Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Ventilator associated pneumonia

A

מונשמים נוטים לפתח לקת ריאות מכיוון שהטובוס פוגע במנגנון ההגנה נגד מיקרואספרציות, רוב המקרים מתפתחים בחמשת הימים הראשונים.
המחוללים העיקריים: מחוללים עיקריים מהקהילה
בנוסף חיידקים עמידים, כולל פסאודומונס, MRSA, אצינטובטר, חידדקים גרם שליליים ESBL.

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2
Q

Community acquired pneumonia CAP

A

המחוללים העיקריים מהקהילה
(Streptococcus pneumoniae (two thirds))|
haemophilus influenzae
mycoplasma pneumoniae
chlamydia pneumonia
legionella
chlamydia pisttaci
coxiella burnetti
enteric gram negative bacteria
pseudomonas aeruginosa
staphylococcus aureus
anaerobes
respiratory viruses.

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3
Q

Empiric treatment of VAP

A

AB that covers Pseudomonas, MRSA, and gram negative bacteria.
Vancomycin
Ceftazidime (third generation cephalosporin)
Levofloxacin (fluoroquinolone for covering legionella)

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4
Q

MRSA pneumonia AB coverage

A

seven to 21 days of intravenous vancomycin or linezolid, or clindamycin (600 mg orally or intravenously three times per day) if the strain is susceptible.

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5
Q

EBV Infectious mononucleosis

A

common in childhood and adolescence.
in developing contries the the encounter of the infection happens at earlier stages.
in adolescent 75% of the patients will develop Infectious mononucleosis.
the virus is transmitted by saliva.
symptoms are un specific, including myalgia, weakness, fever.
lymphadenopathy and pharyngitis appear in the first two weeks of the disease.
splenomegaly may appear in the second or third week.
treatment with penicillin may cause macular rash, not associated with allergy to penicillin in the future.
in lap: lymphocytosis (with atypical lymphocytes), thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes.
the diagnosis is done by serological markers.
EBV is associated with different neoplasm including, hodgkins and NH lymphoma, burkitts lymphoma (15%), Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
in AIDS- EBV is associated with 100% of primary CNS lymphoma.

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6
Q

Incidentaloma

A

Should be evaluated if:
Characteristics of malignancy, including a size greater than 4 cm, radiodensity more than 20 hounsfiels (HU).
Endocrinological evaluation must be done prior to any intervention, including:
24h urine collection for catecholamines (or metanephrines in plasma), 2 test for cushing and aldosteron/renin test.
In case more than 4 cm, sex hormones should also be tested.

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7
Q

CSF in bacterial meningitis

A

Bacterial meningitis:
WBC > 1000, usually with neutrophilic predominance.
CSF protein concentration above 250 mg/dl
Glucose concentration below 45 mg/dl

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8
Q

Clinical Triade of meningitis

A

Nuchal rigidity
Fever
Mental status change

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9
Q

Indication for CT scan before LP when meningitis is suspected

A

1- Immunocompromised state (HIV, immunosuppressive therapy, solid organ or hematopoietic cell transplantation).
2- History of CNS disease (mass lesion, stroke, focal infection).
3- new onset seizure (within one week of presentation).
4- papiledema.
5- Abnormal level of consciousness
6- focal neurologic deficit

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10
Q

Pathogens in community acquired bacterial meningitis

A

The major causes of community-acquired bacterial meningitis in adults in developed countries are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and, primarily in patients over 50 years of age or those who have deficiencies in cell-mediated immunity, Listeria monocytogenes

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11
Q

Listeria monocytogenes in Meningitis

A
  • Affects older adults and neonates
  • Site of entry: GI or placenta
  • predisposition: Defects in cell-mediated immunity (eg, glucocorticoids, transplantation [especially renal transplantation]), pregnancy, liver disease, alcoholism, malignancy
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12
Q

Listeria AB treatment in invasive disease such as CNS infection and Bacteremia.

A

1- ampicillin or penicillin, each combined with gentamicin.

  • Alternatives to ampicillin or penicillin:
  • trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
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13
Q

Poor prognostic factors in AML (6)

A

1- Age > 60
2- Karnofsky score (performance score) <60
3- MDR-1 positive phenotype
4- other heamatological disorder, MDS, Myeloproliferative, therapy related AML.
5- Karyotypic abnormalities, -5, -7, t (6,9).
6- FLT3/ITD mutation

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14
Q

Favorable prognostic factors in AML (6)

A

1- AGE<50
2- Karnofsky score >60
3- MDR-1 negative phenotype
4- No other hematological disorder, or prior chemo/radiotherapy.
5- karyotype: t(8,21), t(15/17), t(16,16) inv16.
6- NPM1 mutation

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15
Q

% of patients who need ICD implantation after TAVI

A

10%

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16
Q

IgA nephropathy epidemiology
2

A
  • Most common lesion found to cause primary glomerulonephritis throughout most developed countries.
  • 2:1 male-to-female predominance
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17
Q

IgA nephropathy- Clinical features
3

A

1- 40-50 % with one or recurrent episodes of gross hematuria, often accompanying an upper respiratory infection.
2- 30 to 40 percent have microscopic hematuria and usually mild proteinuria and are incidentally detected on a routine examination or during a diagnostic evaluation for chronic kidney disease.
3- 30-40 percent present with either nephrotic syndrome or an acute, rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis characterized by edema, hypertension, and renal insufficiency as well as hematuria

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18
Q

IgA nephropathy Diagnosis

A

The diagnosis can be confirmed only by kidney biopsy with immunofluorescence or immunoperoxidase studies for IgA deposits.

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19
Q

IgA Nephropathy Treatment

A

ACE-I or ARBS
controlling blood pressure

20
Q

SIT Saline test for aldosteronism

A

Saline infusion testing (SIT) for confirmation of primary aldosteronism (PA) is based on impaired aldosterone suppression in PA compared to essential hypertension (EH).

21
Q

Treatment of bilateral adrenal hyperplasia causing hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

22
Q

Next step if imaging is positive in case of pancreatic cancer

A

Biopsy.
However, in many cases, the diagnosis will not yet be histologically confirmed. Once pancreatic cancer is suspected on initial imaging studies, the next step in the workup is generally a staging evaluation to establish disease extent and resectability rather than biopsy. Patients who are fit for major surgery and who appear to have potentially resectable pancreatic cancer after the staging evaluation is complete do not necessarily need a preoperative biopsy confirming the diagnosis

23
Q

הסיבה השכיחה ביותר לדיספגיה

A

Schatzki syndrome, causing steakhouse syndrome
Caused by a ring of mucosal tissue
Symptoms include long lasting dysphagia- solid bolus

24
Q

classic presentation of achalasia

A

Dysphagia of fluids and solids

25
Q

Indication for Abdomen X ray in acute abdomen

A

Intestinal obstruction
To role out free air below the diaphragm

26
Q

Helicobacter Pylori AB regimes

A

1- Clarithromycin based triple therapy with amoxicillin:
- Clarithromycin (macrolide) 500 mg twice daily
- Amoxicillin 1 gram twice daile
- PPI twice daily

In patients with Penicillin allergy:
2- Clarithromycin based triple therapy with Metronidazole:
- Clarithromycin
- PPI
- Metronidazole

27
Q

Hyperaldosteronism- laboratory characteristics

A

1- hypokalemia
2- Metabolic alkalosis

28
Q

Pheochromocytoma- Laboratory characteristic

A

1- Hypercalcemia
2- Hypokalemia
3-Erthrocytosis (dehydration, TPO production by the tumor)
4- Hypoglycemia

29
Q

Pheochromocytoma- Clinical Triade

A

1- Headache
2- Palpitations
3- Sweating

with blood hypertension

30
Q

Primary hypoadrenalism- most common etiology

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis

31
Q

Secondary hypoadrenalism - most common etiology

A

Chronic steroid consumption

32
Q

Amiodarone Thyro-toxic effects

A

Amiodarone Hypothyroidism
1- ( Wolff- Chaikoff effect)- Transient hypothyroidism- no indication for amiodarone cessation or hormone treatment.
2- permanent hypothyroidism (Females, and in patients with positive Anti-TPO). Thyroid hormone is indicated.

Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis:
- AIT 1 (Jod- Basedow opposite of Woff- Chaikoff)- Treated with anti thyroid- pptassium Perchlorate
- AIT 2 Thyroiditis- treated with steroids, lithium, and surgically as a definitive treatment.

33
Q

Chvostec Sign

A

Ipsilateral facial spasm when tapping in front of the ear.
Seen in patients with hypocalcemia (e.g. Hypoparathyroidism, Vitamin D deficiency etc.. )

34
Q

First Step for evaluation of Hyperparathyroidism (for example in patient with chronic high calcium but normal PTH)

A

Cervical radiological investigation
Technetium sestamibi perfusion scan

35
Q

Metformin- Class and mechanism of action

A

Biguanides class

mechanism of action:
1- Decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver
2- Increase insulin-sensitization . by inhibiting basal secretions from pituitary gland of different hormones, causing multiple actions on tissues including the liver, skeletal muscle, endothelium, adipose tissue, and the ovaries.

36
Q

Sulfanylurea

A
  • Indicated foe DM type 2
  • mechanism of action: Increases insulin release from beta cells in the pancreas.
  • Three generations. Glimepride is a third generation Sulfanylurea.
  • Side effects include: weight gain, hypoglycemia, and GI.
37
Q

Criteria for metabolic syndrome:

A

3 out of 5:
- waist circumference over 102 cm in men, and 88 in women
- Triglycerides > 150 mg/dl
- HDL <40 in men and < 50 un women
- Systolic blood pressure> 130, or diastolic > 85.
- Fasting glucose >100 mg/dl/ DM.

38
Q

GLP-1 side effects

A

Nausea.
Therapy should be started gradually

39
Q

GLP-1- does it cause hypoglycemia

A

no. it may cause hypoglycemia if combined with other medications.

40
Q

GLP-1 effect on CV risk and weight

A

It decreases CV risks, and Decreases weight

41
Q

Thiazolidinedione TZD DM - mechanism of action and side effects

A
  • Increases sensitivity for insulin in tissue
  • Side effects: Fluid retention
  • It i scontraindicated for patients with heart failure with NYHA class III an IV
42
Q

FHH familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcemia- pathogenesis

A

FHH are associated with loss of function mutations in the calcium-sensing receptor (CaSR) gene, expressed in parathyroid and kidney tissue. These mutations decrease the receptor’s sensitivity to calcium, resulting in reduced receptor stimulation at normal serum calcium levels.

43
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

almost 70% of patients with PSC will develop IBD (80-90% UC)
in UC around 5 % will develop PSC
Ursodeoxycholic Acid- improves clinical symptoms, and laboratory findings lowering biliribuin

44
Q

Chron disease - Induction therapy

A

1- Combination therapy: Biological therapy and Immunomodulator :
Anti TNF: Inflixumab or Adalimumab or Certolizumab pegol.
Anti-integrin antibody
Anti-IL 12/23 antibody
Immunomodulators: azathioprine [AZA], 6-mercaptopurine [6-MP], or methotrexate.
2- Glucocorticoids: Prednisone, Budesonide (reserved to low risk patients)
Iv methylprednisolone in hospitalized patients

45
Q

Chron disease- Maintenance therapy

A

1- Combination therapy for 1-2 years (for patients who initiated combination therapy for induction).
2- Azathioprine (AZA)
3- 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)
4- Methotrexate

46
Q

Grace (Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events ) score- In patient mortality

A

Age
Heart rate
Systolic blood pressure
Initial creatinine value
Killip class