Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NUR 340 > Exam 1: week 2 > Flashcards

Exam 1: week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different types of burns

A
  • heat
  • electrical
  • chemical
  • cold
  • radiation
  • friction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some causes of heat burns

A

Most common
- hot liquid
- steam
- fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some complications of electrical burns

A

being electrocuted puts the heart at risk for arrhythmias
Skin and structures affected release myoglobin and hemoglobin that clog kidney tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some causes of chemical burns

A
  • alkalotic (harder to manage/more severe)
  • acidotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some causes of cold burns

A

frost bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some causes of radiation burns

A
  • sun burn
  • cancer treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some causes of electrical burns

A

road rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three methods of determining total body surface when assessing burns

A

Lund and Browder method
Palm method
Rule of nines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the rule of nines break up body sections

A
  • each arm is 9%
  • head is 9%
  • each leg is 18%
  • anterior thorax is 18%
  • posterior thorax is 18%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three zones of burn injury

A
  1. zone of hyperemia (top layer of skin)
  2. zone of stasis (blood supply)
  3. zone of coagulation (cell death occurs here)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the different classifications of burns

A
  • first degree (superficial)
  • second degree (partial thickness)
  • third degree (full thickness)
  • fourth degree (deep full thickness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the characteristics of first degree burns

A

E.g. sunburn
- pink or red
- painful
- warm to touch
- no blisters or scars
- good cap refill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the characteristics of second degree burns

A

Requires medical treatment
- affects epidermis and dermis
- painful
- shiny
- moist
- blisters present
- scars left behind
- blanchable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the characteristics of third degree burns

A
  • destroyed epidermis and dermis
  • destroyed hair follicles
  • destroyed sweat glands
  • destroyed nerves
  • decreased or no pain
  • no healing of skin
  • black, yellow, or red coloring
  • matte/dry
  • eschar tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the characteristics of fourth degree burns

A
  • all layers of skin destroyed
  • extends to muscle, ligaments, and bone
  • black/charred
  • all sensation gone
  • needs skin graft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens to body fluids with burns

A

fluids shift to extravascular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What electrolyte problems can be caused by burns

A
  • Hyperkalemia due to cell destruction
  • potassium imbalances may cause cardiac issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some pulmonary issues that can be associated with burns

A
  • inhalation injury
  • carbon monoxide poisoning
  • airway restriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is important to know about burns on the ears and nose

A

They don’t heal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Swelling from burns can cause what syndrome

A

compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the phases of burn injuries

A

Emergent/resuscitative phase
Acute/intermediate phase
Rehabilitation phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the characteristics of the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injuries

A

Starts at the onset of the burn and goes until restoration of capillary permeability (24-48 hours)
- Stop the injury: extinguish flames, cool burn, irrigate chemical burns
- ABCs
- start O2 and large bore IV
- remove restrictive devices and clothing (prevent compartment syndrome and airway obstruction)
- monitor for shock, respiratory distress, and compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the characteristics of the acute/intermediate phase of burn injuries

A

Starts when capillary permeability is stabilized until wound closure (starts at 48-72 hours until wound closes)
- transport patient to ER
- insert foley catheter
- if burns exceed 20-25%, insert NG tube to suction
- NPO
- monitor for infection, pain, and fluid/nutrition imbalance
- sterile technique for wound care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the characteristics of the rehabilitation phase of burn injuries

A

Starts immediately in the emergent phase and last long after the burns are healed
- psychosocial support
- self-image
- reconstructive surgery to restore function and appearance
- vocational counseling and support groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are some complications of major burn injuries
- respiratory failure - acute renal failure - heart failure - pulmonary edema - compartment syndrome - sepsis - delirium
26
What are some signs of inhalation injury
- burned in an enclosed structure - burns on face - hair singeing - soot on nose or mouth - bright red lips (due to CO2) - issues talking (hoarse voice) - confusion/anxiety
27
What are the different types of wound debridement
- natural - mechanical - chemical - surgical
28
What should the nurse know about burn pain
One of the most painful pain meds via IV route only during the emergent and acute phases - morphine - fentanyl
29
Which nerve is important for swallowing and preventing aspiration
superior laryngeal nerve
30
What are the risk factors of oral cancer
- tobacco use (including smokeless tobacco) - alcohol - men - older than 40 - African American
31
What are the risk factors for esophageal cancer
- GERD - alcohol - tobacco use
32
How is esophageal cancer diagnosed
- mostly asymptomatic - seek treatment because of a feeling that something is stuck in their throat - usually caught late so not very good outcomes
33
What is a radical neck dissection
Surgical procedure done in patients with esophageal cancer to stop the spread to other parts of the body Removes: - all cervical lymph nodes from mandible to clavicle - sternocleidomastoid muscle - internal jugular vein - spinal accessory muscle on one side of the neck *not very good outcomes - high mortality rate*
34
What is Zenker's diverticulum
A sack of esophagus tissue that has protruded behind the cricopharengeus muscle Increased pressure in the esophagus leads to aspiration and airway issues
35
How is someone diagnosed with GERD
having reflux at least twice a week
36
What are the risk factors for GERD
- getting older - irritable bowel syndrome - obstructive airway disorders (COPD, asthma, CF) - Barrett esophagus - peptic ulcer disease - angina - drinking coffee - alcohol - tobacco - h. Pylori infection
37
What are some teaching points for patients with GERD
- 4-6 small meals a day - avoid coffee, tea, and chocolate - avoid snacking - avoid fluids during meals - lose weight
38
Why is it recommended to avoid fluids during meals for patients with GERD
Drinking fluids promotes peristalsis which means the food they are eating isn't being digested enough
39
Abnormalities in the assessment of the Right upper quadrant can be signs of which disorders
- hepatitis - acute hepatic congestion - biliary (gall) stones - colic (pain with gall stones blocking a duct) - acute cholecystitis - perforated peptic ulcer
40
Abnormalities in the assessment of the Right lower quadrant can be signs of which disorders
- appendicitis - perforated duodenal ulcer - cecal volvulus - strangulated hernia
41
Abnormalities in the assessment of the left upper quadrant can be signs of which disorders
- splenic trauma - pancreatitis - pyloric obstruction
42
Abnormalities in the assessment of the left lower quadrant can be signs of which disorders
- ulcerative colitis - colonic diverticulitis
43
What are the signs and symptoms of peritonitis
- rigid, severe abdomen pain - tenderness - nausea - vomiting - chills - fever
44
What is erosive gastritis
When the mucosa of the stomach is damaged and the acidity of the stomach acids eat away at the stomach lining - leads to peritonitis and sepsis
45
What are the symptoms of erosive gastritis
- abdominal pain - headache - N/V - blood in vomit or stool
46
How do we treat acute gastritis
- stop eating food and drinking alcohol until symptoms go away - neutralizing agents to prevent acidic or alkaline damage - no lavage or emetics to prevent perforation
47
How do we treat chronic gastritis
- modify diet - promote rest - reduce stress - avoid alcohol - avoid NSAIDS - medication
48
What are some nursing management techniques for patients in the hospital with gastritis
- reduce anxiety - promote optimal nutrition - promote optimal fluid balance - discourage caffeine - discourage alcohol - discourage smoking - pain relief measures
49
What are the symptoms of a peptic ulcer due to a gastric h. pylori infection
- epigastric pain - food makes pain worse - dull/achy pain - weight loss - severe ulcer can cause GI bleeding - coffee ground or bright red emesis
50
What are the symptoms of a peptic ulcer due to a duodenal h. pylori infection
- epigastric pain - food makes pain better - gnawing pain that wakes you up - normal weight - severe ulcer can cause GI bleeding - black tarry stools
51
What are some potential complications of peptic ulcers
- GI bleeding - perforated stomach lining - bowel blockage - increased risk of GI cancer
52
What is dumping syndrome
When food enters the intestine too fast - Early symptoms: swollen abdomen, nausea, diarrhea - late symptoms: dizziness, sweating, weakness
53
What should the nurse teach a patient in order to avoid dumping syndrome after treatment for peptic ulcer
- eat small, frequent meals - lie down 30 minutes after eating - dont drink fluids with meals (wait 30 min) - avoid sugary foods and liquids - eat high protein and high fiber
54
What what kind of diet should a patient have if they have ulcers
- avoid spicy food - avoid acidic foods - eat low fiber foods that are bland and easy to digest
55
What are some medications used to treat peptic ulcers
- antacids - mucosal healing medications (carafate) - H2 receptor blockers - Bismuth - PPi's - Antibiotics
56
What are some causes of acute gastrointestinal hemorrhage
- peptic ulcer disease (mainly caused by NSAIDS and H. pylori) - stress related erosive syndrome - esophageal varices
57
What is hematochezia
The passage of bright red bloody stools - commonly associated with lower GI bleeding - most common causes are hemorrhoid's, diverticulosis, and colon cancer - if this is from an upper GI source, it is life threatening
58
What is melena
Black tarry stool resulting from blood that's been altered by the gut flora
59
What does the post-op diet look like for someone who underwent gastric bypass surgery
- six small meals a day - 600-800 calories/day at first then progress to 800-1000 calories/day once they can tolerate soft foods - high protein in diet
60
What is a major complication post gastric bypass
dumping syndrome
61
What are some weightloss medications
- orlistat - phentermine - phentermine/topiramate
62
What are the signs and symptoms of gastric cancer
- pain thats relieved by antacids - dyspepsia - low appetite - weight loss - abdominal pain - bloating after meals - N/V

NUR 340 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions