backup contraception should be used for 1 month after taking.

A

Albendazole

44
Q

This drug may inhibit acetyl coenzymes.

A

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

46
Q

Sulfonamides (bacterium, nitofurantoin) should be avoided in patients with ____.

A

G6PD deficiency (Abnormal X chromosome gene; leads to hemolytic anemia)

47
Q

FYI: Clindamycin is given 4x/ day therefore there is a high risk for non-compliance

A

!

47
Q

This type of antibiotic inhibits RNA dependent protein synthesis

A

Macrolides

48
Q

Clinical Indications for cephalosporins (4)

A
  1. Strep pharyngitis 2. Acute otitis media 3. Chlamydia/ gonorrhea 4. Community-acquired PNA
49
Q

Fluoroquinolones are clinical indicated for what type of PNA?

A

PCN resistant s. pneumoniae

51
Q

Clinical Use/ Indications of Lincosamides

A
  1. MRSA 2. Dental Infections 3. Infections in PCN allergic pts
52
Q

Lab test monitoring if your patient is on fluroquinolones like levaquin?

A

ALT/AST, BUN/ Crea (Hepatic and renal tests)

53
Q

_____ have greater activity against gram negative bacteria due to enhanced ability to penetrate the outer membrane organisms.

A

Aminopenicillins

54
Q

Lab monitoring, q 3-4 months, for patients taking Ketoconazole (3)

A
  1. AST, ALT 2. Alkaline phosphatase 3. Bilirubin
56
Q

Macrolides need to be monitored for altered response to concurrent medications metabolized by _____.

A

CYP 450 3A and 2C9

57
Q

Name 4 combination drugs of B-lactam + B-lactamase Inhibitors

A
  1. Zosyn 2. Unasyn 3. Augmentin 4. Timentin
58
Q

This drug treats both parasitic and bacterial infections.

A

Metronidazole (avoid in 1st rimester of pregnancy)

59
Q

Monitoring for TB drugs

A

DOT (directly observed therapy)

60
Q

When macrocodes are combined with STATIN, it increases the risk for ____.

A

myopathy

61
Q

Black box warning for Tetracyclines

A

Don’t prescribe in lactating, pregnant women or children s growth.

62
Q

This is the first line therapy for chlamydia.

A

tetracyclines

63
Q

Fluoroquinolones can have a delayed onset of tendon rupture/ tendonitis. How many days after administration?

A

120 days to months after administration

64
Q

This anti fungal has the fewest drug interactions.

A

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

66
Q

Macrolides are well absorbed from the ___

A

duodenum

67
Q

Tissue parasites are treated with (3)

A
  1. Mebendazole (vermex) 2. Albendazole (albenza) 3. Ivermectin (Stormectol)
68
Q

Adverse reaction to PCN includes diarrhea. What drug, when combined with PCN, increases the risk of diarrhea?

A

Clavulanic acid (augmenting)

69
Q

Example of a lincosamide

A

Clindamycin (Cleocin)

70
Q

PCN allergic reactions occur within ______ minutes of administration.

A

2 - 30 minutes

71
Q

Shingles: Antivirals should be started within ___.

A

3 days of outbreak

72
Q

This drug binds reversibly to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.

A

Tetracyclines

NUR 622: Adv. Pharmacology Lectures (7 decks)

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