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VTNE Prep > Exam > Flashcards

Exam Flashcards

1
Q

I’m the x-ray machine, electrons travel from the ____ to the _____.

A

cathode to the anode

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2
Q

A urinary bladder stone on ultrasound would be described as…

A

hyperechoic

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3
Q

what borders or landmarks are used for an elbow radiograph?

A

1/3 radius/ulna, 1/3 humerus

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4
Q

If a radiograph appears too light and the image appears underpenetrated, you should?

A

Increase kVp 10-15%

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5
Q

what is name of the radiographic study that involves injection dye into the spinal column?

A

Myelogram

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6
Q

The term for fewer than normal teeth is?

A

oligodontia

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7
Q

The surface of premolars and molars adjacent to the cheek is called?

A

Buccal

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8
Q

what is the most common dental procedure preformed on a horse?

A

floating

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9
Q

Bovine dentition includes how many upper incisors?

A

0

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10
Q

What is the Bovine dental formula?

A

2x (I 0/3, C0/1, P 3/3, M 3/3)=32

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11
Q

Using the triadan system what is the correct way to describe a dogs first upper left permanent premolar?

A

205

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12
Q

The upper left quadrant in a dog or cats mouth is the _____ series?

A

200

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13
Q

The lower right quadrant in a dog or cats moth is the ____ series?

A

400

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14
Q

The right maxillary third incisor in an adult cat would be numbered?

A

103

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15
Q

The left sided canine tooth of the mandible in an adult dog would be numbered?

A

304

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16
Q

The pulp canal of a tooth contains?

A

blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue

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17
Q

A bull dog would be described as having what type of head shape?

A

brachycephalic

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18
Q

In veterinary dentistry chlorhexidine solutions are used because they?

A

have antibacterial properties

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19
Q

what is false regarding patient safety during a dentistry?

A

The endotracheal tube should be uncuffes so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing a dentistry.

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20
Q

between patients it is best to use the following order for maintaining instruments?

A

Use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize

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21
Q

stomatitis is?

A

inflammation of the mouths soft tissue

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22
Q

the thin film covering a tooth that comprises bacteria, saliva and food particles is?

A

plaque

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23
Q

what term identifies the instrument to detect sublingual calculus?

A

Explorer

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24
Q

Fewer teeth than normal is?

A

Oligodontia

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25
Q

an elongation of one side of the animals head results in?

A

wry mouth

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26
Q

what is the proper dilution of chlorhexidine solutes for use in the mouth?

A

0.2%

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27
Q

the normal periodontal pocket depth in the dog is?

A

<3mm

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28
Q

what measurement should be charged as a pocket in the gingival sulcus in an adult dog?

A

4mm

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29
Q

The normal adult canine has how many permanent teeth?

A

42

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30
Q

what term identifies the wearing away of teeth by tooth against tooth contact during mastication?

A

Attrition

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31
Q

what is the proper dental term for describing a tooth surface?

A

Buccal - facing cheek

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32
Q

fractured deciduous teeth?

A

should be extracted

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33
Q

what species has a dental pad instead of upper incisors or upper canine teeth?

A

Bovine

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34
Q

The deciduous incisors…

A

Have roots that are proportionately longer that the roots of permanent incisors.

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35
Q

what is the minimum age for a cat to have all of its permanent teeth?

A

6 months

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36
Q

what part of the equines mouth plays a prehensile role?

A

lips

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37
Q

you have an instrument in your hand that has 2 sharp sides, a rounded back and rounded point you are holding a?

A

universal curette

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38
Q

while preforming a routine prophylactic dentistry the veterinary technician notes a large, red raised lesion on the lip of her feline patient. the client noted that the lesion comes and goes. what is reasonable differential for this lesion?

A

eosinophilic ulcer

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39
Q

what term identifies the loss of the tooth structure by chemical means?

A

erosion

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40
Q

what teeth on each side of the mouth in a dog have 3 roots?

A

maxillary fourth premolar and first and second molar

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41
Q

what cardiac disease is often associated with severe dental disease?

A

vegetative endocarditis

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42
Q

once plaque has formed on a tooth, how long does it take to mineralize into calculus?

A

About 7 days

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43
Q

of cats and dogs ages 6yrs and older, approximately what percentage has periodontal disease?

A

85%

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44
Q

when preforming dental prophylaxis you should be sure to wear?

A

mask, eye protection, gloves

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45
Q

ideally the cutting edge of the scaler should be held at what angle to the tooth surface?

A

45-90%

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46
Q

in which species do the teeth fail to continue growing?

A

cat

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47
Q

the correct dental formula for an adult dog is?

A

2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3)=42

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48
Q

2 tooth buds that grow together to form one larger tooth is referred to as?

A

Fusion

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49
Q

name 4 opioids commonly used in veterinary medicine?

A

butorphanol, morphine, fentanyl, buprenorphine, methadone, meperidine, hydromorphone, etc

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50
Q

list 3 drugs in the benzodiazepines class?

A

diazepam, midazolam, lorazepam, zolazepam etc

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51
Q

list 2 alpha agonists and 2 alpha 2 antagonists used in veterinary medicine.

A

dexmedetomidine, medetomidine, xylazine, atipamezole, yohimbine

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52
Q

what is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthesia for patients weighing less than 7kg ?

A

non rebreathing circuit

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53
Q

which opioid is classified as a mixed agonist/antagonist, and provides sedation, analgesia and has antitussive properties?

A

butorphanol

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54
Q

Drugs are considered an _______ if their action at the receptor is to stimulate.

A

agonist

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55
Q

opioids may be reversed with?

A

Naloxone

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56
Q

If the patient has hypotension the best single treatment is?

A

increase the IV fluids

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57
Q

A micro drip IV set supplies?

A

60 gtt/ml

58
Q

the effect of IV administration of any drug is detected in?

A

30-60secs

59
Q

Acepromozine is classified as an?

A

phenithiazine tranquilizer

60
Q

A capnograph measures?

A

Expired CO2

61
Q

you have just induced and intubated a canine patient. the patient has normal chest excursions but the capnography is reading 0. what has likely happened?

A

the endotracheal tub is likely in the esophagus

62
Q

what is the best explanation for a dog under anesthesia with a heart rate of 200 bpm?

A

the patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia

63
Q

what intravenous anesthetic agent is extremely short acting and is known to cause apnea if administered too quickly?

A

propofol

64
Q

a 5% solution of lidocaine has a msg/mL concentration of?

A

50mg/mL

65
Q

what general anesthetic agent agents can be delivered of effect except?

A

Telazol give IM

66
Q

what part of the anesthetic machine adjusts oxygen flow and the flow of anesthetic gas to the flow of anesthetic gas to the system is the?

A

flow meter

67
Q

it is generally safe to extubate a canine or a feline when the patient?

A

swallows

68
Q

the oxygen flush valve?

A

allows the oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer.

69
Q

to quickly lighten the depth if anesthesia in a patient under inhalant anesthesia the anesthetist should?

A

turn the vaporizer setting off or down.

70
Q

what agent is considered an anticholinergic?

A

atropine

71
Q

when administering barbiturates?

A

give half the dose quickly and the rest to effect.

72
Q

which drug is not classified as a barbiturate?

A

propofol

73
Q

what effect does atropine at normal doses have on the HR?

A

prevents a decrease

74
Q

what drug should be avoided in patients suffering from hypovolemic shock?

A

Acepromazine

75
Q

the barbiturate commonly used in sight hound for its ability to produce faster recovery is?

A

Methohexial

76
Q

obesity delays drug elimination bc of the high lipid solubility of which drug?

A

thiopental

77
Q

thiopental can be given?

A

IV

78
Q

what is the proper length of time neonatal should be faster prior to surgery?

A

0hrs

79
Q

what is an example of an alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonist?

A

Dex, xylazine, medetomidine

80
Q

The term pyrexia means?

A

Fever

81
Q

a postprandial urine sample would be taken after a period of?

A

eating

82
Q

what vitamins are fat soluble?

A

A, D, E, K

83
Q

the normal urine production for a healthy dog or cat is approximately? (mL/kg/hr)

A

1-2ml/kg/hr

84
Q

what vitamin is also known as thiamine?

A

B1

85
Q

B1 plays…

A

an important role in growth and function of cells.

86
Q

what is the average length of gestation for a dog?

A

63days

87
Q

what needle has the largest interior diameter?

A

16 gauge

88
Q

the most appropriate solution to use as an ear cleaner in an animal that does not have intact tympanum is?

A

physiologic saline

89
Q

the vein of choice for blood sampling in horses is the?

A

jugular vein

90
Q

which reference to the eyes the abbreviation OD mean?

A

Right eye

91
Q

hypocalcemia in dogs occurs?

A

most often in mid to late lactation

92
Q

a patient with an increased packed cell volume (PCV) and an elevated total solids is likely suffering from?

A

dehydration

93
Q

the term nystagmus refers to?

A

the eyes moving in a horizontal or vertical motion

94
Q

pinpoint hemorrhage of the mucous membranes and skin is termed?

A

Petechiation

95
Q

what is the avian equivalent to neutrophils in mammals?

A

heterophils

96
Q

what is a free martin?

A

a heifer born twinned to a bull

97
Q

what is beef breed of cattle?

A

hereford

98
Q

the term pyrexia refers to?

A

fever

99
Q

an animal with what condition is most prone to fluid overload?

A

cardiac insufficiency

100
Q

the opening of the anal ducts is on the rectum at the?

A

4 and 8 o’clock positions

101
Q

what is a potential side effect of chemotherapy?

A

anorexia, anemia, alopecia

102
Q

what is most often associated with cancer patients?

A

cachexia

103
Q

what sign is not seen in fearful animals?

A

constricted pupils

104
Q

anterior drawer movement detects a problem with the?

A

stifle

105
Q

what is a trichobezoar?

A

Hairball

106
Q

Decubital sores are?

A

found on skin because of urine scalding and pressure from lying in one position for too long.

107
Q

addisons disease is also known as?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism.

108
Q

Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of?

A

erythrocytes

109
Q

what vein is found on the lateral aspect of back leg?

A

saphenous

110
Q

fluids administered via the subcutaneous route should be at?

A

body temperature and isotonic

111
Q

at what age can a dog or cat be vaccinated for rabies?

A

12 weeks

112
Q

what is considered a potential vector for lyme disease which can cause severe human illness

A

Tick

113
Q

the term pruitt is refers to?

A

itching

114
Q

the lab tests that are very useful in assessing fluid loss is a patient are?

A

PCV, plasma protein, and urine specific gravity

115
Q

what animal is a common vector for the rabies virus?

A

skunk

116
Q

why are imtranassal vaccines so effective against respiratory diseases?

A

immunoglobin A is produced at the site of virus entry

117
Q

the least desirable method of administering insulin is?

A

Per OS

118
Q

what tissue is the preferred tissue to be submitted for rabies diagnosis?

A

Brain

119
Q

what phase of ECG represents the depolarization of the atria?

A

P wave

120
Q

what is a common complication when intubating feline patients?

A

laryngospasm

121
Q

a declaw is also known as an?

A

onychectomy

122
Q

list 3 types of towel clamps commonly used in veterinary medicine.

A

Jones, Backhaus, Roeder

123
Q

which hemostatic forcep is often used to crush the ovarian pedicle or the base of the uterus during a spay?

A

Rochester Carmalt

124
Q

What is the name of the instrument most suitable for the removal of the bike during spinal surgery?

A

Rongeur

125
Q

If a radiograph is too dark, but the image appears to have adequate penetration you should?

A

Decrease kVp 10-15%

126
Q

The radiographic term that describes the caudal surface of the forelimb distal to the carpus is?

A

Dorsopalmar

127
Q

what is the effect of opioids on the eyes of dogs and cats?

A

Miosis in dogs, Mydriasis in cats

128
Q

a postprandial urine sample would be taken after a period of?

A

Eating

129
Q

A 10% solution of this pentax sodium for anesthetic inductions contain?

A

100mg/mL

130
Q

Many medications used in pain control may potentially lead to ileus when used for extended periods of time. Which of the following best describes the condition?

A

Distribution of normal movement of the bowels

131
Q

which type of hemostatic forceps are used to crush the ovarian pedicle or the base of the uterus during an ovariohysterectomy?

A

Rochester Carmalt

132
Q

which agent is classified as an opioid mixed agonist-antagonist that provides sedation, analgesic and antitussive effects?

A

Butorphanol

133
Q

When one or more of the upper incisors rest causally the the lower incisors and the rest of the occlusion in normal it is called?

A

Anterior cross bite

134
Q

what drug is a phenothiazine tranquilizer most commonly used as a premedication in small animal medicine?

A

Acepromazine

135
Q

What is a trichobezoar?

A

Hairball

136
Q

What is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthesia for patients weighing less than 7kg?

A

Non-Rebreathing

137
Q

A noninvasive imagine procedure that uses a small amount of radioactive material administered IV is?

A

Ultrasound

138
Q

what opioid provides good analgesia of long duration for mild to moderate pain in cats and can be given IV, SQ, IM, as well as transmucosally?

A

Buprenorphine

139
Q

An oronasal fistula can often occur secondary to?

A

Abscess of the maxillary canine tooth

140
Q

Oliguria is defined as?

A

decreased urine output.

141
Q

Caslick surgery is performed in mare to minimize?

A

Pneumovagina

VTNE Prep (4 decks)

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